APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer- Electrical Solved Paper

Written Exam will be of Duration 2 hours Consists 100 Marks (70 Questions based on Core & 30 Questions on Aptitude).

Booklet-C 

(EXAM HELD ON: 22-01-2012)

 1. Transfer Function of a System in  1/(s+1)(s+2) the impulse response of the System is
A) e^-2t  – e^-t    B) e^-2t  + e^-t      C) e^-t  + e^-2t       D) e^-t  – e^-2t
2. In a thermal power plant,ash is Collected in
A) Mills     B) hoppers    C) Bunkers    D) Boiler
3. The average life of neutrons after they decay is
A) 1 sec     B) 10 sec    C) 100 sec   D) 1000 sec
4. The Operating time of instantaneous relay is
A) 0.001 sec  B) 0.01 sec   C) 0.1 sec   D) 1 sec
6. Stringing chart is useful for
A) the design of tower   B) the design of insulator String   C) finding the Sag in the Conductor  D) finding the distance between the towers
7. The Self GMD method is used to evaluate
A) inductance   B) capacitance  C) inductance and capacitance   D) resistance
8. The velocity of travelling Wave through a cable of relative permitivity 36 is
A)  3 x 10⁸ m/sec   A)  2 x 10⁸ m/sec   A)  0.5 x 10⁸ m/sec   A)  10⁸ m/sec
9. The Coefficient of reflection for current wave is
A) 1  B) 2  C) -1  D) 0
10. A relay has a rating of 5A, 2.2 sec IDMT and relay setting of 125% TMS =0.6. It is connected to a supply circuit through a C.T. 400/5 ratio. The Fault Current is 4000 A. The operating current of the relay is
A) 6.25 A      B) 5A   C) 8A    D) 2.2 A
12. A single Phase transformer has resistance and reactance of 0.2 pu  and 0.6 pu respectively. Its pu voltage regulation at 0.8 pf lagging would be
A)  0.52   B) 0.42  C) 0.62  D) 0.36
14. A Differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000, CMRR : 80 dB. The common mode gain is given by
A) 1   B) 1/2    C) 2  D) 250
15. An amplifier has input power of 2 microwatts. The Power gain of the amplifier is 60 dB. The Output power will be
A) 2 milliwatts  B) 6 microwatts  C) 2 Watts   D) 120 microwatts
16. The voltage gains of the amplifier with and without feedback are 20 and 100 respectively. The percentage of negative feedback would be
A) 40%   B) 80%   C) 4%  D) 8%
17. For OPAMP in differential configuration, open loop gain is 100000, and differential input voltage is 2 μ V. Power supply for OPAMP is ± 12 V. Then Output voltage will be
A) + 12 V    B) -12 V   C)  0 V  D) 2 μ V
18. A 3-stage ripple counter has Flipflop with propagation delay of 25 nsec and pulse width of strobe input 10 nsec. Then the maximum operating frequency at which counter operates reliably is
A) 16.67 MHz     B) 17.6 MHz    C) 12.67 MHz    D) 11.76 MHz
19. The percent resolution of an 8-bit D/A converter is
A)  0.392   B) 1/256   C) 1/255    D)  (A) and (B) both
20. The Diode used in a clipping circuit has R_f = 25Ω  and R_r = 1 MΩ. The External resistor R is
A) 50 KΩ   B) 5KΩ    C) 1/25 MΩ   D) 25 MΩ
21. Which circuit is used as amplitude comparator?
A) Bistable  B) Monostable  C) Astable   D) Schmitt Trigger
23. An example of a bounded signal is
A) e^-4t    B) e^2t    C) t     D) e^t  sint
25. A Transfer function has a Second order denominator and constant gain in the numerator
A) the System has two zeros at the origin    B) the system has two finite zeros   C) the System has two zeros at infinity   D) the System has one zero at infinity
26. A system is linear if and only if it satisfies
A) principle of Superposition   B) principle of Homogeneity    C) both (A) and (B) above   D) neither (A) and (B) above
29. A 200 V dc shunt motor is running at 1000 rpm and drawing a current of 10 A. Its armature winding resistance is 2Ω. It is braked by plugging. The resistance to be connected in series with armature to restrict armature current to 10A, is
A) 32 Ω    B) 36 Ω    C)  38 Ω   D) 40 Ω
30. A transformer has maximum efficiency at 3/4 th of full load. The ratio of its iron loss (p_i) and full load copper loss (P_c), is
A) 4/3   B)  16/9   C) 9/16    D) 3/4
33. A single phase fully controlled rectifier has an average output voltage of 200 V when alpha=0 . Its output voltage when alpha = 30^o is approximately
A) 200 V     B) 160 V     C) 173 V    D) 183 V
34. A 200 V dc-dc converter is turned ON for 30 μ sec and turned off for 10 μ sec. The output voltage will be
A) 200 V    B) 150 V    C) 175 V   D) 120 V
35. In Single Pulse Modulation used in PWM Inverters, for eliminating third harmonic component in the output voltage , the pulse width should be
A) 60⁰   B) 90⁰   C) 110⁰   D) 120⁰
36. The Dynamic resistance of a p-n junction germanium diode at room temperature with current of 1 mA under forward biasing is
