Vizag steel plant Management Trainee (MT)Exam 2009 paper

1 An ice block submerged in the water, if the ice melts level of water (increase,decrease,remains same,none)
2 Simply supported beam with w point load at the middle, max. bending moment?(wl/4)
3 Simply supported beam with UDL ,max.deflection (wl4/384EI)
4 Cantilevel beam point load at tip,max.bending momemt comes at (end)
5 When bearing life L10 represents (bearings 10%survive,bearings 10% fails, none )
6 For welding high carbon steels which type of flame is used (oxidizing,carburizing,neutral,none)
7. Arrange the following cutting tools in decreasing order of machining hardness…Ceramics
8. When P1 and P2 are the loads acting on bearings with life L1 and L2 then L1/L2=?L1/L2={P2/P1}10/3
9.Product simplification does not mean??Product characterization
10 Which of the following process has the most scope in manufacturing? CAD/CAM, CAM, CIM, All the above.
11. Concurrent engineering means? (Manufacturing, designing, both,none)
12. Which manufacturing process yields higher output and increases worker productivity-(process layout,line+process,functional layout)
13. 18-4-1 represents-, Tungsten-Cr-Vn
14 For which material is negative allowance provided-(Graphite,steel,bronze,cast iron)
15. What is the recrystallisation temperature of tin- (60,300,1000,none)
16. What is the purpose of borax in soldering-
17. Top gates are provided in which type of casting-(Shallow casting,simple,complex,none)18. Which statement is true regarding simple gear trains-(i/p and o/p shafts r fixed, each shaft has 2 gears, i/p & o/p shafts r moving)
19. What is the purpose of normalizing- (Refining of grain structure)
20. As the grain size is decreased-(Hardness increases,corrosion resistance decreases,both)
21. Isothermal gas is filled in a vessel at a pressure P and temperature T then considering the compressible forces as the height increases pressure ??(linearly increases linearly decreases exponentially increase )
22. A bottle is filled with water and air and is tied to a string and is rotated in horizontal direction. Then in which direction will air bubble travel?(bottom,neck,uniformly spread)
23. A empty bottle(in vaccum) filled with a gas at temp T and press P when the pressure of bottle reaches P temperature of the gas is _? (T,T/K,TK)
24. Bearing somerfield number _ with load on bearing? (increases,decreases,no change)
25. Critical radius for a sphere is-(2k/h)
26. Critical radius exist for_ (spherical,cylindrical,both,slab)
27. Convectional resistance/internal resistance is called (biot number)
28. Nusselt no. is? (hl/k)
29. EOQ=?
30 Which statement is true regarding critical path method? (i only one critical path exists for a network, more than one with same duration,)
31. Shipment cost,inspection cost,storage cost comes under_ (carrying cost ,holding cost,)
32. Ischronous governers sensitivity is- (zero,infinite)
33. self energized brakes are-(friction moment acts in the direction of application of force,opposite to the direction of force, does not need a force to act ,)
34 The ratio of heat capacities for evaporator and condenser is_ (Zero,infinity)
35. when steam and air mixture with partial pressure 0.06 and 0.07 enters a condenser what is the condenser pressure? (0.06,0.07,0.53,0.03)
36. In pulverized burning of coal heat transfer from boiler to water occurs through_( predominant radiation, convection, conduction, conduction+convection)
37. Rankine cycle efficiency for same parameters increases mostly with_(reheat, regeneration, super heating )
38. Ericson cycle with all reversible processes assume_(carnot cycle,stirling,brayton
39. Air delivery tank at outlet of reciprocating compressor is provided for_ (provide constant pressure, avoid cavitation, )
40. High speed centrifugal pump has _? (vanes faces in forward direction side,backward,radial vanes)
41. Thermal efficiency in decreasing order_? (Otto cycle>dual cycle>diesel cycle)
42. When a 1000 K body comes in contact with atmosphere at 300K a loss of 9000 KJ heat is transferred. The net available energy transferred is_43. When entropy of a system increases_? (unavailable energy increases )
44. Rolling is a process widely used for_?
(I section,tubes)
45. Tool nomenclature_?
46. In francis turbine movement of steam?
47. For low power consumption _? (rake angle should be increased / decreased, nose angle increased/ decreased)
47. Continuous chips occur in_? (High speeds,low speeds,both,none)
48. Primary forces in a reciprocating engine_? (fully balanced, partially balanced, completely unbalanced, none)
49. In proximate analysis pyrogallol is used for analysis of which element_? (nitrogen,oxygen)
50. Sulphur content in fuel greatly affects_? (corrosion)
51. Heat transfer through radiation can be increased by_?
(decreasing emissivity and increases temperature of hot body)
52. which theory of failure clearly explains the failure in case of ductile material? (Maximun shear stress theory or Guests or trescas theory)
53. When a material is subjected to continuous cycles which limit is being verified? (Endurance limit)
54. where is stress concentration maximum? (notches, stress reducing throughcuts)
55. Power transmitted through a belt drive_? P(T2-T1)
56. According to Eulers theory crippling or buckling load is (Wcr = Cπ2EI/l2)
57. During sensible heating, specific humidity_? (remains constant)
58. COP of a refrigerator is _? (greater than 1 )
59. The maximum temperature in a refrigeration cycle is_? (less than/greater than/equal to critical temperature)60. The pressure at the throat of the nozzle_? (maximum,min)
61. for a statically determinate set of forces for equilibrium_? (∑ f(X),f(Y),f(Z)=0,∑M=0)
62. For a statically determinate set of forces- (there r as many equations as the no. of unknowns)63. 1-2-3 analysis is used for_? (1.break even analysis, ??)
64. A problem on mean time of service something like a salesman has a rating of 120. considering 10% allowance time calculate the time required to serve 120???
65. A problem n determining time in a queue??
66. Energy equation for a laminar flow is _? (Uniform and steady ,non uniform and unsteady)67. Undercuts in welding occurs due to_? (low welding current,high welding current)
68. Work holding equipment in shearing??
69. At the centre of a nozzle _? (Mach no<1>=1;=1)

