Monday, December 19, 2011

APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer AE Recruitment 2012


APGENCO is the largest Power Generating Company of Andhra Pradesh State and is the 3rd largest Power utility (8923.9 MW) in India and has second highest Hydel capacity in the Country want to be the best power utility in the Country and one of the best in the World invites Online applications for the Recruitment of Trainee Assistant Engineer (for Engineering Graduates in Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil).
 
Post: Trainee Assistant Engineer (Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil)
Vacancies: 411 Posts
Pay Scale: Rs.23115 – 35720 
Date of APGENCO Trainee AE Written Test: 22.01.2012
Eligibility Criteria for Trainee Assistant Engineers:
Age Limit: Shall not be more than 34 years as on 01.12.2011.  Upper age limit will be relaxed up to 5 years for SC/ST/BC candidates and 10 years in respect of physically challenged candidates.
Educational Qualifications:
Electrical B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Electrical & Electronics Engineering or equivalent
Mechanical B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Mechanical Engineering or equivalent
Electronics B.E/B.Tech./A.M.I.E., in Electronics & Communication Engineering/ Instrumentation & Controls Engineering/ Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering/ Electronics & Control Engineering/ Instrumentation Engineering/ Electronics Instrumentation & Power/ Power electronics or equivalent
Civil B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Civil Engineering or equivalent
Application Fee: OC Candidates – Rs.500/- & for SC/ ST/ BC/ PWD – Rs.150/-  The applicant should pay the prescribed Registration Fee in any one of the A.P. Online Centers or A.P. Online Portal and obtain the receipt.
How to apply: The candidate has to login to the website http://www.apgenco.gov.in and click on APPLY ONLINE link or directly visit http://apgenco.cgg.gov.in to view detailed notification, user guide and to submit application form.  Online application is accessible from 20.12.2011 to 03.01.2012.

Wednesday, December 14, 2011

APTRANSCO Assistant Engineer Practice Questions

Microprocessors : 
1. Which interrupt has the highest priority?
a) INTR b) TRAP c) RST6.5
2. In 8085 name the 16 bit registers?
a) Stack pointer b) Program counter  c) a & b
3. Which of the following is hardware interrupts?
a) RST5.5, RST6.5, RST7.5 b) INTR, TRAP c) a & b
4. What is the RST for the TRAP?
a) RST5.5 b) RST4.5 c) RST4
5. What are level Triggering interrupts?
a) INTR&TRAP b)RST6.5&RST5.5 c)RST7.5&RST6.5
6. Which interrupt is not level sensitive in 8085?
a) RST6.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt. b) RST7.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt. c) a & b.
7. What are software interrupts?
a) RST 0 – 7 b) RST 5.5 – 7.5 c) INTR, TRAP
8. Which stack is used in 8085?
a) FIFO b) LIFO c) FILO
9.  Why 8085 processor is called an 8 bit processor?
a) Because 8085 processor has 8 bit ALU. b) Because 8085 processor has 8 bit data bus. c) a & b.
10. What is SIM?
a) Select Interrupt Mask b) Sorting Interrupt Mask c) Set Interrupt Mask.
11. RIM is used to check whether, ______
a) The write operation is done or not b) The interrupt is Masked or not c) a & b
12. What is meant by Maskable interrupts? a) An interrupt which can never be turned off. b) An interrupt that can be turned off by the programmer. c) none
13.  In 8086, Example for Non maskable interrupts are
a) Trap b) RST6.5 c) INTR
14. What does microprocessor speed depends on?
a) Clock b) Data bus width c) Address bus width
15. Can ROM be used as stack?
a) Yes b) No c) sometimes yes, sometimes no
16.  Which processor structure is pipelined?
a) all x80 processors b) all x85 processors c) all x86 processors
17. Address line for RST3 is?
a) 0020H b) 0028H c) 0018H
18. In 8086 the overflow flag is set when
a) The sum is more than 16 bits b) Signed numbers go out of their range after an arithmetic operation c) Carry and sign flags are set d) During subtraction
19. The advantage of memory mapped I/O over I/O mapped I/O is,
a) Faster b) Many instructions supporting memory mapped I/O c) Require a bigger address decoder d) All the above
20. BHE  of 8086 microprocessor signal is used to interface the
a) Even bank memory b) Odd bank memory c) I/O d) DMA
21. In 8086 microprocessor the following has the highest priority among all type interrupts.
a) NMI b) DIV 0 c) TYPE 255 d) OVER FLOW
22. In 8086 microprocessor one of the following statements is not true.
a) Coprocessor is interfaced in MAX mode b) Coprocessor is interfaced in MIN mode c) I/O can be interfaced in MAX / MIN mode d) Supports pipelining
23. 8088 microprocessor differs with 8086 microprocessor in
a) Data width on the output b) Address capability c) Support of coprocessor d) Support of MAX / MIN mode
24. Address line for TRAP is?
a) 0023H b) 0024H c) 0033H