A) 100 Ω   B) 13 mΩ    C) 13 Ω   D) 26 Ω
37. Thermal runway is not possible in FET because as temperature of FET increases
A)  mobility increases  B) mobility Decreases  C) drain current decrease  D) transconductance increases
38. The initial value of   f(t), with transform  F(s) = s+1/ (s+2)(s+3)   is
A) 0    B) 1   C) ∞   D) 1/6
39. The two-port parameter h₂₁ is called
A) open-circuit output admittance    B) short-circuit input impedance   C) open-circuit reverse voltage gain  D) short-circuit forward current gain
41 . The impedance of a two-element series circuit is represented by (20-j10) Ω  at a certain frequency. If the frequency is doubled, the new value of impedance is
A) (20-j5) Ω    B) (40-j20) Ω  C)  (10-j10) Ω   D)  (20-j20) Ω
42. A unity feedback control system has forward-path transfer function  G(s) = K/s(s+2) . If the design specification is that the steady-state error due to a unit ramp input is 0.05,the value of K allowed is
A)  20  B) 40  C) 10  D) 80
43. The transfer function of a system has the form G(s) = 200 (s+2)/s(s²+10s+100) . At very high frequencies the Bode gain curve has a slope of
A)  -6 dB/octave   B) -12 dB/octave  C)  6 dB/octave  D) 12 dB/octave
44. A Unity feed-back system has open-loop transfer function GH (s) =  K/ s(s+4)(s+6) , It’s root locus plot intersects the jw axis at
A) ± j 2   B)  ± j 4   C) ± j 8  D) does not intersect the jw axis
45. Auto reclosing used in case of
A) Lightning arrester   B)  bulk oil C.B   C) air blast C.B   D) minimum oil C.B
46. A transmission line has 1 P.U impedance on a base of 11 KV,100 MVA. on a base of 55KV, it will have a P.U impedance of
A) 1 P.U     B)  0.2 P.U       C) 0.02 P.U      D) 0.1 P.U
47. A 50 Hz, 4 pole turboalternator rated at 20 MVA, 13.2 KV has an inertia constant H = 4 KW sec/KVA. The K.E Stored in the rotor at Synchronous speed is
A) 80 KJ       B) 80 MJ        C) 40 MJ       D) 20 MJ
48. The inertia constants of two groups of machines which do not swing together are M₁  and  M₂. The equivalent inertia constant is
A)  M₁ + M₂     B)  M₁ – M₂  if M₁ > M₂   C) √M₁M₂     D)   M₁ M₂ / (M₁ + M₂)
50. A 36-slot, 4-pole, dc machine has a simplex lap winding with two conductors per slot. The back pitch and front pitch adopted could be respectively
A) 15,13       B) 19,17      C) 21,19   D) 23,21
53. Two Synchronous generators G₁, G₂ are operating in parallel and are equally sharing KVAR (lag) component of load. To shift part of KVAR from G2  to G1, while keeping terminal voltage fixed, the following action must be done
A)   Raise If₁  and lower  If₂   B)  Lower If₁  and raise  If₂    C)  Lower If₁  or raise  If₂    D)  Raise If₁  or lower  If₂
APTITUDE SECTION 30 Questions :
71.   H1(x) = 1-x ,0
= 1,  x ≥ 1
= 0, otherwise
H2(x) = -H1(x) for all x
H3(x) = H2(-x) for all x
H4(x) = -H3(x) for all x
How many of the following products are necessarily zero for every value of   “x”?
H1(x) * H3(x) ; H3(x) * H2(x) ; H1(x) * H2(x)
A) 0  B) 1   C) 2  D)  3
73. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 m long and traveling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 sec is
A)  200 m     B)  225 m   C)   245  m    D)  250 m
74. If  “PAPER”  is 11.20, “PENCIL” is 9.83,  what will be the PEN ?
A)  12.80   B)  11.60  C) 1.66  D) 13.8
75. What is the sum of all numbers less than 100 that can be written as the sum of 9 consecutive positive integers?
A)  612   B) 630  C)  702  D) 504
78. X introduces Y saying: “He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of myfather”. How is Y related to X ?
A)  brother    B)  uncle   C)  co-brother   D) brother-in-law
79. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is 17th from the last. What is Ravi’s rank from the start ?
A)  11    B)  15   C) 13    D)   9
80. In a certain code, ‘bi nie pie’ means “some good jokes”;; ‘nie bat lik’ means “some real stories”;; ‘pie lik tol’ means “many good stories”. Which word in the code means ‘jokes’ ?
A)  nie    B)  pie   C)  lik   D)  bi
81. There are five bus stops. A,B,C,D,E at equal intervals. C is not the middle stop and A,E are not terminal stops. C comes twice as many stops before D in upward jpurney as B comes after A. D is the first stop in downward journey. The correct sequence of stops in the downward journey is
A)   ABDCE     B)   CDAEB     C)  DACEB     D)  DEBAC
82. Five persons namely Yasin,Arafat,Rasheed,Ali and Rehman are to be seated in five out of the six seats numbered 1 to 6. The following table provides information about the serial numbers of the seats on which each of the mentioned friends can possibly sit.