VIZAG STEEL Management Trainee (Technical) Recruitment

Rectt. Advt. No. : 04/2011

Located in the city of destiny, Visakhapatnam Steel Plant (VSP) is India’s first shore-based integrated Steel Plant built with state-of-the-art technology and is a prime producer of long steel products in the country. With an annual turnover of over `10,500 crores, the Company is poised to increase the capacity to 7.3 Mtpa liquid steel by 2013-14 and has commenced planning for the next phase of expansion to 11 to 12 Mtpa, where it is expected to add flat products.

NUMBER OF POSTS: 150 (UR - 75, SC - 23, ST - 5, OBC - 47)
Two (2) posts out of the above are earmarked for Physically Challenged (PWD) (Partially Deaf – 1, Partially Blind – 1)
Discipline Tentative no. of vacancies

Chemical 11

Civil 7

Computer Science / IT 5

Electrical 24

Electronics 5

Instrumentation 1

Mechanical 44

Metallurgy 53

ELIGIBILITY:
Qualifications
Full-time regular Bachelor’s Degree in Engineering or Technology in the disciplines of
CHEMICAL / CIVIL / COMPUTER SCIENCE/INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY / ELECTRICAL /
ELECTRONICS / INSTRUMENTATION / MECHANICAL / METALLURGY from a University/Institute recognized by AICTE with minimum 60% of marks in the aggregate of all years / semesters (50% in aggregate for SC/ST/PWD candidates). For Computer Science / IT discipline, those having Master of Computer Applications (MCA) (full-time three years course) from a University/Institute recognized by AICTE with minimum 60% marks in the aggregate (50% marks in aggregate for SC/ST candidates) are also eligible.
Final year students:
Candidates appearing for their Final Year examination and expecting their results can also apply subject to passing the qualifying degree with specified percentage of marks by 30th June, 2011 and producing certificate to that effect at the time of interview/joining. Candidates failing to produce the Provisional Certificate and Marks Sheet in original at the time of joining shall not be considered.

