Showing posts with label ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING. Show all posts
Showing posts with label ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING. Show all posts

Monday, January 31, 2011

PSU EXAMS ELECTRONICS ENGINEETING PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. An example for insulator

a) a.copper

b) aluminium

c) c.plastic

d) none of these

Ans: c

2. An example for semiconductor

a) copper

b) aluminium

c) mica

d) germanium

Ans:d

3. Forbidden gap is

a) gap between conduction band and valance band

b) gap between covalant band and valance band

c) gap between conduction band and energy band

d) none of these

Ans:a

4. In conductor, Forbidden gap is

a) large

b) very large

c) small

d) overlapped

Ans:d

5. In insulator, Forbidden gap is

a) large

b) very large

c) small

d) overlapped

Ans:b

6. In semiconductor, Forbidden gap is

a) small

b) large

c) zero

d) none of these

Ans:a

7. A pure semiconductor is

a) carbon

b) extrinsic semiconductor

c) zero semiconductor

d) intrinsic semiconductor

Ans:d

8.After the valley point UJT acts as

a.transister

b.amplifier

c.contoller

d.forward PN Diode

Ans:d

9.UJT used in

a.pulse generator

b. electric circuit

c.either (a)&(b)

d.none of these

Ans:a

10.Diac is used as

a.triggering device

b. pulse generator

c. amplifier

d.contoller

Ans:a

11.Triac is

a.Two transister device

b.two diodes device

c.two diacs device

d.two SCR device

Ans:d

12.When Gate current is equal to zero,SCR acts as

a.Diode

b.transister

c.PNPN Diode

d.none of these

Ans:c

13..Triac has

a.one terminal

b.two terminal

c.three terminal

d.four terminal

Ans:c

14.Terminals of SCR

a.gate,emitter

b.gate,base.collector

c.anode,cathode,gate

d.none of these

Ans:c

15. A term ‘holding current’ used in

a.Diode

b.transister

c.PNPN Diode

d.SCR

Ans:d

16. A term ‘Zener breakdown voltage’ used in

a.Zener Diode

b.transister

c.PNPN Diode

d.SCR

Ans:a

17.A term ‘intrinsic standoff ratio’ used in

a.Diode

b.UJT

c.PNPN Diode

d.SCR

Ans:b

18. A term ‘latching current’ used in

a.Diode

b.transister

c.PNPN Diode

d.SCR

Ans:d

19.Which one is used as triggering device

a.Diode

b.UJT

c.PNPN Diode

d.none of these

Ans:b

20.SCR is used as

a.pulse generator

b. amplifier

c.contoller

d.none of these

Ans:c

21. Majority carriers of P type material

(a) Electrons

(b) Holes

(c) Protons

(d) None of these

Ans:b

22. Minority carriers of N type material

(a) Electrons

(b) Holes

(c) Protons

(d) None of these

Ans:b

23. Minority carriers of P type material

(a) Electrons

(b) Holes

(c) Protons

(d) None of these

Ans:a

24. Terminals of diode

a.gate,emitter

b.gate,base.collector

c.anode,cathode,

d.none of these

Ans:c

25. Terminals of transistor

a.gate,emitter

b.gate,base.collector

c.anode,cathode,gate

d.base,emitter,collector

Ans:d

26.At room temperature, extrinsic semiconductor is

a)conductor

b)poor conductor

c)partially conductor

d)none of these

Ans:b

27.Which one is trivalent impurity

a)boron

b)antimony

c)silicon

d)none of these

Ans:a

28.Which one is pentavalent impurity

a)boron

b)antimony

c)silicon

d)none of these

Ans:b

29.Resistance of an ideal diode, resistance during reverse biasing

(a) Zero

(b) Unity

(c) Maximum

(d) infinite

Ans:d

30. In CB Configuration of transistor, the output impedance is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) none of these

Ans:a

31. In CB Configuration of transistor, voltage gain is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) none of these

Ans:a

32. In CB Configuration of transistor, current gain is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) almost one

Ans:d

33. In CE Configuration of transistor, the input impedance is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) none of these

Ans:b

34. In CE Configuration of transistor, the output impedance is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) none of these

Ans:b

35. In CC Configuration of transistor, the output impedance is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) none of these

Ans:c

36. An ideal diode resistance has———resistance during forward biasing

(a) Zero

(b) Unity

(c) Maximum

(d) Minimum

Ans:a

37. Transistor is used as

(a) Switch

(b) Amplifier

(c) Both (a) & (b)