Names	Yasir	Arafat	Rasheed	Ali	Rehman
Seat No.	1	2 or 3	2,3 or 4	4 or 5	5 or 6

If one of the seats numbered 2 or 4 is unocuupied. then the number of different ways five mentioned persons can be seated is
A) 1   B)  2   C) 3  D)  4
83.   If (ABCD)_a = D*a^0 + C*a^1 + B*a^2 + A*a^3
(8448)₉/(2112)₉=(y)₃  then  y is
A) 011  B ) 101   C) 110   D) 111
84. Two straight lines can divide a circular disk into a maximum of 4 parts. Likewise, into How many maximum parts can four straight lines divide a circular disk?
A) 11   B) 21    C) 31    D)  41
85. When the numerator of a fraction is increased by 7 and denominator is increased by 13, the resulting number is equivalent to the obrained when numerator decreased by 2 and denominator decreased by 11. The sum of the numerator and denominator is 24. Find the fraction
A)  1/23    B)  7/17   C)  11/13     D)  5/19
86. A test contains 50 questions. Each correct answer fetches 1 mark and wrong answer gets 1/2 mark is deducted. A candidate who wrote the test attempted all the questions and scored 41 marks. Find the number of questions he answered correctly?
A)  46      B) 42     C) 44     D) 48
87. ABC is a three digit number. The sum of its digits is 9. If each of BA and BC are two digit numbers such that BA=BC-3. How many values C can take ?
A)  16    B) 6   C) 26   D) 36
88. The sum of three digit number and numbers formed by reversing its digits is 989. The sum of its digits is 13. Find the middle digit
A)  9    B)  6  C) 4  D) 2
89. An observer 1.6 m tall is 20√3 away from a tower .The angle of elevation from his eye to the top of the tower is 30⁰. The height of the tower is
A) 21.6 m   B) 23.2 m   C) 24.72 m  D) 21.4 m
90. Identify the odd one
A)  heart  B)  liver   C)  nose   D)  kidneys
91.  18, 10, 6, 4, 3,  ?
A)  8   B)   4   C)  3.5   D)  2.5
92. Which makes the best comparison ?
TOMATO : MTOOTA  : : 123412 : ?
A)  312214   B) 123456  C)  321124  D) 213314
93.  My brother is standing 40m South-West of my sister.I am standing 40m South-East of my brither. I am in which direction of my sister?
A)  South  B) West   C)  East   D)  North-East
94. Find the next letters in series : BCZ, DEY, FGK,HIW,_________
A)   JKL    B)   JKV   C)  JKU    D)  JKT
95. Find related word  ;  Conscience : wrong :: Police : _________
A)  thief   B) law   C)  discipline   D) crime
96. A shopkeeper sells one transistor for Rs.840 at a gain of 20% and another for Rs.960 at a loss of 4%. His total loss or gain percent is
A) 5  15/17 %  loss   B)  5  15/17 % gain   C)  6  2/3 % gain    D) 6 2/3 % loss
97. A boatman goes 2Km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1Km along the current in 10min. How long will it take to go 5Km in stationary water ?
A)  40 Minutes    B)  1 hour   C)  1 hr 15 min   D)  1 hr 30 min
98. In how many ways can the letters of the word  LEADER  can be arranged ?
A)  72  B)   144  C)  360   D)  720
99. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together, the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in
A)  81 min    B)  144 min    C) 108 min  D) 192 min
100. If  log 27  = 1.431 , then the value of    log 9 is
A)  0.934      B) 0.954      C) 0.945     D) 0.958

APTRANSCO AE Exam Model Paper - Telecom Paper

ANSWERS :

1.c 2.d 3.c 4.b 5.c 6. b 7.a 8.d 9.c 10.d 11.c 12.b 13.d 14.b 15.b 16.c 17.b 18.b 19.c 20.b 21.a 22.c 23.b 24.d 25.b 26.a 27.c 28.c 29.b 30.d 31.d 32.c 33.d 34.d 35.a 36.d 37.b 38.c 39.b 40.a 41.a 42.b 43.b 44.c 45.c 46.b 47.d 48.b 49.c 50.b 51.a 52.c 53.c 54.b 55.c 56.c 57.d 58.b 59.d 60.b 61.c 62.d 63.d 64.c 65.c 66.d 67.b 68.a 69.c 70.b 71.c 72.a 73.a 74.a 75.b 76.a 77.b 78.a 79.c 80.a 81.b 82.c 83.b 84.b 85.c 86.c 87.c 88.c 89.a 90.a 91.b 92.a 93.d 94.c 95.c 96.a 97.b 98.a 99.a 100.c

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APTRANSCO Assistant Engineer - Electrical Previous Question Papers

Q.1 The two windings of a transformer is
(A)   conductively linked.

(B)  inductively linked.
(C)  not linked at all.

(D)  electrically linked.

Ans : B

 

Q.2 A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load.  Its field current is switched off. The motor will
(A) come to stop.
(B) continue to run at synchronous speed.
(C) continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed.
(D) continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed.

Ans: B

 

Q.3 The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because
(A) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed.
(B) it will fail to start.
(C) it will not develop high starting torque.
(D) all are true.

Ans: A

 

Q.4 The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load speed is about
(A) 50 Hz.

(B)  20 Hz.

(C) 2 Hz.

(D)  Zero.

 Ans: C

 

Q.5 In a stepper motor the angular displacement

(A) can be precisely controlled.

(B) it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller.
(C) the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
(D) it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines.

 Ans: A

Q.6 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is
(A) low at light load only.
(B) low at heavy load only.
(C) low at light and heavy load both.
(D) low at rated load only.

