BSNL GE- JTO

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination 

 Test Paper - II

1. If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the waveform of the current is- a) Triangular
   b) Trapezoidal
   c)) Sinusoidal
   d) Rectangular
   
2. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
   a) It is dimensionless
   b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
   c)) It’s value for all substances is less than one
   d)) None
   
3. Pure metals generally have-
   a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
   b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
   c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
   d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
   
4. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
   a) Air
   b) Ferrite
   c) Powdered ion
   d) Steel
   
5. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
   a) C a V^1/3
   b) C a V^-1/3
   c) C a V^1/2
   d) C a V^-1/2  
6. A superconductor is a-
   a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
   b) A conductor having zero resistance
   c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
   d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
7. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/⁰C then this transducer is indeed a-
   a) Thermistor
   b) Forward  biased pn junction diode
   c) Reverse  biased pn junction diode 
   d) FET
8. The location of lightning arrestor is -
   a) Near the transformer
   b) Near the circuit breaker
   c) Away from the transformer
   d) None
9. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
   a) Increased
   b) Decreased
   c) Neither a nor b
   d) Both a and b
10. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
    a) Are available locally
    b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
    c) Have more electrons than holes
    d) Have zero energy gaps
11. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
    a) Channel resistance
    b) Size of depletion regions
    c) Voltage drop across channel
    d) Gate reverse bias
12. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm^-1 m^-1 is of the order of -
    a) 10¹⁰
    b) 10⁵
    c) 10^-4
    d) 10^-6
13. When biased correctly, a zener diode –
    a) acts as a fixed resistance
    b) has a constant voltage across it
    c) has a constant current passing through it
    d) never overheats
14. The current amplification factor a_dc is given by –
    a) I_C/I_E
    b) I_C/I_B
    c) I_B/I_C
    d) I_B/I_C  
15. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
    a) high input impedance
    b) low input impedance
    c) same input impedance
    d) none
16. The source-drain channel of JFET is -
    a) ohmic
    b) bilateral
    c) unilateral
    d) both a and b
17. A diac is equivalent to a -
    a) Pair of SCRs
    b) Pair of four layer SCRs
    c) Diode and two resistors
    
    d) Triac width
18. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´ 10¹¹ /cm³ at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 10¹³/cm³ then the hole density will be –
    a) 10⁶/cm³
    b) 10³/ cm³
    c) 10¹⁰/ cm³
    d) 10¹²/ cm³  
     When the two networks shown in fig. are equivalent with respect to the terminals 1 and 2 at all frequencies then the values of  C_A, L_B, L_C and C_C will be –
                         
    a) 0.5, 0.33, 6, 0.166
    b) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.66
    c) 0.5, 3, 3, 2
    d) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.166
    
19. The transmission parameter of the network C when the transmission parameter of the network A and B are  and  respectively are -
    
     
    
    
    
    
20. The statement 'In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf's reduced to zero’ represents -
    a) Kirchhoff's law
    b) Norton's theorem
    c) Thevenin's theorem
    d) Superposition theorem
    
21. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is –
    a) TE₁ mode
    b) TM₀₁ mode  
    c)  TE₀₁ mode
    d) Higher order mode
    
22. A two-port network is symmetrical if –
    a) z₁₁z₂₂ – z₁₂z₂₁ = 1
    b) h₁₁h₂₂ – h₁₂h₂₁ = 1 
    c) AD – BC = 1
    d) y₁₁y₂₂ – y₁₂y₂₁ = 1
    
23. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
    a) balun
    b) broad band directional coupler
    c) double stub
    d) single stub of adjustable position
    
24. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -
    a) by an LC network
    b) as an RC driving point impedance
    c) as an RC driving point admittance
    d) only by an RLC network
    
25. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements –
    a) R and C
    b) L and C
    c) R and L
    d) R, L and C
    
26. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to –
    a) B
    b) Z₁₂
    
    d) h₁₂
    
27. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
    a)  The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
    b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
    c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
    d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.
    
28. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
    a)  250 –300 MHz
    b) 150 – 200 MHz
    c) 90 – 105 MHz
    d) 30-70 MHz
    
29.  In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -
    a)  Inductive loading
    b) Resistive loading
    c) Capacitive loading
    d) Shielding
    
30. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
    a)  49 W
    b) 60 W
    c) 70 W
    d) 140 W
    
31. One of the following statements which is not true for a strip line compared to a waveguide is –
    a)  It can be directly connected to semiconductor microwave devices
    b) It is much smaller in size
    c) It has a smaller bandwidth
    d) Losses are less
    
32. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be –
    a)  25W
    b) 50W
    c) 100W
    d) 150W
    
33. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ‘f’ in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
    a)  inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m
    b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m
    c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m
    d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f
    
34. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -
    a)  0.4456 ⁰
    b) 1.4456⁰
    c) 2.4456⁰
    d) 3.4456⁰  
    
35. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -
    a)  Polystyrene
    b) Glass of low refractive index
    c) Paraboloid surfaces
    d) Dielectric media having large refractive index
    
36. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -
    a)  Electrodynamometer
    b) PMMC
    c) Electrostatic
    d) Moving iron
    
37. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?
    a)  An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A
    b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A
    c) A dc ammeter will read 10A
    d) A dc ammeter will read zero
    
38. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -
    a)  power factor of the circuit is high
    b) impedance of the circuit is high
    c) bandwidth is large
    d) none of these
    
39. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
    a)  the maximum number of input  channels
    b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
    c) it's internal clock period
    d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display
    
40. The aperture time of an A to D converter is given by -
    
    
    
    
    
41. A memoryless system is –
    a)  causal
    b) not causal
    c) nothing can be said
    d) none
    
42. An air capacitor is a –
    a)  time variant
    b) active device
    c) time invariant
    d) time invariant and passive device
    
43. Thermistors are made of -
    a)  pure metals
    b) pure insulators
    c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides
    d) pure semiconductor
    
44.  Pirani gauge is used to measure –
    a)  very low pressures
    b) high pressures
    c) pressures in the region of 1 atm
    d) fluid flow
    
45. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion –
    a)  AC voltage controllers
    b) Cyclo converters
    c) Phase controlled rectifiers
    d) Inverters
    
46. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from –
    a)  off state to on state
    b) on state to off state
    c) on state to on state
    d) off state to off state
    
47. Q factor of a coil in Maxwell bridge is obtained as –
    
    
    
    
    
48. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -
    a)  peak repetitive off state forward voltage
    b) peak working off state forward voltage
    c) peak working off state reverse voltage
    d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage
    
49. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-
    a)  is a straight line passing through origin
    b) is of the type V_g  = a + bI_g
    c) is a curve between V_g and I_g
    d) has a spread between two curves of V_g – I_g  
    
50. A four quadrant operation requires-
    a)  two full converters in series
    b) two full converters connected back to back
    c) two full converters connected in parallel
    d) two semi converters connected back to back
    
51. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is V_s and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are –
    a)  V_s, P
    b) V_s/2, P
    c) 2V_s, 2P
    d) 2V_s, P
    
52. For critical damping of the resonant circuit consisting of R_d, L, C in series is –
    
    
    
    d) none of the above
    
53. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has –
    a)  only an ohmic region
    b) only a saturation region
    c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages
    d)an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages
    
54. The energy gap in a semiconductor -
    
    a)   increases with temperature
    b) remains constant
    c)  slightly increase with temperature
    d) decrease with temperature
55. In an electronic circuit matching means -
    
    a)   connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance
    b) selection of components which are compatible
    c)  transferring maximum amount of signal between  different kinds of circuits.
    d) RC coupled stages
56. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because
    
    a)   They have higher input impedance
    b) They have high switching time
    c)  They consume less power
    d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes
    
57. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -
    a)  Increase in I_CEO
    b) Increase in ac current gain
    c) Decrease in ac current gain
    d) Increase in  output resistance
    
58. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is -
    
    a) 13. 3 KHz
    b) 30KHz
    c)  10KHz
    d) 40KHz
59. The output of a class B amplifier -
    
    a)   is distortion free
    b) consists of positive half cycles only
    c)  is like the output of a full wave rectifier
    d) comprises short duration current pulses
    