(d) None of these

Ans:c

38. Majority carriers of N type material

(a) Electrons

(b) Holes

(c) Protons

(d) None of these

Ans:a

39. Which one is semiconductor

(a) Copper

(b) Mica

(c) Carbon

(d) Silicon

Ans:d

40. Transistor is ———–Device

(a) Bipolar

(b) Unipolar

(c) Constant current

(d) Constant voltage

Ans:a

41. Diode is used as

(a) Regulator

(b) Inverter

(c) Current Regulator

(d) Rectifier

Ans:d

42. Zener diode acts as

(a) Rectifier

(b) Regulator

(c) Inverter

(d) None of these

Ans:b

43. Diode is ———–Device

(a) Bipolar

(b) Unipolar

(c) Constant current

(d) Constant voltage

Ans:b

44. Which one is intrinsic semiconductor

(a) Copper

(b) Mica

(c) Carbon

(d) Silicon

Ans:d

45. Which one is conductor

(a) Copper

(b) Mica

(c) Carbon

(d) Silicon

Ans:a

46. Which one is insulator

(a) Copper

(b) Mica

(c) Carbon

(d) Silicon

Ans:b

47. Ripple factor for half wave rectifier

(a) 1.11

(b) 1.21

(c) 1.5

(d) 0.48

Ans:b

48. Ripple factor for full wave rectifier

(a) 1.11

(b) 1.21

(c) 1.5

(d) 0.48

Ans:d

49. Ripple factor for bridge wave rectifier

(a) 1.11

(b) 1.21

(c) 1.5

(d) 0.48

Ans:d

50. BJT is ———–Device

(a) Bipolar

(b) Unipolar

(c) Constant current

(d) Constant voltage

Ans:a

51. SCR is

(a) un controlled device

(b) Regulator

(c) controlled device

(d) None of these

Ans:c

52. In CB Configuration of transistor, the input impedance is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) none of these

Ans:c

53. Diac is

(a) Unidirectional device

(b) Bidirectional device

(c) Constant device

(d) None of these

Ans:b

54. Other name of SCR

(a) Transistor

(b) Diode

(c) Thyristor

(d) Resistor

Ans:c

55. UJT terminals are

(a) Base 1,Base 2,Emitter

(b) Base 1, collector,Emitter

(c) Base 1,Base 2,Collector

(d) None of these

Ans:a

56.A term intrinsic standoff ratio used in

(a) diode

(b) transistor

(c) UJT

(d) None of these

Ans:c

57.Which one works on negative resistance region

(a) diode

(b) transistor

(c) UJT

(d) None of these

Ans:c

58.SCR maybe considered as

(a) two diode model

(b) transistor model

(c) two transistor model

(d) None of these

Ans:c

59. Semiconductor is

  1. conductor
  2. insulator
  3. either conductor or insulator
  4. none of these

Ans:c

60. An example for conductor

  1. copper
  2. mica
  3. plastic
  4. carbon

Ans:a

Saturday, January 15, 2011

ELECTRONICS & INSTRUMENTATION OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. The decibel is a measure of

a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Power
d) Power level

Ans : (d)

2. Power gain in decibels is equal to voltage gain in decibels only when
a) Input impedance is equal to output impedance
b) Output impedance is zero
c) Never
d) Input impedance is zero

Ans : (a)

3. An ideal amplifier has
a) Noise figure of 0 db
b) Noise figure of more than 0 db
c) Noise factor of unity
d) Noise figure of less than 1 db

Ans : (c)

4. Fidelity represents
S1: Reproduction of signal
S2: Reproduction of phase relation
a) S1 and S2 are true
b) S1 and S2 are false
c) S1 false and S2 true
d) S1 true and S2 false

Ans : (d)

5. If the current gain of the amplifier is X, its voltage gain is Y, then its power gain will be
a) X/Y
b) X*Y
c) X+Y
d) X-Y

Ans : (b)

6. In an amplifier, the coupling capacitors are employed for
a) Limiting the bandwidth
b) Matching the impedance
c) Preventing of Dc mixing with input or output
d) Controlling the output

Ans : (c)

7. The amplifier which has no drift is called as
a) Differential amplifier
b) DC amplifier
c) Single ended amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier

Ans : (d)

8. The amplifier gain varies with frequency. This happens mainly due to
a) Miller effect
b) Presence of external and internal capacitance
c) Logarithmic increase in its output
d) Inter stage transformer

Ans : (b)

9. The outstanding characteristics of a D.C. amplifier is its
a) Ability to amplify Dc and low frequency signals
b) Temperature stability
c) Utmost economy
d) Avoidance of frequency sensitive components

Ans : (a)

10. Isolation amplifier actually operates on the principle of
a) Filtering
b) Attenuation
c) Clipping
d) Amplification

Ans : (b)

11. Isolation amplifiers are also called as
a) DC amplifier
b) Output amplifier
c) Inverting amplifier
d) Iso-amps

Ans : (d)

12. The improper response time of the amplifier in the biomedical recorders
a) Affects the gain of the amplifier
b) Delays the signals
c) Changes the shape of the waveform of the signal
d) Attenuates the signals