Ans: A

 

Q.7 The generation voltage is usually
(A)  between 11 KV and 33 KV.

(B)  between 132 KV and 400 KV.
(C)  between 400 KV and 700 KV.

(D)  None of the above.

 Ans: A

 

Q.8 When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces
(A)  damping torque.
(B)  eddy current torque.
(C)  torque aiding the developed torque.
(D)  no torque.

Ans: D

 

Q.9 If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be
(A)  A square wave.

(B)  A sine wave.
(C) A triangular wave.

(D)  A pulse wave.

 Ans: A

 

Q.10 In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to

(A)  I_a 

(B) (I_a)²
(C)  1/I_a 

(D) 1/(I_a)²

 Ans: B

 

Q.11 In a 3 – phase induction motor running at slip ‘s’ the mechanical power developed in terms of air gap power
(A) (s-1)P_g
( B) P_g/(1-s)

(C) (1-s)P_g

(D) s.P_g

 Ans: C

 

Q.12  In a 3 – phase induction motor the maximum torque
(A)   is proportional to rotor resistance r₂
(B)   does not depend on r₂
(C)  is proportional to sqrt(r₂₎
(D) is proportional to (r₂)²

 Ans: B

 

Q.13 In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is 

(A)  stationary w.r.t. armature.

(B)  rotating w.r.t. field.
(C) stationary w.r.t. field.

(D)  rotating w.r.t. brushes.

 Ans: C

 

Q.14 In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at
(A)  unity p.f.

(B)  leading p.f.
(C)  lagging p.f.

(D)  zero p.f. leading.

 Ans: B

 

Q.15 The maximum power in cylindrical and salient pole machines is obtained respectively at load angles of
(A)  90⁰,90⁰

(B) <90⁰,90⁰

(C)   90⁰,>90⁰

(D) 90⁰,<90⁰

Ans: D

 

Q.16 The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz supply.  The secondary output voltage will be

(A)  3.6 V.

(B)  2.5 V.
(C)  3.0 V.

(D)  6.0 V.

Ans: C

 

Q.17 The emf induced in the primary of a transformer

(A)  is in phase with the flux.

(B)  lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
(C)  leads the flux by 90 degree.

(D)  is in phase opposition to that of flux.

Ans: C

 

Q.18 The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady state operation is zero for a
(A) dc machine.

(B)  3 phase induction machine.
(C)   synchronous machine.

(D)  single phase induction machine.

Ans: all options are correct

 

Q.19 The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit through

(A)  slip rings.

(B)  commutator segments.

(C)  solid connections.

(D)  carbon brushes.

 Ans: C

 

Q.20 A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is the
(A)  squirrel cage induction motor.

(B)  wound rotor induction motor.
(C)  synchronous motor.

(D)  DC shunt motor.

Ans: C

 

Q.21 A hysteresis motor
(A)  is not a self-starting motor.

(B)  is a constant speed motor.
(C)  needs dc excitation.

(D)  can not be run in reverse speed.

 Ans: B

 

Q.22 The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is
(A) a dc series motor.
(B)  a dc shunt motor.
(C)  an ac two-phase induction motor.
(D)  an ac series motor.

Ans: B

Q.23 The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the
(A)  operating voltage.                                               (B)  power factor.
(C)  current to be carried.                                          (D)  type of insulation used.Ans: C Q.24 Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is
(A)  electric arc heating                     (B)  induction heating              (C)  electric resistance heating                (D)  dielectric heating
Ans: C
Q.25 A two-winding single phase transformer has a voltage regulation of 4.5% at full-load and unity power-factor.  At full-load and 0.80 power-factor lagging load the voltage regulation will be
(A)  4.5%.           (B)  less than 4.5%.               (C)  more than 4.5%.                     (D)  4.5% or more than 4.5%.
Ans: C

Q.26 In a dc shunt motor the terminal voltage is halved while the torque is kept constant. The resulting approximate variation in speed ” ω” and armature current “I_a‘” will be
(A)  Both ω and I_a are doubled.

(B) ω is constant and I_a is doubled

(C) w is doubled while I_a is halved

(D) w is constant but I_a is halved

Ans: B

 

Q.27  A balanced three-phase, 50 Hz voltage is applied to a 3 phase, 4 pole, induction motor.  When the motor is delivering rated output, the slip is found to be 0.05. The speed of the rotor m.m.f. relative to the rotor structure is
(A) 1500 r.p.m.

(B)  1425 r.p.m.
(C)  25 r.p.m.

(D)  75 r.p.m.

 Ans: D

 

Q.28 An alternator is delivering rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor lagging case. If it is required to deliver rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor leading, the required excitation will be
(A)  less.

(B)  more.
(C)  more or less.

(D)  the same.

Ans: B

 

Q.29  A ceiling fan uses
(A) split-phase motor.
(B) capacitor start and capacitor run motor.
(C) universal motor.
(D) capacitor start motor.

 Ans: D

 

Q.30  A stepper motor is

(A) a dc motor.                 (B)  a single-phase ac motor.            (C)  a multi-phase motor.             (D)  a two phase motor.
Ans: D

 

Q.31  The ‘sheath’ is used in cable to

(A)  provide strength to the cable.
(B)  provide proper insulation.
(C)  prevent the moisture from entering the cable.
(D) avoid chances of rust on strands.