ANSWERS:
1 C 1.2 C  1.3 C 1.4 B 1.5 B 1.6 B 1.7 A 1.8 B 1.9 A 1.10 C 1.11 B 1.12 B 1.13 A 1.14 C 1.15 B 1.16 C 1.17 C 1.18 B 1.19 D 1.20 B 1.21 A 1.22 B 1.23 A 1.24 B

Microcontroller :

1. The 8051 microcontroller is of ___pin package as a ______ processor.
a) 30, 1byte b) 20, 1 byte c) 40, 8 bit d) 40, 8 byte
2. The SP is of ___ wide register. And this may be defined anywhere in the ______.
a) 8 byte, on-chip 128 byte RAM. b) 8 bit, on chip 256 byte RAM. c) 16 bit, on-chip 128 byte ROM d) 8 bit, on chip 128 byte RAM.
3. After reset, SP register is initialized to address________.
a) 8H b) 9H c) 7H d) 6H
4. What is the address range of SFR Register bank?
a) 00H-77H b) 40H-80H c) 80H-7FH d) 80H-FFH
5. Which pin of port 3 is has an alternative function as write control signal for external data memory?
a) P3.8 b) P3.3 c) P3.6 d) P3.1
6. What is the Address (SFR) for TCON, SCON, SBUF, PCON and PSW respectively?
a) 88H, 98H, 99H, 87H, 0D0H. b) 98H, 99H, 87H, 88H, 0D0H c) 0D0H, 87H, 88H, 99H, 98H d) 87H, 88H, 0D0H, 98H, 99H
7. Match the following:
1) TCON ——–i) contains status information
2) SBUF ——–ii) timer / counter control register.
3) TMOD——– iii) idle bit, power down bit
4) PSW——– iv) serial data buffer for Tx and Rx.
5) PCON ——-v) timer/ counter modes of operation.
a) 1->ii, 2->iv, 3->v, 4->i, 5->iii.    b) 1->i, 2->v, 3->iv, 4->iii, 5->ii.      c) 1->v, 2->iii, 3->ii, 4->iv, 5->i.     d) 1->iii, 2->ii, 3->i, 4->v, 5->iv.
8. Which of the following is of bit operations? i) SP ii) P2 iii) TMOD iv) SBUF v) IP
a) ii, v only b) ii, iv, v only c) i, v only d) iii, ii only
9. Serial port interrupt is generated, if ____ bits are set
a) IE b) RI, IE c) IP, TI d) RI, TI
10. In 8051 which interrupt has highest priority?
a)IE1 b)TF0 c)IE0 d)TF1
11. Intel 8096 is of ___ bit microcontroller family called as ______.
a) 8, MCS51 b) 16, MCS51  c) 8, MCS96 d) 16, MCS96
12. 8096 has following features fill up the following, i) ____ Register file, ii) ____ I/O Ports iii) ____ architecture.
a) 256 byte, five 8bit, register to register    b) 256 byte, four 8bit, register to register    c) 232 byte, five 8bit, register to register   d) 232 byte, six 8 bit, register to register
13. How many synchronous and asynchronous modes are there in serial port of 8096?
a) 2, 2 respectively    b) 3,1 respectively     c) 1, 3 respectively     d) 1, 2 respectively
14. In 8096 we have _____interrupt sources and _______ interrupt vectors.
a) 18, 8 b) 21, 6 c) 21, 8 d) 16, 8
15. 8096 has ___ general purpose I/O ports, Port 2 includes ______ of the following
i) two quasi-bidirectional I/O lines  ii) two output lines iii) four input lines iv) open drain outputs
a) 4, i, iv         b) 6, ii, iii       c) 4, i,ii,iii       d) 6, i, ii, iv
16. 8096 write-protected mode, no code can write to memory address between __.
a) 2020 to 3FFFH b) 8000 to FFFFH c) 2000 to 3FFFH d) 2020 to 202FH
17. If the __ pin is ___ , then we have the option of using the ____ ROM or EPROM together with _____ memory and devices.
a) EA, high, internal, external b) EA, low, internal, external c) EA, high, external, internal d) EA, low, external, internal
18. In 8096, CCB bit 3 is ____.
a) write strobe mode select b) address valid strobe select c) bus width select d) Internal read control mode
19. In 8096, mode ____ of serial port are ___ modes commonly used for ____ communications.
a) 1, 8bit, single processor    b) 0, 7bit, multiple microcontroller c) 2, 9 bit, multiple processors  d) 3, 8 bit, multiple microcontroller
20. What is the function of watchdog timer?
a) The watchdog Timer is an external timer that resets the system if the software
fails to operate properly.
b) The watchdog Timer is an internal timer that sets the system if the software fails
to operate properly.
c) The watchdog Timer is an internal timer that resets the system if the software fails
to operate properly.
d) None of them
 