Age:
Born not earlier than February 1, 1986. Upper age limit is relaxable by 5 years for SC/ST, 3 years for OBC(non-creamy layer) and 10 years for PWD candidates. Those domiciled in the state of Jammu & Kashmir from 1/1/80 to 31/12/89 will be allowed 5 years relaxation in upper age limit.
Health:
Candidates should be of sound physique, free from any physical defect. Minimum requirements are:
Height 150cms; Weight 45 kgs; Myopia and Hypermetropia, if any, not to exceed ±4.00D in each eye.
No squint and no colour blindness - partial or full. No relaxation in these standards will be made. Candidates may ensure that they fulfill these standards before applying. Suitable relaxation in height & weight will be given to female candidates.
RESERVATIONS:
Reservation for SC/ST/OBC/Physically Handicapped categories shall be as per Presidential Directives.
Candidates belonging to OBC category but not covered under ‘Non-Creamy Layer’ and thus, not entitled to OBC reservation, should indicate their category as ‘GENERAL’. The OBC (non creamy layer) candidates are required to submit the requisite certificate in the prescribed format issued in the current financial year by the competent authority.
SELECTION:
The selection process will consist of Written Test followed by Interview. Eligible candidates will be required to appear for a Written Examination, information of which will be provided in the Admit card. Candidates shortlisted on the basis of their performance in the Written Test will be intimated to appear for Group Discussion/Interview.
Written Test:
• Written test will comprise General Awareness, Numerical Ability, General English, Verbal and Non Verbal Reasoning and separate paper for each discipline.
• Eligible registered candidates will have to appear for written test at designated centre at
their own expense.
• Written Test will be held simultaneously at Visakhapatnam, Hyderabad, Chennai,
Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai. Candidates are required to choose one of these cities as Test Centre and no change under any circumstances will be allowed subsequently. The Company however reserves the right to add/delete any centre and allocate appropriate centre to the candidate at its discretion.
• Likely date for written test is 15th May, 2011 (Sunday). However, the date may undergo change. Candidates are requested to visit the website regularly for this information.
Group Discussion/Interview:
Candidates shortlisted on the basis of their performance in the Written Test will be intimated to appear for Group Discussion/Interview (which may held at short notice). Please visit the website for information on the same.

HOW TO APPLY:
Eligible and interested candidates would be required to apply online only through VSP website
www.vizagsteel.com . No other means/mode of application shall be accepted.
Starting date for online registration - 23rd March, 2011
Closing date for online registration - 10th April, 2011
Steps for Applying:
STEP 1: Log on to www.vizagsteel.com and click on “Careers”
STEP 2: Read CAREFULLY all the instructions given on the website.
STEP 3: Have the following readily available:
a) e-mail ID (Which must be valid for Minimum of Twelve Months)
b) Latest passport size photograph in digital format (.jpg file of less than 50 KB size) and digital format of the signature (.jpg file of less than 50 KB size) for uploading with the application form. The recommended dimensions of the passport photograph are 150(W) X 200(H) pixels. The recommended dimensions of digital format of the signature is 150(W) X 50(H) pixels.
STEP 4: Enter the requisite details and upload the passport size photograph and signature. Download (for General and OBC candidates only) the Application fee payment challan, deposit fee in SBI and obtain the stamped Counterfoils (VSP Copy and Candidate’s copy) along with deposit Journal Number.
STEP 5: Fill in the online form, with all the Payment details (for General and OBC candidates
only) like Deposit Journal Number, Deposit Branch Code No., and date of deposit, and click SUBMIT.
STEP 6: After you click SUBMIT, download the computer generated Registration Slip with unique registration number and other essential details. Take a print of the Registration Slip to be produced at the time of the interview.
STEP 7: The online registration site would be open from 23.3.2011 to 10.4.2011. All correspondence with the candidates shall be done through e-mail only. All information regarding examination schedule/admit card/interview call letters etc. shall be provided through e-mail/ to be downloaded from website. Responsibility of receiving/downloading and printing of admit card shall be of the candidate. Company will not be responsible for any loss of e-mail sent, due to invalid/wrong e-mail ID provided by the candidate.
STEP 8: Candidates are advised to visit the website on or after 5th May, 2011 for further instructions regarding downloading of Admit Cards.