 Ans: A

 

Q.32 The drive motor used in a mixer-grinder is a
(A)  dc motor.            (B)  induction motor.           (C)  synchronous motor.               (D)  universal motor.

Ans: DQ.33  A 1:5 step-up transformer has 120V across the primary and 600 ohms resistance across the secondary.  Assuming 100% efficiency, the primary current equals (A)  0.2 Amp.          (B)  5 Amps.               (C)  10 Amps.          (D)  20 Amps.
Ans: A

Q.34  A dc shunt generator has a speed of 800 rpm when delivering 20 A to the load at the terminal voltage of 220V.  If the same machine is run as a motor it takes a line current of 20A from 220V supply.  The speed of the machine as a motor will be
(A) 800 rpm.             (B)  more than 800 rpm.               (C) less than 800 rpm.       (D)  both higher or lower than 800 rpm.

 Ans: C

 

Q.35  A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 r.p.m. The number of poles of the motor are
(A) 4.                  (B)  6.                      (C)  12.                       (D)  8.

 Ans: A

IFFCO Graduate Engineer Trainees (GET) Recruitment

Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited
IFFCO Sadan, C-1, Distt.Centre, Saket Place, New Delhi-110017

IFFCO requires Graduate Engineer Trainee (GET) for its existing establishments / subsidiaries / Joint Ventures and future projects anywhere in India or abroad

1. Graduate Engineer Trainee (GET)
• Age : 30 Years as on 01.01.2012 relaxable as per rules
• Qualification : Full Time Bachelor’s Degree in Engineering from recognized university / Institute in the disciplines Chemical, Mechanical, Electrical, Civil. Instrumentation & Electronics.

Last Date for online apply : 18.01.2012

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APTRANSCO AE Electrical Previous Questions

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EASTERN POWER DISTRIBUTION COMPANY OF AP LTD. RECRUITMENT

APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer AE Recruitment 2012

APGENCO is the largest Power Generating Company of Andhra Pradesh State and is the 3^rd largest Power utility (8923.9 MW) in India and has second highest Hydel capacity in the Country want to be the best power utility in the Country and one of the best in the World invites Online applications for the Recruitment of Trainee Assistant Engineer (for Engineering Graduates in Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil).

 

Post: Trainee Assistant Engineer (Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil)

Vacancies: 411 Posts

Pay Scale: Rs.23115 – 35720 

Date of APGENCO Trainee AE Written Test: 22.01.2012

Eligibility Criteria for Trainee Assistant Engineers:

Age Limit: Shall not be more than 34 years as on 01.12.2011.  Upper age limit will be relaxed up to 5 years for SC/ST/BC candidates and 10 years in respect of physically challenged candidates.

Educational Qualifications:

Electrical	B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Electrical & Electronics Engineering or equivalent
Mechanical	B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Mechanical Engineering or equivalent
Electronics	B.E/B.Tech./A.M.I.E., in Electronics & Communication Engineering/ Instrumentation & Controls Engineering/ Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering/ Electronics & Control Engineering/ Instrumentation Engineering/ Electronics Instrumentation & Power/ Power electronics or equivalent
Civil	B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Civil Engineering or equivalent

Application Fee: OC Candidates – Rs.500/- & for SC/ ST/ BC/ PWD – Rs.150/-  The applicant should pay the prescribed Registration Fee in any one of the A.P. Online Centers or A.P. Online Portal and obtain the receipt.

How to apply: The candidate has to login to the website http://www.apgenco.gov.in and click on APPLY ONLINE link or directly visit http://apgenco.cgg.gov.in to view detailed notification, user guide and to submit application form.  Online application is accessible from 20.12.2011 to 03.01.2012.

Click here to Apply Online for APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer 2011-12

Click here for APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer detailed Notification

APTRANSCO Assistant Engineer Practice Questions

Microprocessors : 

1. Which interrupt has the highest priority?

a) INTR b) TRAP c) RST6.5

2. In 8085 name the 16 bit registers?

a) Stack pointer b) Program counter  c) a & b

3. Which of the following is hardware interrupts?

a) RST5.5, RST6.5, RST7.5 b) INTR, TRAP c) a & b

4. What is the RST for the TRAP?

a) RST5.5 b) RST4.5 c) RST4

5. What are level Triggering interrupts?

a) INTR&TRAP b)RST6.5&RST5.5 c)RST7.5&RST6.5

6. Which interrupt is not level sensitive in 8085?

a) RST6.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt. b) RST7.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt. c) a & b.

7. What are software interrupts?

a) RST 0 – 7 b) RST 5.5 – 7.5 c) INTR, TRAP

8. Which stack is used in 8085?

a) FIFO b) LIFO c) FILO

9.  Why 8085 processor is called an 8 bit processor?

a) Because 8085 processor has 8 bit ALU. b) Because 8085 processor has 8 bit data bus. c) a & b.

10. What is SIM?

a) Select Interrupt Mask b) Sorting Interrupt Mask c) Set Interrupt Mask.