ANSWERS:
1 C  2 D  3 C  4 D  5 C  6 A  7 A 8 A 9 D  10 C  11 D  12 C  13 C  14 C  15 C   16 C 17 A  18 B 19 C  20 C

APTRANSCO Assistant Engineer Telecom Model Paper

1.For reciprocal network, ABCD parameters are related as
(A ) A = D      (B)  B = C   (C) AD – BC = 1    (D) AD + BC = 1
2. For a short circuited transmission line, reflection coefficient is equal to
(A) zero       (B) infinity       (C) –1        (D) +1
3. An analog signal is band-limited to 4kHz, sampled at the Nyquist rate and the samples are quantized into 4 levels. The quantized levels are assumed to be independent and equally probable. If we transmit two quantized samples per second, the information rate is ________ bits / second.
(A)1        (B) 2        (C) 3         (D) 4
Explanation:: Since two samples are transmitted and each sample has 2 bits of information,  then the information rate is 4 bits/sec.
4. The root locus plot for a system is given below. The open loop transfer function corresponding to this plot is given by

Answer::  (B)
Explanation:: ‘ x ‘ →  indicates pole
‘ O’ →  indicates zero  The point on the root locus when the number of poles and zeroes on the real axis
to the right side of that point must be odd
5. A system is defined by its impulse response  The system is 
  (A) stable and causal                 (B) causal but not stable                (C) stable but not causal             (D) unstable and non-causal
Explanation::
h(n)  is existing for n>2 ; so that h(n)=0;n<0 ⇒  causal

6. A digital-to-analog converter with a full-scale output voltage of 3.5 V has a resolution close to 14m V. Its bit size is
A) 4             B) 8            C) 16                D) 32
7. The output Y in the circuit below is always ‘1’  when

(A) two or more of the inputs P,Q,R are ‘0’
(B) two or more of the inputs P,Q,R are ‘1’
(C) any odd number of the inputs P,Q,R is ‘0’
(D) any odd number of the inputs P,Q,R is ‘1’ 
Explanation:: The output Y expression in the Ckt is Y= PQ +PR+ RQ   So that two or more inputs are ‘1’, Y is always ‘1’.
8.  For the function f(x) = x2e-x , the maximum occurs when x is equal to
A) 2              B) 1            C) 0               D) -1 Correct
9. Drift current in the semiconductors depends upon  
(A) only the electric field    (B) only the carrier concentration gradient   (C) both the electric field and the carrier concentration  (D) both the electric field and the carrier concentration gradient 
Explanation :: Drift current, J E= σ
J= (nun + pup)qE   So that it depends on carrier concentration and electric field.
10. A Zener diode, when used in voltage stabilization circuits, is biased in 
(A) reverse bias region below the breakdown voltage
(B) reverse breakdown region 
(C) forward bias region 
(D) forward bias constant current mode
11.  The modes in a rectangular waveguide are denoted by TEmn/TMmn where m and n are the eigen numbers along the larger and smaller dimensions of the waveguide respectively. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) The TM  mode of the wave does not exist 
(B) The TE10mode of the wave does not exist 
(C) The TM10 and the TE10 modes both exist and have the same cut-off frequencies
(D) The TM10 and TM01 modes both exist and have the same cut-off frequencies
 Explanation :: TM10  mode doesn’t exist in rectangular waveguide.
12.  The Column-I lists the attributes and the Column-II lists the modulation systems. Match the attribute to the modulation system that best meets it
 Column-I  Column-II
P Power efficient transmission of signals 1 Conventional AM
Q Most bandwidth efficient transmission of
voice signals
2 FM
R Simplest receiver structure 3 VSB
S Bandwidth efficient transmission of
signals with Significant dc component
4 SSB-SC
(A) P-4;Q-2;R-1;S-3         (B) P-2;Q-4;R-1;S-3           (C) P-3;Q-2;R-1;S-4            (D) P-2;Q-4;R-3;S-1
 Explanation :: Power efficient transmission →FM
Most bandwidth efficient → SSB-SC  Transmission of voice signal
Simplest receives structure → conventional AM  Bandwidth efficient transmission of → VSB  Signals with significant DC component
13. For the transfer function  G(jw)= 5 +jω , the corresponding Nyquist plot for positive frequency has the form

Answer::- (A)
Explanation :: As we increases real part ‘5’ is fixed only imaginary part increases.
14. The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function does not have the 
(A) dc term        (B) cosine terms          (C) sine terms   (D) odd harmonic terms
Explanation ::  f(t)  is even function, hence bk=0 Where ‘ bk ‘  is the coefficient of sine terms
15.  A silicon PN junction is forward biased with a constant current at room temperature. When the temperature is increased by 10ºC, the forward bias voltage across the PN junction
(A) increases by 60mV          (B) decreases by 60mV            (C) increases by 25mV         (D) decreases by 25mV
Explanation :: For Si forward bias voltage change by -2.5mv/ deg C
For 100C increases, change will be 2.5*10= -25mV
16. The value of the integral where c is the circle Z=1is given by
(A) 0         (B) 1/10            (C) 4/5           (D) 1
17. Two D flip-flops are connected as a synchronous counter that goes through the following QBQsequence 00–> 11–> 01–> 10–> 00 …  The combination to the inputs DA & DB   are