Border Roads Organisation JE Junior Engineer Civil Jobs Recruitment 2011

Border Roads Organisation Special Recruitment Drive to SC/ST/OBC Candidates for 603 Junior Engineer Civil Posts for the Year 2011.

Name of the Posts: Junior Engineer JE (Civil)

No.of Vacancies: 603 Posts (Sc-14,ST-63,OBC-526)

Pay Scale: Rs.9,300/- to Rs.34,800/- + Grade Pay: Rs.4,200/-

Eligibility Criteria:

Educational Qualification: 3 years diploma or Licentiateship in Civil Engineering or equivalent from a recoginsed Institution or diploma in Civil Engineering from College of Military Engineering.

Age Limits: Minimum : 18 Years Maximum : 27 Years

Application Fee: Rs.50/- for OBC Candidates & Rs.25/- SC/ST Candidates.

Exam Pattern & Selection Procedure : Recruitment as per based on the merit in 1.Physical Test 2. Written Test 3. Interview.

For Further Details about Exam Pattern ,Selection Procedure,Eligibility Criteria,How to Pay,How to Apply On-line,Age Limits,Pay Scale Refer Company Website : http://www.bro.nic.in/newsdetails.asp?newsid=95 Carefully before applying.

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. The practical unit of power is

(a) Joule
(b) Ampere
(c) Watt
(d) Weber
Ans : c

2. Form factor of a sine wave is
(a) 1.414
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 1.11
Ans : d

3. The unit of resistance is
(a) Mho
(b) ohm-m
(c) Ohms
(d) Amps
Ans :c

4. A resistance of 10 ohm is connected across a supply of 200V. If resistance R is now connected in parallel with a 10 ohm resistance, the current drawn from the supply gets doubled. The value of unknown resistance R is
(a) 5 ohm
(b) 20 ohm
(c) 10 ohm
(d) 15 ohm
Ans : c

5. Kirchhoff’s first law is also called as
(a) voltage law
(b) Current law
(c) Mesh Current law
(d) All the above
Ans : b

6. Find the total resistance when four 3 Ohm resistance are connected in series
(a) 3 ohm
(b) 12 ohm
(c) 14 ohm
(d) 8 ohm
Ans : b

7. Unit of impedance is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Ohm
(d) mho
Ans : c

8. The close path of the flux around any current carrying circuit is referred as
Circuit.
(a) Magnetic
(b) Electric
(c) Electromagnetic
(d) None of these
Ans : a

9. Magnetic field strength is equal to
(a) mmf. L
(b) L/ mmf
(c) mmf/ L
(d) 1/mmf.L
Ans : c

10. Peak inverse voltage of bridge rectifier is as that of centre-tap circuit.
a. Same
b. Twice
c. Half
d. Four times
Ans. c

11. Peak Resistance of the diode is increased when
a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Both forward and reverse biased
d. Either a or b
Ans. b

12. The number of lines of force passing through the secondary coil S when unit current changes in the primary coil P are called
(a) Self inductance
(b) Mutual inductance
(c) Self induction
(d) Mutual induction
Ans : c

13. Unit of flux
(a) Amp- turns
(b) Weber
(c) Volts
(d) Amps

Ans : b

14. The current flowing in an electrical circuit is due to the existence of
(a) mmf
(b) emf
(c) Resistance
(d) Reluctance
Ans : b