11. RIM is used to check whether, ______

a) The write operation is done or not b) The interrupt is Masked or not c) a & b

12. What is meant by Maskable interrupts? a) An interrupt which can never be turned off. b) An interrupt that can be turned off by the programmer. c) none

13.  In 8086, Example for Non maskable interrupts are

a) Trap b) RST6.5 c) INTR

14. What does microprocessor speed depends on?

a) Clock b) Data bus width c) Address bus width

15. Can ROM be used as stack?

a) Yes b) No c) sometimes yes, sometimes no

16.  Which processor structure is pipelined?

a) all x80 processors b) all x85 processors c) all x86 processors

17. Address line for RST3 is?

a) 0020H b) 0028H c) 0018H

18. In 8086 the overflow flag is set when

a) The sum is more than 16 bits b) Signed numbers go out of their range after an arithmetic operation c) Carry and sign flags are set d) During subtraction

19. The advantage of memory mapped I/O over I/O mapped I/O is,

a) Faster b) Many instructions supporting memory mapped I/O c) Require a bigger address decoder d) All the above

20. BHE  of 8086 microprocessor signal is used to interface the

a) Even bank memory b) Odd bank memory c) I/O d) DMA

21. In 8086 microprocessor the following has the highest priority among all type interrupts.

a) NMI b) DIV 0 c) TYPE 255 d) OVER FLOW

22. In 8086 microprocessor one of the following statements is not true.

a) Coprocessor is interfaced in MAX mode b) Coprocessor is interfaced in MIN mode c) I/O can be interfaced in MAX / MIN mode d) Supports pipelining

23. 8088 microprocessor differs with 8086 microprocessor in

a) Data width on the output b) Address capability c) Support of coprocessor d) Support of MAX / MIN mode

24. Address line for TRAP is?

a) 0023H b) 0024H c) 0033H

ANSWERS:

1 C 1.2 C  1.3 C 1.4 B 1.5 B 1.6 B 1.7 A 1.8 B 1.9 A 1.10 C 1.11 B 1.12 B 1.13 A 1.14 C 1.15 B 1.16 C 1.17 C 1.18 B 1.19 D 1.20 B 1.21 A 1.22 B 1.23 A 1.24 B

Microcontroller :

1. The 8051 microcontroller is of ___pin package as a ______ processor.

a) 30, 1byte b) 20, 1 byte c) 40, 8 bit d) 40, 8 byte

2. The SP is of ___ wide register. And this may be defined anywhere in the ______.

a) 8 byte, on-chip 128 byte RAM. b) 8 bit, on chip 256 byte RAM. c) 16 bit, on-chip 128 byte ROM d) 8 bit, on chip 128 byte RAM.

3. After reset, SP register is initialized to address________.

a) 8H b) 9H c) 7H d) 6H

4. What is the address range of SFR Register bank?

a) 00H-77H b) 40H-80H c) 80H-7FH d) 80H-FFH

5. Which pin of port 3 is has an alternative function as write control signal for external data memory?

a) P3.8 b) P3.3 c) P3.6 d) P3.1

6. What is the Address (SFR) for TCON, SCON, SBUF, PCON and PSW respectively?

a) 88H, 98H, 99H, 87H, 0D0H. b) 98H, 99H, 87H, 88H, 0D0H c) 0D0H, 87H, 88H, 99H, 98H d) 87H, 88H, 0D0H, 98H, 99H

7. Match the following:

1) TCON ——–i) contains status information

2) SBUF ——–ii) timer / counter control register.

3) TMOD——– iii) idle bit, power down bit

4) PSW——– iv) serial data buffer for Tx and Rx.

5) PCON ——-v) timer/ counter modes of operation.

a) 1->ii, 2->iv, 3->v, 4->i, 5->iii.    b) 1->i, 2->v, 3->iv, 4->iii, 5->ii.      c) 1->v, 2->iii, 3->ii, 4->iv, 5->i.     d) 1->iii, 2->ii, 3->i, 4->v, 5->iv.

8. Which of the following is of bit operations? i) SP ii) P2 iii) TMOD iv) SBUF v) IP

a) ii, v only b) ii, iv, v only c) i, v only d) iii, ii only

9. Serial port interrupt is generated, if ____ bits are set

a) IE b) RI, IE c) IP, TI d) RI, TI

10. In 8051 which interrupt has highest priority?

a)IE1 b)TF0 c)IE0 d)TF1

11. Intel 8096 is of ___ bit microcontroller family called as ______.

a) 8, MCS51 b) 16, MCS51  c) 8, MCS96 d) 16, MCS96

12. 8096 has following features fill up the following, i) ____ Register file, ii) ____ I/O Ports iii) ____ architecture.

a) 256 byte, five 8bit, register to register    b) 256 byte, four 8bit, register to register    c) 232 byte, five 8bit, register to register   d) 232 byte, six 8 bit, register to register

13. How many synchronous and asynchronous modes are there in serial port of 8096?

a) 2, 2 respectively    b) 3,1 respectively     c) 1, 3 respectively     d) 1, 2 respectively

14. In 8096 we have _____interrupt sources and _______ interrupt vectors.

a) 18, 8 b) 21, 6 c) 21, 8 d) 16, 8

15. 8096 has ___ general purpose I/O ports, Port 2 includes ______ of the following
i) two quasi-bidirectional I/O lines  ii) two output lines iii) four input lines iv) open drain outputs

a) 4, i, iv         b) 6, ii, iii       c) 4, i,ii,iii       d) 6, i, ii, iv

16. 8096 write-protected mode, no code can write to memory address between __.