Answer :: D
18. A transmission line of characteristic impedance 50W is terminated in a load impedance ZL ,The VSWR of the line is measured as 5 and the first of the voltage maxima in the line is observed at a distance of λ/4  from the load. The value of ZL is
(A) 10Ω   (B) 250 Ω  (C) (19.23 +j46.15) Ω   (D) (19.23-j46.15) Ω
19. When the output Y in the circuit below is ‘1’, it implies that data has

(A) changed from 0 to 1 (B) changed from 1 to 0 (C) changed in either direction (D) not changed
 Exp: – When data is ‘0’, Q is ‘0’  And Q’ is ‘1’ first flip flop   Data is changed to 1  Q is 1 → first ‘D’
Q’ is connected to 2nd flip flop,   So that Q2=1   So that the inputs of AND gate is ‘1’==> y = ’1′
20. In amplifier application, FET is operated in 
a)  The controlled resistor region       b) The controlled source region       c) The aval anche breakdown region  d) None
21. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its
a)  broad bandwidth    b) maneuverability  c) circular polarization   d) good front -to-back ratio
22. A1 A2 A3 are ideal ammeters. If A1 reads 5A, A2 reads 12A, then A3 should read

a)  7A b)        12A         c) 13A           d) 17A    
23. The steady state current through 1H inductance

a)  zero       b) 5A         c) 3A           d) 6A       
24. The total number of 128 8 RAM chips is needed to provide a memory capacity of 2048 bytes is:
a)  11        b) 16          c) 10            d) 8 
25. PLL can be used to demodulate
a)  DSB-SC signals  b) PCM signals  c) PAM signals  d) FM signals     
26. Compared to BJT, MOSFET enjoyi ng an advantage of
a)  Able to handle hi gh power    b) Ease of cont rol     c) Requires less power in driving it     d) None of these 
27. Which of the following noise becomes important at microwave frequencies?
a)  short noise     b) transit time noise    c) flicker noise    d) thermal noise  
28.

Answer :: D
29.

Answer :: A
30. DC-emphasis is used 
a)  to reduce overall modulation index
b) to attenuate l ow modul ation frequencies
c) to attenuate high modul ation frequencies
d) to attenuate mi d-band modulation frequencies.
31. A transmission li ne of 20 ohms characteristic impedance is connected to a load of 20+20j The normalized impedance is:
a) 400+400j     b) 20j        c) 40 +20j       d) 1+1j
32.

Answer :: A.
Expalnation :: s(t) —> step response, Therefore impulse response is

33.The drain of an n-channel MOSFET is shorted to the gate so that VGS = VDS. The threshold voltage (VT) of MOSFET is 1 V. If the drain current (ID) is 1 mA for VGS = 2V, then for VGS = 3V, ID is 
A) 2 mA        B) 3 mA      C) 9 mA         D) 4 mA
34.The 8085 assembly language instruction that stores the content of H and L registers into the memory locations 2050H and 2051H, respectively, is 
A) SPHL 2050         B) SPHL2051      C) SHLD 2050        D) STAX 2050
35. The cascade amplifier is a multistage configuration of
A) CC-CB         B) CE-CB      C) CB-CC      D) CE-CC
36.Consider the following statements S1 and S2. S1: The b of a bipolar transistor reduces if the base width is increased. S2: The b of a bipolar transistor increases if the doping concentration in the base is increased. Which one of the following is correct? 
A) S1 is FALSE and S2 is TRUE   B) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE     C) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE   D) S1 is TRUE and S2 is FALSE
37. Which interrupt has the highest priority?
A) INTR       B) TRAP         C) RST6.5     D) RST 5.5 – 7.5
38. BHE  of 8086 microprocessor signal is used to interface the
A) Even bank memory       B) Odd bank memory        C) I/O        D) DMA
39. What is the Address (SFR) for TCON, SCON, SBUF, PCON and PSW respectively?
A) 88H, 98H, 99H, 87H, 0D0H.        B) 98H, 99H, 87H, 88H, 0D0H        C) 0D0H, 87H, 88H, 99H, 98H        D) 87H, 88H, 0D0H, 98H, 99H
40. In a PCM system, if the code word length is increased from 6 to 8 bits, the signal to quantization noise ratio improves by the factor 
A) 8/6         B) 12              C) 16              D) 8