15. The magnetic flux flow through a magnetic circuit is due to
(a) mmf
(b) emf
(c) Resistance
(d) Reluctance
Ans : a

16. The on-line UPS is also called as
a. Stand-by UPS
b. Line Interactive UPS
c. Off line UPS
d. Current line UPS
Ans. b

17. ________ is used to convert alternating current to direct current.
a. Transformer
b. Diode
c. Resistor
d. Transistor
Ans. b

18. The supply voltage varies sinusoid ally and has a frequency __________ Hz.
a. 60
b. 50
c. 20
d. 10
Ans. b

19. Expression for magneto-motive force is
(a) N/I
(b) 1/NI
(c) I/N
(d) IN
Ans : d

20. Unit of mmf is
(a) Ampere /Volt
(b) Ampere- turns
(c) Volt
(d) Volt/Ampere

Ans : b

NPCIL Executive Trainee Recruitment

Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL)
(A Government of India Enterprise)

16th Floor, Centre - I, World Trade Centre, Cuffe Parade, Colaba, Mumbai - 400005
Published by Manisha for sarkari-naukri.blogspot.com

Recruitment of Executive Trainee (ET-2011)

Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd. (NPCIL), a premier central Public Sector Enterprise, under the Department of Atomic Energy invites Online applications from Engineering Graduates to join NPCIL as :

• Executive Trainee (ET-2011) : 250 posts in the disciplines of Mechanical/ Electrical/ Electronics/ Chemical/ Instrumentation/ Civil. Candidates will be appointed as Scientific Officers after successful completion of training.

How to Apply : Apply Online at NPCIL wesbite from 22/03/2011 to 01/04/2011.

For more information and Application Form kindly visit Career@NPCIL section at the NPCIL website at http://www.npcil.nic.in/main/JobsRecent.aspx from 22/03/2011 onwards.

MAZAGON DOCK LIMITED (MDL) RECRUITMENT

MAZAGON DOCK LIMITED (MDL)
(A Govt. of India Undertaking)
Dockyrad Road, Mumbai-400010

Special Recruitment drive for SC/ST/OBC & PWD

Applications are invited from Indian Nationals for the following posts in a special drive :

1. Deputy General Manager (E-6) : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs.37400-67000 grade pay Rs.8700/-
2. Chief Manager (E-5) : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs.37400-67000 Grade Pay 8700/-
3. Manager (Tech./ Legal) (E-4) : 05 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.15600-39100 Grade Pay 7600/-
4. Deputy Manager (Tech.) (E-3) : 05 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.15600-39100 Grade Pay 6600/-
5. Assistant Manager (Tech.) (E-2) : 03 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.15600-39100 Grade Pay 6600/-
6. Sr. Engineer (Tech.) (E-1) : 08 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.15600-39100 Grade Pay 5400/-
7. Probationary Officer : 12 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.15600-39100 Grade Pay 5400/-

Application Fee : (Only for the post of Probationary Officer): OBC Candidates applying for the posts of Probationary Officer are required to pay a processing fee of Rs.250/- by way of Demand Draft to be drawn in favour of Mazagon Dock Limited, payable at Mumbai. ST/PWD category candidates are exempted from
payment of processing fee.

How to Apply : Applications in the prescribed format complete in all respects must reach the Additional General Manager (HR-O), Mazagon Dock Limited, Dockyard Road, Mumbai 400010 on or before 15/04/2011.


For more information and application form, please view, http://www.mazagondock.gov.in/newsite2010/pdfs/career_march11/Advertisement-Drive.pdf

USIDCL ENGINEERS RECRUITMENT

Uttarakhand State Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (USIDCL) is a Government of Uttarakhand undertaking. USIDCL invites applications from the professionals for following posts on Contract/ Deputation :

1. Resident Engineer (Civil) : 10 posts, Pay : Rs.25000/- consolidated
2. Resident Engineer (Electrical/ Mechanical) : 01 post, Pay : Rs.25000/- consolidated
3. Junior Engineer (Civil) : 42 posts, Pay : Rs.15000/- consolidated
4. Junior Engineer (Electrical/ Mechanical) : 03 posts, Pay : Rs.15000/- consolidated

Age : 35 years. Relaxation in age as per rules.