a) 2020 to 3FFFH b) 8000 to FFFFH c) 2000 to 3FFFH d) 2020 to 202FH

17. If the __ pin is ___ , then we have the option of using the ____ ROM or EPROM together with _____ memory and devices.

a) EA, high, internal, external b) EA, low, internal, external c) EA, high, external, internal d) EA, low, external, internal

18. In 8096, CCB bit 3 is ____.

a) write strobe mode select b) address valid strobe select c) bus width select d) Internal read control mode

19. In 8096, mode ____ of serial port are ___ modes commonly used for ____ communications.

a) 1, 8bit, single processor    b) 0, 7bit, multiple microcontroller c) 2, 9 bit, multiple processors  d) 3, 8 bit, multiple microcontroller

20. What is the function of watchdog timer?

a) The watchdog Timer is an external timer that resets the system if the software
fails to operate properly.

b) The watchdog Timer is an internal timer that sets the system if the software fails
to operate properly.

c) The watchdog Timer is an internal timer that resets the system if the software fails
to operate properly.

d) None of them

 

ANSWERS:

1 C  2 D  3 C  4 D  5 C  6 A  7 A 8 A 9 D  10 C  11 D  12 C  13 C  14 C  15 C   16 C 17 A  18 B 19 C  20 C

APTRANSCO Assistant Engineer Telecom Model Paper

1.For reciprocal network, ABCD parameters are related as
(A ) A = D      (B)  B = C   (C) AD – BC = 1    (D) AD + BC = 1
2. For a short circuited transmission line, reflection coefficient is equal to
(A) zero       (B) infinity       (C) –1        (D) +1
3. An analog signal is band-limited to 4kHz, sampled at the Nyquist rate and the samples are quantized into 4 levels. The quantized levels are assumed to be independent and equally probable. If we transmit two quantized samples per second, the information rate is ________ bits / second.
(A)1        (B) 2        (C) 3         (D) 4
Explanation:: Since two samples are transmitted and each sample has 2 bits of information,  then the information rate is 4 bits/sec.
4. The root locus plot for a system is given below. The open loop transfer function corresponding to this plot is given by

Answer::  (B)
Explanation:: ‘ x ‘ →  indicates pole
‘ O’ →  indicates zero  The point on the root locus when the number of poles and zeroes on the real axis
to the right side of that point must be odd
5. A system is defined by its impulse response  The system is 
  (A) stable and causal                 (B) causal but not stable                (C) stable but not causal             (D) unstable and non-causal
Explanation::
h(n)  is existing for n>2 ; so that h(n)=0;n<0 ⇒  causal

6. A digital-to-analog converter with a full-scale output voltage of 3.5 V has a resolution close to 14m V. Its bit size is
A) 4             B) 8            C) 16                D) 32
7. The output Y in the circuit below is always ‘1’  when

(A) two or more of the inputs P,Q,R are ‘0’
(B) two or more of the inputs P,Q,R are ‘1’
(C) any odd number of the inputs P,Q,R is ‘0’
(D) any odd number of the inputs P,Q,R is ‘1’ 
Explanation:: The output Y expression in the Ckt is Y= PQ +PR+ RQ   So that two or more inputs are ‘1’, Y is always ‘1’.
8.  For the function f(x) = x²e^-x , the maximum occurs when x is equal to
A) 2              B) 1            C) 0               D) -1 Correct
9. Drift current in the semiconductors depends upon  
(A) only the electric field    (B) only the carrier concentration gradient   (C) both the electric field and the carrier concentration  (D) both the electric field and the carrier concentration gradient 
Explanation :: Drift current, J E= σ
J= (nu_n + pu_p)qE   So that it depends on carrier concentration and electric field.
10. A Zener diode, when used in voltage stabilization circuits, is biased in 
(A) reverse bias region below the breakdown voltage
(B) reverse breakdown region 
(C) forward bias region 
(D) forward bias constant current mode
11.  The modes in a rectangular waveguide are denoted by TE_mn/TM_mn where m and n are the eigen numbers along the larger and smaller dimensions of the waveguide respectively. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) The TM  mode of the wave does not exist 
(B) The TE₁₀mode of the wave does not exist 
(C) The TM₁₀ and the TE₁₀ modes both exist and have the same cut-off frequencies
(D) The TM₁₀ and TM₀₁ modes both exist and have the same cut-off frequencies
 Explanation :: TM₁₀  mode doesn’t exist in rectangular waveguide.
12.  The Column-I lists the attributes and the Column-II lists the modulation systems. Match the attribute to the modulation system that best meets it

Column-I	Column-II
P Power efficient transmission of signals	1 Conventional AM
Q Most bandwidth efficient transmission of voice signals	2 FM
R Simplest receiver structure	3 VSB
S Bandwidth efficient transmission of signals with Significant dc component	4 SSB-SC

(A) P-4;Q-2;R-1;S-3         (B) P-2;Q-4;R-1;S-3           (C) P-3;Q-2;R-1;S-4            (D) P-2;Q-4;R-3;S-1
 Explanation :: Power efficient transmission →FM
Most bandwidth efficient → SSB-SC  Transmission of voice signal
Simplest receives structure → conventional AM  Bandwidth efficient transmission of → VSB  Signals with significant DC component
13. For the transfer function  G(jw)= 5 +jω , the corresponding Nyquist plot for positive frequency has the form