APTRANSCO Assistant Engineer(AE)-Electrical Model Paper

1. A 50 kW dc shunt motor is loaded to draw rated armature current at any given speed. When driven (i) at half the rated speed by armature voltage control and (ii) at 1.5 times the rated speed by field control, the respective output powers delivered by the motor are approximately.
A) 25kW in (i) and 75kW in (ii) 
B) 25kW in (i) and 50kW in (ii)
C)  50kW in (i) and 75kW in (ii)
D) 50kW in (i) and 50kW in (ii)


2.  In the matrix equation Px = q, which of the following is a necessary condition for the existence of at least one solution for the unknown vector x:
A) Augmented matrix [Pq] must have the same rank as matrix P
C) Matrix P must be singular
B) Vector q must have only non-zero elements
D) Matrix P must be square


3. At an industrial sub-station with a 4 MW load, a capacitor of 2 MVAR is installed to maintain the load power factor at 0.97 lagging. If the capacitor goes out of serivce, the load power factor becomes
A)  0.85
B)   0.80 lag
C) 1.00
D) 0.90 lag


4. In  the  GH(s) plane,   the Nyquist plot of the  loop  transfer function G(s)H(s) = [(pi)e-0.25]/s acesses through the negative real axis at the point
A) (-0.25, j0)
C)  (-l, j0)
B) (-0.5, j0)
D) (-2, j0)
5. For the scalar field u = x2/2 + y2/3, magnitude of the gradient at the point (1,3) is
A)  sqrt (13/9)
B)  sqrt (9/2)
C) sqrt (5)
D) 9/2


6. A digital-to-analog converter with a full-scale output voltage of 3.5 V has a resolution close to 14m V. Its bit size is
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32


7. A single-phase half-controlled rectifier is driving a separately excited dc motor. The dc motor has a back emf constant of 0.5 V/rpm. The armature urrent is 5 A without any ripple. The armature resistance is 2 ohms. The converter is working from a 280 V, single phase ac source with a firing angle of 80°. Under this operating condition, the speed of the motor will be
A) 339 rpm
B) 359 rpm
C) 366 rpm
D) 386 rpm


8. In relation to the synchronous machines, which one of the following tatements is false?
A) In salient pole machines, the direct-axis synchronous reactance is greater than the quadrature-axis synchronous reactance
B) The damper bars help the synchronous motor self start
C) Short circuit ratio is the ratio of the field current required to produce the rated voltage on open circuit to the rated armature current
D) The V-curve of a synchronous motor represents the variation in the armature current with field excitation, at a given output power
 
19. The 8085 assembly language instruction that stores the content of H and L registers into the memory locations 2050H  and 2051H , respectively, is 
A) SPHL 2050H
B) SPHL2051H
C) SHLD 2050H
D) STAX 2050H


10. Two wattmeters, which are connected to measure the total power on a three phase system supplying a balanced load, read 10.5 kW and – 2.5 kW, respectively. The total power and the ower factor, respectively, are
A) 13.0 kW, 0.334
B) 13.0 kW, 0.684
C) 8.0 kW, 0.52 
D) 8.0 kW, 0.334
 
11. The insulation strength of an EHV transmission line is mainly governed by
A) load power factor
B) switching over-voltages
C) harmonics
D) corona
 
12. For the equation, s3-4s2+s+6=0, the number of roots in the left half of s-plane will be
A) zero
B) one
C) two
D) three
 
13. A dc potentiometer is designed to measure up to about 2 V with a slide wire of  800 mm. A standard cell of emf 1.18 V obtains balance at 600 mm. A test cell is seen to obtain balance at 680 mm. The emf of the test cell is
A) 1.00V
B) 1.34V
C) 1.50V
D) 1.70V
 
14. High Voltage DC (HVDC) transmission is mainly used for
A) bulk power transmission over very long distances
C) eliminating reactive power requirement in the operation
B) inter-connecting two systems with the same nominal frequency
D) minimizing harmonics at the converter stations
 
15. A bipolar junction transistor (BJT) is used as a power control switch by biasing it in the cut-off region (OFF state) or in the saturation region (ON state). In the ON state, for the BJT
A) both the base-emitter and base collector junctions are reverse biased
B) the base-emitter junction is reverse biased, and the base-collector junction is forward biased
C) the base-emitter junction is forward biased, and the base-collector junction is reverse biased
D) both the base-emitter and basecollector junctions are forward biased
 
16. The Q – meter works on the principle of
A) mutual inductance
B) self inductance
C) series resonance
D) parallel resonance
 
17. A 800 kV transmission line is having per phase line inductance of 1.1 mH/km and per phase line capacitance of 11.68 nF/km. Ignoring the length of the line, its ideal power transfer capability in MW is
A) 1204 MW
B) 1504 MW
C) 2085 MW 
D) 2606 MW
 