How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should reach to the General Manager (HR), Director, USIDC Ltd., 59/C, Tyagi Road, Dehradun - 248001 on or before 05/04/2011.

Please view http://www.usidcl.gov.in/tender/Ad%20for%20REs%20and%20JEs.pdf for details and application format.

APGENCO Sub-Engineer Question Paper 2011

APGENCO Sub-Engineer Question Paper 2011 (Based On Memory)

(Exam Held on 27-02-2011)

1.MOBILITY OF A CARRIER IS MEASURED IN —————(UNITS)
2.N-TYPE SEMICONDUCTOR IS MADE BY ADDING ————–(PENTAVALENT OR TRIVALENT )
3.IRDA , 1951 ACT STANDS FOR ——————–(IDUSTRIES DEVOLOPMENT AND REGULATION ACT)
4.ORIFICE METER IS USED FOR ————————-(PRESSURE OR TEMPERATURE OR AIR )
5.OP-AMP IDEAL CHARACTERISTICS————-
6.CRO SHOULD HAVE —————–INPUT IMPEDANCE TO AVOID LOADING.(HIGH OR LOW)
7.IN CRO TIME BASE GENERATOR OUTPUT IS GIVEN TO————- (HORIZONTAL OR VERTICAL DEFLECTION PLATES OR BOTH)
8.BINARY EQUIVALENT OF 20 (GIVEN IN DECIMAL)
9.HOW MANY DECADE COUNTERS ARE REQUIRED(IF IC 74—IS USED) TO COUNT FROM 0 TO 999———-(1 OR 2 OR 3 OR 4)
10.FULL ADDER IS MADE WITH—————(2 HALF ADDERS & 1OR GATE)
11.HIGH –Q INDUCTANCE IS MEASURED BY————(HAY’S BRIDGE OR SCHERING BRIDGE OR WEIN BRIDGE—–)


Note: Any One Know other Questions asked in APGENCO 2011 Sub-Engineers Exam please post it through Comments