Answer::- (A)
Explanation :: As we increases real part ‘5’ is fixed only imaginary part increases.
14. The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function does not have the 
(A) dc term        (B) cosine terms          (C) sine terms   (D) odd harmonic terms
Explanation ::  f(t)  is even function, hence b_k=0 Where ‘ b_k ‘  is the coefficient of sine terms
15.  A silicon PN junction is forward biased with a constant current at room temperature. When the temperature is increased by 10ºC, the forward bias voltage across the PN junction
(A) increases by 60mV          (B) decreases by 60mV            (C) increases by 25mV         (D) decreases by 25mV
Explanation :: For Si forward bias voltage change by -2.5mv/ deg C
For 10⁰C increases, change will be 2.5*10= -25mV
16. The value of the integral where c is the circle Z=1is given by
(A) 0         (B) 1/10            (C) 4/5           (D) 1
17. Two D flip-flops are connected as a synchronous counter that goes through the following Q_BQ_A  sequence 00–> 11–> 01–> 10–> 00 …  The combination to the inputs D_{A &} D_B   are

Answer :: D
18. A transmission line of characteristic impedance 50W is terminated in a load impedance Z_{L ,}The VSWR of the line is measured as 5 and the first of the voltage maxima in the line is observed at a distance of λ/4  from the load. The value of Z_L is
(A) 10Ω   (B) 250 Ω  (C) (19.23 +j46.15) Ω   (D) (19.23-j46.15) Ω
19. When the output Y in the circuit below is ‘1’, it implies that data has

(A) changed from 0 to 1 (B) changed from 1 to 0 (C) changed in either direction (D) not changed
 Exp: – When data is ‘0’, Q is ‘0’  And Q’ is ‘1’ first flip flop   Data is changed to 1  Q is 1 → first ‘D’
Q’ is connected to 2nd flip flop,   So that Q2=1   So that the inputs of AND gate is ‘1’==> y = ’1′
20. In amplifier application, FET is operated in 
a)  The controlled resistor region       b) The controlled source region       c) The aval anche breakdown region  d) None
21. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its
a)  broad bandwidth    b) maneuverability  c) circular polarization   d) good front -to-back ratio
22. A₁ A₂ A₃ are ideal ammeters. If A₁ reads 5A, A₂ reads 12A, then A₃ should read

a)  7A b)        12A         c) 13A           d) 17A    
23. The steady state current through 1H inductance

a)  zero       b) 5A         c) 3A           d) 6A       
24. The total number of 128 8 RAM chips is needed to provide a memory capacity of 2048 bytes is:
a)  11        b) 16          c) 10            d) 8 
25. PLL can be used to demodulate
a)  DSB-SC signals  b) PCM signals  c) PAM signals  d) FM signals     
26. Compared to BJT, MOSFET enjoyi ng an advantage of
a)  Able to handle hi gh power    b) Ease of cont rol     c) Requires less power in driving it     d) None of these 
27. Which of the following noise becomes important at microwave frequencies?
a)  short noise     b) transit time noise    c) flicker noise    d) thermal noise  
28.

Answer :: D
29.

Answer :: A
30. DC-emphasis is used 
a)  to reduce overall modulation index
b) to attenuate l ow modul ation frequencies
c) to attenuate high modul ation frequencies
d) to attenuate mi d-band modulation frequencies.
31. A transmission li ne of 20 ohms characteristic impedance is connected to a load of 20+20j The normalized impedance is:
a) 400+400j     b) 20j        c) 40 +20j       d) 1+1j
32.

Answer :: A.
Expalnation :: s(t) —> step response, Therefore impulse response is

33.The drain of an n-channel MOSFET is shorted to the gate so that VGS = VDS. The threshold voltage (VT) of MOSFET is 1 V. If the drain current (ID) is 1 mA for VGS = 2V, then for VGS = 3V, ID is 
A) 2 mA        B) 3 mA      C) 9 mA         D) 4 mA
34.The 8085 assembly language instruction that stores the content of H and L registers into the memory locations 2050H and 2051H, respectively, is 
A) SPHL 2050         B) SPHL2051      C) SHLD 2050        D) STAX 2050
35. The cascade amplifier is a multistage configuration of
A) CC-CB         B) CE-CB      C) CB-CC      D) CE-CC
36.Consider the following statements S1 and S2. S1: The b of a bipolar transistor reduces if the base width is increased. S2: The b of a bipolar transistor increases if the doping concentration in the base is increased. Which one of the following is correct? 
A) S1 is FALSE and S2 is TRUE   B) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE     C) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE   D) S1 is TRUE and S2 is FALSE
37. Which interrupt has the highest priority?
A) INTR       B) TRAP         C) RST6.5     D) RST 5.5 – 7.5
38. BHE  of 8086 microprocessor signal is used to interface the
A) Even bank memory       B) Odd bank memory        C) I/O        D) DMA
39. What is the Address (SFR) for TCON, SCON, SBUF, PCON and PSW respectively?
A) 88H, 98H, 99H, 87H, 0D0H.        B) 98H, 99H, 87H, 88H, 0D0H        C) 0D0H, 87H, 88H, 99H, 98H        D) 87H, 88H, 0D0H, 98H, 99H
40. In a PCM system, if the code word length is increased from 6 to 8 bits, the signal to quantization noise ratio improves by the factor 
A) 8/6         B) 12              C) 16              D) 8