18. If the following program is executed in a icroprocessor, the number of instruction cycles it will take from START to HALT is
START MVI A, 14H ; Move 14H to register A
SHIFT   RLC            ; Rotate left without carry              
JNZ SHIFT ; Jump on non-zero to SHIFT
HALT
A) 4
B) 8
C) 13
D) 16


19. A moving iron ammeter produces a full scale torque of 240 uNm with a deflection of 120° at a current of 10 A. The rate of change of self inductance (uH/radian) of the instrument at full scale is
A) 2.0 uH/radian
B) 4.8 uH/radian
C) 12.0 uH/radian
D) 114.6 uH/radian
 
20. At an industrial sub-station with a 4 MW load, a capacitor of 2 MVAR is installed to maintain the load power factor at 0.97 lagging. If the capacitor goes out of serivce, the load power factor becomes
A)  0.85
B) 1.00
C)0.80 lag 
D) 0.90 lag
 
21. The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET  is best approximated by
A) a parabola
B) a straight line
C) a rectangular hyperbola
D) an exponentially decaying function
 
22. The open loop transfer function of a unity feed back control system is given as G(s) = (as + 1)/s2 .  The value of ‘a’ to give a phase margin of 45° is equal to  
A) 0.141
B) 0.441
C)0.841
D) 1.141


23. The armature resistance of a permanent magnet dc motor is 0.8 W. At no load, the motor draws 1.5 A from a supply voltage of 25 V and runs at 1500 rpm. The efficiency of the motor while it is operating on load at 1500 rpm drawing a current of 3.5 A from the same source will be
A) 48.0%
B) 57.1%  
C)   59.2%
D) 88.8%


24. A single-phase, 230 V, 50 Hz, 4 pole, capacitor-start induction motor has the following stand-still impedances
Main winding Zm   = 6.0 + j4.0 ohms 
Auxiliary winding Za  = 8.0 + j6.0 ohms,
The value of the starting capacitor required to produce 90° phase difference between the currents in the main and auxiliary windings will be
A) 176.84uF
B) 187.24 uF
C) 265.26 uF
D) 280.86 uF
 
25. A single-phase half-controlled rectifier is driving a separately excited dc otor. The dc motor has a back emf constant of 0.5 V/rpm. The armature current is 5 A without any ripple. The armature resistance is 2ohms. The converter is working from a 280 V, single phase ac source with a firing angle of 80°. Under this operating condition, the speed of the motor will be
A) 339 rpm
B) 359 rpm
C) 366 rpm
D) 386 rpm
 
26. A 50 Hz, 4-pole, 500 MVA, 22 kV turbo-generator is delivering rated megavolt-amperes at 0.8 power factor. Suddenly a fault occurs reducing is electric power output by 40%. Neglect losses and assume constant power input to the shaft. The accelerating torque in the generator in MNm at the time of the fault will be
A) 1.528 
B) 1.018
C) 0.848 
D) 0.509
 
27. The Nyquist plot of loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of a closed loop control system passes through the point (-1, j0) in the G(s) H(s) plane. The phase margin of the system is
A) 0°
B) 45°
C) 90°
D) 180°
 
28. A hydraulic turbine having rated speed of 250 rpm is connected to a synchronous generator. In order to produce power at 50 Hz, the number of poles required in the generator are
A) 6
B) 12
C) 16
D) 24
 
29. For the equation x(t)+3 x(t) +2x(t) = 5, the solution x (t) approaches which of  the following values as t tends to infinity ?
A) 0
B) 5
C) 25
D) 10


30. The following motor definitely has a permanent magnet rotor
A) DC commutator motor
B) Brushless dc motor
C) Stepper motor 
D) Reluctance motor


31.The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops at high frequencies because of
A) Transistor capacitances      
B) High current effects in the base
C) Parasitic inductive elements  
D) The early effect
 
32. The simultaneous application of signals x(t) and y(t) to the horizontal and vertical plates, respectively, of an oscilloscope, produces a vertical figure-of-8 display. If P and Q are constants, and x(t) = P sin (4t + 30), then y(t) is equal to
A) Q sin (4t – 30)
B) Q sin (2t + 15)
C) Q sin (8t + 60)
D) Q sin (4t + 30)


33. A 500 MW 3-phase Y-connected synchronous generator has a rated voltage of 21.5 kV at 0.85pf. The line current when operating at full load rated conditions ill be
A) 13.43 kA
B) 15.79 kA
C)23.25 kA 
D) 27.36 kA
 
34. Total instantaneous power supplied by a 3-phase ac supply to a balanced R-L load is
A) zero
B) constant
C) pulsating with zero average
D) pulsating with non-zero average
 
35. What are used to increase the range of ammeters.
A) Multipliers
B) Shunts
C) control Springs
D) Potential transformers


36. The number 1000 wouldappear just immediately after
A) FFFF (hex)
B) 1111 (binary)
C) 7777 (octal)
D) All of the above.