Control Systems Model Questions

1. Electronic control systems have the serious draw‐backs of
(a) low reliability (b) operational difficulty (c) temperature sensitiveness (d) all of
above
2. The system whose characteristic equation has the following roots is marginally
stable
(a) ‐j, j, ‐1,1 (b) ‐3,‐2,0 (c) ‐2+3j, ‐2‐3j, ‐2 (d) ‐3,‐2,‐1
3. A phase log compensation will
(a) improve relative stability
(b)increase the speed of response
(c)increase band‐width
(d) increase overshoot
4. For Nyquist plot we use
a. open loop function
b. closed loop function
c. characteristic equation
d. any of the above
5. A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero is
a. highly stable
b. oscillatory
c. relatively stable
d. none of these
6. Root locus diagram exhibits the
a. frequency response of a system
b. poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values
c. bandwidth of system
d. all of the above
7. Increase in the gain K makes the system
a. more stable
b. unstable
c. none of above
8. The transfer function of a system is used to determine
a. the output for a given input
b. the type of system
c. the input for a given output
d. the steady state gai n
9. In a servo system the voltage induced in the control transformer rotor is the
a. error voltage
b. driving voltage
c. opposing voltage
d. none of these
10. With the feedback system, the transient response
a. decays slowly
b. decays rapidly
c. rises slowly
d. rises quickly
11. An open loop control system has its
(a) control action independent of the output or desired quantity
(b) controlling action, depending upon human judgment
(c) internal system changes automatically taken care of
(d) both (a) and (b)
(e) all (a),(b) and (c)
12. A servo system must have
(a) feedback system
(b) power amplifier to amplify error
(c) capacity to control position or its derivative
(d) all of these
(e) none of these
13. The major disadvantage of a feedback system may be
(a) Inaccuracy
(b) inefficiency
(c) Unreliability
(d) instability
(e) Insensitivity
14. Properties of a transfer function
(a) It is ratio of two polynomials is S and assumes zero initial conditions
(b) It depends on system elements and not input and output of the system
(c) Coefficients of the powers of S in denominator and numerator are all real
constant.
The order of denominator is usually greater than or equal to the order of
numerator
(d) All of these
(e) It is a function which transfer one physical system into another physical
system.
15. The classical analogous of a simple lever is
(a) Capacitor bridge
(b) transformer
(c) mutual inductor
(d) either of these
16. Two blocks G1(s) and G2(s) can be cascaded to get resultant transfer function as
(a) G1(s) + G2(s)
(b) G1(s) / G2(s)
(c) G1(s) G2(s)
(d) 1+G1(s) G2(s)
(e) 1‐G1(s)G2(s)
(f) two blocks cannot be cascaded
17. The principles of homogeneity and super position can be applied to
(a) linear time invariant system
(b) non‐linear time invariant system
(c) digital control system
(d) both (a) and (b)
18. Pick up the nonlinear system
(a) automatic voltage regulator
(b) d.c. servomotor with high field excitation
(c) temperature control of a furnaces using thermistor
(d) speed control using SCR
(e) all of these
19. Signal flow graph (SFG) is a
(a) polar graph
(b) semi log graph
(c) log log graph
(d) a special type of graph for analyzing modem control system
(e) a topological representation of a set of differential equations
20. Disadvantages of magnetic amplifier
(a) time lag, less flexible, non‐sinusoidal waveform
(b) low power consumption and isolation of the active circuit
(c) saturation of the core
(d) all of these
21. Pick up false statement regarding magnetic amplifiers
(a) The gate coil of an ideal magnetic amplifier has either zero or infinite
inductance
(b) Resistance of control and gate winding is very small
(c) Magnetic amplifier gas dropping load characteristics
(d) Magnetic amplifiers are not used to control the speed of d.c. shunt motor
(e) Magnetic amplifiers can be used in automatic control of electric drivers of
higher rating.
22. High power amplification is achieved by using
(a) push pull amplifier
(b) amplidyne
(c) magnetic amplifier
(d) DC amplifier
(e) D.C. generator
23. Pick up false statement regarding servomotors
(a) The d.c. servomotors are lighter than equivalent a.c. servomotors
(b) The d.c. servomotors develops higher starting and reversing torque than
equivalent a.c. servomotor.
(c) A drag cup a.c. servomotor has one windings on stator and other on rotor
(d) Output power of servomotors varies from 1/20 W to 100 W
24. To reduce steady state error
(a) decrease natural frequency
(b) decrease damping
(c) increase damped frequency
(d) increase time constant
(f) increase gain constant of the system
25. A good factor for Mp should be
(a) less than 1
(b) lying between 1.1 and 1.5
(c) more than 2.2
(d) zero
(e) infinity
26. Pick up false statement. Routh‐Hurwitz criterion
(a) is used for determining stability of a system
(b) is an algebraic procedure
(c) gives the exact location of roots of the characteristic equation
(d) does not indicate relative degree of stability or instability
27. Which of the following is the time domain method of determining stability of a
control system
(a) Bode plot
(b) Nyquist plot