60. An amplifier with negative feedback -
    
    a)   lowers its lower 3 dB frequency
    b)  raises its upper 3 dB frequency
    c)  increases its bandwidth
    d) all of the above
61. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -
    
    a)   Block becomes redundant
    b)  A FM detector would be required
    c)  A high frequency signal generator
    d) An additional local oscillator will be needed
    
62. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-
    a)  greater speed
    b) slower speed
    c) average speed
    d) none of the above
    
63. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by –
    a)  Dt = N ´ Fc
    b) Dt = N ´ 1/Fc
    c) Dt = 1/N ´ Fc
    d) Dt = N ¸ 1/Fc
    
64. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be –
    (y denotes don't care)
    a)  y and 0
    b) y and 1
    c) 0 and y
    d) 1 and y
    
65. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of –
    a)  a flip flop
    b) a transistor acting as a capacitor
    c) a transistor
    d) a capacitance
    
66. The 2's complement of 1000₂ is –
    a)  0111
    b) 0101
    c) 1000
    d) 0001
    
67. Master slave flip-flop is made up of –
    a)  two flip flops connected in series
    b) two flip flops connected in parallel
    c) a debouncer circuit
    d) a-D- latch
    
68. Number of nybbles making one byte is –
    a)  2
    b) 4
    c) 8
    d) 16
    
69. The intrinsic impedance of free space-
    a)  is independent of frequency
    b) decreases with increase of frequency
    c) increases with increase of frequency
    d) varies as square root of frequency
    
70. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -
    a)  –200 dB/decade
    b) –240 dB/decade
    c) –230 dB/decade
    d) –320 dB/decade
    
71.  In a unity feed back control system the open loop transfer function is
    The closed loop transfer unit will have pole at –
    a)  –2, -2
    b) –2, -1
    c) –2, +j1,-j1
    d) –2, 2
    
72.  In a compensating network the transfer function is of the form  If this is a phase log network the value of   should be –
    a)  exactly equal to 0
    b) between 0 and 1
    c) exactly equal to 1
    d) greater than 1
    
73.  Considering the conditions-
    1. High loop gain     2. Less ringing
    3. Greater damping   4 Negative dB gain margin
    System stability requirements would include
    a)  1 and 3
    b) 1, 2 and 3
    c) 1 and 4
    d) 2, 3 and 4
    
74. A typical control system is shown.
    Assuming   the steady state errors is given by
    
    
         
       
           
    
75. The centre and radius of M of circles are given respectively by
    
    
    
    
    
76. The open –loop transfer function for a unity feedback system is –
    
    what is the steady state error if the input is,
    r(t) = (2 + 3t + 4t²) u(t)
    a)  0
    b) 1
    c) 2
    d) 3
    
77. The sensitivity S_G^M of a system with the transfer function  is given by
    
    
    
    
    
78. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides –
    a)  24 hour orbit
    b) stationary satellite
    c) global communication
    d) zero-gravity environs
79. Radio Broadcasting is an example of –
    a)  space multiplexing
    b) time multiplexing
    c) frequency multiplexing
    d) none of the above
80. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a –
    a)  Low pass filters (LPE) alone
    b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF
    c) A differentiator followed by a LPF
    d) A clipper circuit by a LPF
    
81. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using –
    a)  AND gates
    b) Band pass
    c) differentiation
    
    d) Integration
82.  The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-
    
    a)   frequency shift keying
    b) two – tone modulation
    c)  pulse code modulation
    d) single tone modulation
83. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-
    
    a)    FM generation only
    b)  100AM generation only
    c)  PM generation only
    d)  both PM and AM generation  
84.  In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-
    
    a)   reduce x-ray emission
    b)  ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots
    c)  increase screen brightness
    d)  provide degaussing for the screen  
85. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-
    
    a)   the keyed AGC amplifar
    b)  a clipper
    c)   an integrator
    d)  a sawtooth current
86. Band width of microwaves is-
    a)  1GHz -10³ GHz
    b) 1GHz –100 GHz
    c) 1 GHz –10 GHz
    d) 1 GHz – 10⁶ GHz
    
87.  In transverse Magnetic mode-
    a)  no electric line is in direction of propagation
    b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation
    c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation
    d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation
    
88. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to –
    a)  Reforction of wave
    b) Reflection of wave
    c) Pierus through Inosphere
    d) None
89. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be –
    a)  60⁰
    b) 90⁰
    c) 180⁰
    d) 360⁰  
90. The transmission does not have -
    a)  Partition noise
    b) Flicker noise
    c) resistance
    d) Short noise
91. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -
    a)  capacitance
    b) Inductance
    c) Resistance
    d) Is a linear device
92. Scattering matrix equation for directional coupler is –
    a)                      
    b)
    c)                     
    d)
93.  Noise figure is calculated as –
    a)  i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio
    b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio 
    c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio  X 100
    d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio
94. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by –
    a)  Nicholas chart
    b) Nyquist plot
    c) Bode plot
    d) Root locus.
    
95.  The polar plot of G(S) =  intercepts real axis at w = w_o. Then, the real part and w_o are given by-
    a)  –5, 1
    b) –2.5, 1
    c) –5,0-5
    d) –5, 2
    
96. Laplace transform F (s) of a function  f (E) is given by
    
    The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-
    a)  zero and 1
    b) zero and 10
    c) 10 and zero
    d) 70 and 80
    
97. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to –
    a)  avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
    b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal
    c) minimize free-space losses
    d) maximize antenna gain
98. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-
    a)  EIRP
    b) Antenna size
    c) Coverage area
    d) Antenna gain
    
99. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-
    a)  horizontal blanking
    b) vertical blanking
    c) the serrations
    d) the horizontal retrace  
    
100. The son seems to have -------- from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-
     a)  washed
     b) inherited
     c) admired
     d) attempt
     
101. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-
     a)  water
     b) stone
     c) air
     d) hills
     
102. What is a collection of sheep called ?
     a)  bunch
     b) flock
     c) herd
     d) comet
     
103. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :
     You can buy a book.   You can read it.
     a)  and
     b) nor
     c) either
     d) neither
     What is the opposite of Asperity –
     a)  gentility
     b) superiority
     c) kindness
     d) clarity
     
104. The Election Commission functions under-
     a)  Ministry of Home Affairs
     b) Ministry of Law
     c) Prime Minister's Secretariat
     d) None of these
     
105. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-
     a)  President's Rule is to be imposed
     b) Emergency is declared
     c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry
     d) A political party of national level is to be banned
     
106. Radio-activity was first discovered by-
     a)  Becquerel
     b) Madam Curie
     c) Rutherford
     d) Jenner
     
107. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-
     a)  1995-2000
     b) 1996-2001
     c) 1997-2002
     d) 1998-2003
     
108. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?
     a)  5,000 MW
     b) 10,000 MW
     c) 15,000 MW
     d) 20,000 MW
     
109. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?
     a)  1769
     b) 1789
     c) 1889
     d) 1869
     
110. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?
     a)  1/10th of total membership
     b) 1/6th of total membership
     c) 1/4th of total membership
     d) 1/5th of total membership
     
111. How may countries are non-permanent members of the  Security Council?
     a)  6
     b) 7
     c) 9
     d) 10
     
112.  The International Date Line is represented by-
     a)  100⁰ meridian
     b) 0⁰ meridian
     c) 180⁰ meridian
     d) 90⁰ meridian
     
113.  India's first satellite was launched from-
     a)  Sriharikota
     b) Cape Kennedy
     c) Bangalore
     d) A Soviet cosmodrome
     
114.  Name the author of the famous book "Politics"-
     a)  Aristotle
     b) Socrates
     c) Plato
     d) None of them
     
115.  "Guernica" is Picasso's painting on-
     a)  The Spanish Civil War
     b) The American Civil War
     c) The French Revolution
     d) The Russian Revolution
     
116.  The object of the Supreme Court's  Keshvanand Bharati ruling is -
     a)  To put a limit on Parliament's amendatory powers
     b) To give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution
     c) To give precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
     d) None of these
     
117. Which country in July '99 officially announced mastering of indigenously developed neutron bomb technology?
     a)  N. Korea
     b) France
     c) India
     d) China
     
118. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?
     a)  Tamil Nadu
     b) Maharashtra
     c) Jammu and Kashmir
     d) Nagaland