37. Among the logic families, the family which can be used at very high frequency greater than 100MHz in a 4 bit synchronous counter is
A) TTLAS
B) CMMOS
C) ECL
D) TTLLS


38. The frequency is measured by
A) Wheatstone bridge
B) hays bridge
C) Owens bridge
D) weins bridge


39. The most commonly used amplifier in  sample & hold circuits is
a) A unity gain non-inverting amplifier        
b) A unity gain inverting amplifier
c) An inverting amplifier with a gain of 10   
d) An inverting amplifiers with a gain of 100


40. Introducing a resistor in the emitter of a common amplifier stabilizes the dc operating point against variations in
a) Only the temperature     
b) only the β of the transistor
c) Both Temperature & β    
d) None of the above


ANSWERS ::
 
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
B
A
B
B
C
B
C
C
C
D
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
B
C
B
A
D
C
C
C
B
C
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
A
A
A
A
C
A
D
D
B
C
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
A
B
B
B
B
D
C
D
B
C

Monday, December 12, 2011

APTRANSCO AE/JLM/Jr.Assistants/Sub-Engineer Recruitment 2011-2012

The Government of Andhra pradesh has decided to recruit  all elibile candidates inorder to fill vacancies  Junior Lineman (JLM) ,Junior Assistant (LDC),Sub Engineers, Assistant Engineers (AE) in Andhra Pradesh Transmission corporation Recruitment 2011-2012 For 6263 Jobs Under Various Categories .Eligible Candidates can Apply Online @ http://aptransco.cgg.gov.in/
APTRANSCO has released the recruitment notification for the Candidates for the placement of Junior Linemen (JLM), Junior Assistant (LDC), Sub-Engineer and Assistant Engineer (AE).
The detailed jobs/posts/vacancies are :
Name of the Post No. of Vacancies
Junior Lineman (JLM) 5070
Junior Assistant (LDC) 500
Sub Engineers 443
Assistant Engineers (AE) 250
There are a total of 6263 Vacancies  in the aptransco including vacancies in all the fields all the fields .
The full detailed Notification will be updated on this site & on the official website of the ap transco  on 15/12/2011

Syllabus for Written Test of AP Transco Assistant Engineer (Electrical,Telecom,Civil)

APTRANSCO AE Telecom Syllabus ::
Network Analysis : Kirchoff’s Laws, RC, RL & RLC Circuits, Initial conditions, Energy, Power, Instantaneous, max, average, RMS values of alternating currents, Phaser representation, transient and steady state analysis, Total response. Network analysis using Laplace Transforms, properties of Laplace transforms. Fourier Series: Continuous and discrete Fourier Transforms, z-transforms. Applications to signal Analysis. Convolution. Network Theorems and Applications. Two Port Parameters, Series, Parallel and Cascade connections of two port networks, Z, Y, ABCD Parameters, Network Functions, Poles and Zeros. Driving point and Transfer Functions, Image Parameters, Conventional LP, HP, BP, Band Stop Filters. Composite Filters, T, ╥ & Lattice Networks, Attenuators and Equalizers.
Electronic Devices & Circuits: PN Junction, PNP, NPN Transistors. Biasing, Tunnel Diode, FET, UJT,SCR Characteristics, Various CB,CE,CC transistor Amplifiers – Analysis & Performance. RC coupled and push pull amplifiers, compensation techniques, Feedback, Negative feedback, oscillator Circuits, Phase Shift Oscillator.
Digital Circuits: Wave Shaping, multivibrators, Sweep Generators, Counters, logic Gates and Circuits, Number Systems, Codes, Error Detection and Correction. Sequential Circuits, Integrated Circuits OP Amps-Applications, IC Comparator Circuits, A/D, D/A Converters.
Linear Control System: Open loop, Closed loop system, Signal Flow Graphs, Stability, Routh – Hurwitz and Nyquist Criterion, Bode plots, Gain-phase Margin, Lead-Lag compensation Techniques.
Transmission Lines & Antennas: Transmission line equation, Primary and Secondary Parameters, Propagation constants, Open and Short Circuited Lines, Standing Waves, Reflection Coefficient, VSWR, Line as Circuit element, Impedance Matching.
Maxwell’s equations and Field Theory: Various Laws & Theorems in Electromagnetism, Plane Waves, Boundary Conditions, Concept of Radiation, Half wave Dipole, Antenna Arrays, Communication Antennas – performance Characteristics.
Wave guides and Components: Reciprocal & non Reciprocal Wave guide components, Couplers, Tees, Microwave Sources, Microwave Communication, Link Design.
Basics of Micro Processors & Micro Controllers: Architecture and Assemblers, memory Devices.
Communication systems: Modulation, All types of Modulation techniques, SNR, Analog & Digital Communication techniques, multiplexes, Demodulators, Radio Receivers & Transmitters – Characteristics & Basics of Fibre Optics Communication and Satellite Communication Systems.
APTRANSCO AE Electrical Syllabus ::
Electric Circuits:
Network graph, KCL, KVL, node and mesh analysis, star/ delta transformation; electromagnetic induction; mutual induction; ac fundamentals; harmonics, transient response of dc and ac networks; sinusoidal steady-state analysis, resonance, ideal current and voltage sources, Thevenin’s, Norton’s, Superposition and Maximum Power Transfer theorems, two-port networks, three phase circuits, power measurement .