(c) Nicholos chart
(d) Routh‐Hurwitz array
(e) Constant M and (fy) locus
(f) Root locus technique
28. The technique which gives transient response quickly as well as stability
information is
(a) Nyquist plot
(b) Routh‐Hurwitz criteria
(c) Bode plot
(d) Root locus plot
(e) Nichols plot
29. The bandwidth can be increased by use of
(a) phase lag network
(b) phase lead network
(c) both (a) and (b) in cascade
(d) both (a) and (b) in parallel
(e) none of these
30. Nyquist plot is drawn on
(a) semi log graph paper
(b) log log graph paper
(c) polar graph paper
(d) centimeter graph paper
31. If the gain margin is positive and the phase margin is negative the system is
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) indeterminist
32. The Bode plot is applicable to
(a) all phase network
(b) minimum phase network
(c) maximum phase network
(d) lag lead network
(e) none of these
33. The valid relation between setting time ts and rise time tr is
(a) tr>ts
(b) ts>tr
(c) ts=tr
(d) none of these
34. As a root moves further away from imaginary axis the stability
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) not affected
(d) none of these
35. Flat frequency response means that the magnitude ratio of output to input over
the bandwidth is
(a) variable
(b) zero
(c) constant
(d) none of above
36. How many octaves are between 200 Hz and 800 Hz
(a) Two octave
(b) One octave
(c) Four octave
(d) None of above
37. Human system can be considered as
(a) open loop system
(b) close loop system with single feedback
(c) close loop system with multivariable feedback
(d) none of these
38. In a feedback system the transient response
(a) Decays at constant rate
(b) gets magnified
(c) decays slowly
(d) decays more quickly
39. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate
(a) the steady state gain
(b) the main constant
(c) the order of system
(d) the output for any given input
(e) all of the above
40. Transfer function of a system is defined as the ratio of output to input in
(a) Laplace transform
(b) Z‐transform
(c) Fourier transform
(d) Simple algebraic form
41. Introduction of feedback decreases the effect of
(a) disturbances
(b) noise signals
(c) error signals
(d) all the above
42. The system response of a system can be best tested with
(a) unit impulse input signal
(b) ramp input signal
(c) sinusoidal input signal
(d) exponentially decaying input signal
43. Which of the following is a closed loop system
(a) electric switch
(b) car starter
(c) de generator
(d) auto‐pilot for an aircraft
44. Which of the following is used as an error detector
(a) potentiometer
(b) field controlled ac motor
(c) amplidyne
(d) armature controlled ac motor
45. The break away point of root loci are
(a) open loop poles
(b) closed loop poles
(c) open loop zeros
(d) closed loop zeros
46. Noise in a control system can be kept low by
(a) reducing the bandwidth
(b) attenuating such frequencies at which external signals get coupled into the
system
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
47. Main cause of absolute instability in the control system is
(a) parameters of controlling system
(b) parameters of controlled system
(c) parameters of feedback system
(d) error detector where the two signals are compared
48. Basically a controller is
(a) a amplifier
(b) a clipper
(c) a comparator
(d) a summer
49. A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero is
(a) highly stable
(b) highly oscillatory
(c) relatively stable
(d) none of these
50. Which of following elements is not used in an automatic control system
(a) sensor
(b) error detector
(c) oscillator
(d) final control element
51. AC systems are usually preferred to the DC systems in control applications
because
(a) AC systems are cheaper
(b) AC systems are more stable
(c) AC systems have better performance characteristics and smaller in size
(d) all of these
52. A system has the transfer function (1‐s)/(1+s); It is known as
(a) low pass system
(b) high pass system
(c) all pass system
(d) none of the above
53. In control systems, excessive bandwidth should be avoided because
(a) noise is proportional to bandwidth
(b) it leads to low relative stability
(c) it leads to slow speed of response
(d) none of these
54. In most systems, an increase in gain leads to
(a) larger damping ratio
(b) smaller damping ratio
(c) constant damping ratio
(d) none of these
55. A step function is applied to the input of a system and output is of the form y = t,
the system is
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) not necessarily stable
(d) conditionally stable
56. Which of the following can be magnified by magnetic amplifier
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) power
(d) none of above
57. The inductance is not used in lag network because of
(a) big size
(b) time delay and hysteresis losses
(c) high reactance
(d) none of these
58. Saturation in a stable control system can cause
(a) conditional stability
(b) over damping
(c) low level oscillations
(d) high level oscillations
59. Excessive noise in control systems can cause
(a) reduction in bandwidth
(b) reduction in gain
(c) saturation in amplifying stages
(d) oscillations
60. The type‐0 system has
(a) net pole at the origin
(b) no pole at the origin
(c) simple at one origin
(d) two poles at the origin