Electrical Machines:
Single phase transformer – equivalent circuit, phasor diagram, tests, regulation and efficiency; three phase transformers – connections, parallel operation; auto-transformer; DC machines – types, windings, generator/ motor characteristics, armature reaction and commutation, starting and speed control of motors; three phase induction motors – principles, types, performance characteristics, starting and speed control; single phase induction motors; synchronous machines – performance, regulation and parallel operation of generators, motor starting, characteristics and applications .

Power Systems:
Basic power generation concepts; transmission line models and performance; underground cable, string insulators; corona; distribution systems; per-unit quantities; bus impedance and admittance matrices; load flow; voltage control; power factor correction; economic operation; symmetrical components; fault analysis; principles of over-current, differential and distance protection; protection of alternator, transformer, transmission lines neutral earthing, solid state relays and digital protection; circuit breakers; system stability concepts, swing curves and equal area criterion

Utilization & Control Systems:
Principles of feedback; transfer function; block diagrams; steady-state errors; Routh and Nyquist techniques; Bode plots; root loci; lag, lead and lead-lag compensation; Heating – resistance, induction, dielectric; Welding – spot, seam and butt; Electric traction – speed-time curves, tractive effort;

Measurements:
Bridges and potentiometers; PMMC, moving iron, dynamometer and induction type instruments; measurement of voltage, current, power, energy and power factor; digital voltmeters and multi-meters; phase, time and frequency measurement; Q-meters; oscilloscopes;

Analog and Digital Electronics:
Characteristics of diodes, BJT, FET; amplifiers -biasing, equivalent circuit and frequency response; oscillators and feedback amplifiers; Combinational and sequential logic circuits; multiplexer; Schmitt trigger; A/D and D/A converters; 8-bit microprocessor basics, architecture, programming and interfacing.

Power Electronics and Drives:
Semiconductor power diodes, transistors, thyristors, triacs, GTOs, MOSFETs and IGBTs – static characteristics and principles of operation; triggering circuits; phase control rectifiers; bridge converters – fully controlled and half controlled; principles of choppers and inverters; basic concepts of adjustable speed dc and ac drives.
APTRANSCO AE Civil Syllabus ::
Strength of Materials: Simple stresses and strains.  Hooke’s  law.  Stress-strain curve for mild steel, elastic constants, compound bars, temperature stresses, strain energy, resilience, impact loading, SFD and BMD for simple cantilever and overhanging beams. Centre of gravity and moment of inertia, bending and shear stress distributions.  Theory of pure torsion, helical spring, thin  and thick cylinders, analysis of trusses by method of joints and method of sections, combined direct and bending stresses, column and struts, deflection of beams-double integration, moment area and conjugate beam methods.
Reinforced Concrete: Basic reinforcing materials, tests on cement and aggregates. Structural concrete and its grades, workability tests and concrete mix design.  Singly and  doubly reinforced beams, working stress design of rectangular and flanged beams shear bond, development length and torsion in beams, one-way and two-way slabs, axially and eccentrically loaded columns, isolated and combined footings.  Basic concepts of limit state design and its applications to the design of beams, slabs and columns.
Steel Structures: Grades of steels, design of simple and compound beams, riveted and welded joints, riveted and welded connections’-eccentric framed and seated, simple and compound columns, slab and gusseted bases, grillage foundations, roof trusses, plastic analysis – plastic bending of beams, shape factor, plastic analysis theorems, and analysis of fixed, propped cantilever beams by static and kinematic methods.
Fluid Mechanics & Machinery : Fluid properties, pressure measurements, manometers, forces on plane and curved surfaces, center of pressure, principle of buoyancy, stability of floating and submerged bodies, metacentre, Kinematics of fluid flow, equation of continuity.  Euler’s and Bernoulli’s equations, Impulse-momentum, flow measuring device s – orifices and mouth pieces, notches and weirs, flow through pipes, open channel flow, impact of jets – stationery and moving vanes (flat and curved), radial vanes, hydraulic turbines, pumps and machinery.
Soil Mechanics: Physical properties of soils, classification and identification, permeability, capillarity, seepage, compaction, shear strength, Earth pressure, slope stability.
Foundation Engineering: Stress distribution in soils, bearing capacity, settlement analysis, pile foundation, Coffer dams, Caissons, Dewatering,  Bracing  for excavations, site investigations, New mark charts, Machine foundation.