Ans : (c)

13. To reduce common mode interference during recording of bio signals one can use__________
a) Buffer amplifier
b) Differential amplifier
c) Single ended amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier

Ans : (b)

14. Resistively generated inference arises through incorrect __________________
a) Grounding
b) Current density at the electrodes
c) Supply voltage
d) Input impedance

Ans : (a)

15. CMRR is more in_______________
a) Single ended amplifier
b) Differential amplifier
c) Inverting operational amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier

Ans : (b)

16. For biomedical applications the mostly used amplifier is
a) Single ended amplifier
b) Differential amplifier
c) Inverting operational amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier

Ans : (b)

17. ___________ amplifier is used to drive the recorder.
a) Power amplifier
b) Pre amplifier
c) Operational amplifier
d) Differential amplifier

Ans : (a)

18. When a number of components are fabricated on same IC chip it is necessary to provide isolation between two different components for input interconnection is called __________
a) Input amplification
b) Input differentiation
c) Common mode rejection
d) Input isolation

Ans : (d)

19. A chopper amplifier
a) Converts AC signal from low frequency to high frequency
b) Converts DC signal from low frequency to high frequency
c) Converts AC signal from low frequency to DC high frequency
d) Converts DC signal from low frequency to high frequency

Ans : (b)

20. Power amplifier is provided with
S1: Cross over distortion compensation
S2: Offset control
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false

Ans : (c)

21. Pre amplifier isolation in ECG circuit is to
a) Increase input impedance
b) Decrease input impedance
c) Increase output impedance
d) Decrease output impedance

Ans : (a)

22. Raising input impedance of pre amplifier reduces
a) Input current
b) Output current
c) Stray current
d) Grid current

Ans : (c)

23. Common mode rejection ratio is defined as ratio of
a) Common mode gain to differential mode gain
b) Differential mode gain to common mode gain
c) Common mode gain at input to differential mode gain at input
d) Common mode gain at output to differential mode gain at output

Ans : (b)

24. An electrometer amplifier has high input impedance of
a) 1010?
b) 105?
c) 1020?
d) 1015?

Ans : (d)

25. When the input of differential amplifier V1 = 0, then the differential amplifier is said to be operated in
a) Common mode
b) Differential mode
c) Non inverting mode
d) Inverting mode

Ans : (c)

26. When either one of the inputs to the differential amplifier is equal to zero then it is said to be operated in
a) Single ended mode
b) Differential mode
c) Non inverting mode
d) Inverting mode

Ans : (a)
27. The negative feed back in an amplifier
a) Reduces voltage gain
b) Increases the voltage gain
c) Increases the gain band width product
d) Reduces the input impedances

Ans : (a)

28. Feedback in an amplifier always helps in
a) Increasing its input impedance
b) Increasing its gain
c) Controlling its output
d) Stabilizes its gain

Ans : (c)

29. Using mechanical chopper we cannot achieve high chopping rates due to their
a) Input impedance
b) Output impedance
c) Response time
d) Inertia

Ans : (d)

30. The CMRR of a typical IC OPAMP is
a) 70 dB
b) 80 dB
c) 85 dB
d) 75 dB

Ans : (b)

31. A ————– is usually a display device used to produce a paper record of analog wave form.
a) Graphic pen recorder
b) Electron microscope
c) X-Y recorder
d) Oscilloscope

Ans : (a)

32. The _________ of a recording system is the magnitude of input voltage required to produce a standard deflection in a recorded trace.
a) Accuracy
b) Linearity
c) Sensitivity
d) Resolution

Ans : (c)

33. A recorder is said to have good frequency response when the sensitivity of the system is _________ for all frequencies present in the signal.
a) Unity
b) Zero
c) Infinity
d) Constant

Ans : (d)

34. In phase response of a recorder noise level ___________ with the band width of a system
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Reaches unity
d) Reaches infinity

Ans : (a)

35. Function of microscope is
S1: To magnify object, under observation
S2: To resolve the object
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false

Ans : (c)

36. In electron microscope the projection of the motion on a plane normal to magnetic
induction (B) will be a circle of radius (r) =
a) mVsin?+eB
b) mVsin?/eB
c) mVsin?-eB
d) mVsin?*eB

Ans : (b)

37. Match the following
1. Electron microscope – (A) Electron gun
2. Oscilloscope – (B) Condensing magnetic lens
3. Galvanometric recorder – (C) Recording head
4. Magnetic recorder – (D) Drive motor
a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

Ans : (c)

38. In PMMC writing system, the magnitude of pen deflection is proportional to
S1: Current flowing through the coil
S2: Voltage in the coil
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false

Ans : (a)

39. Duration of rotation of pen in the PMMC system depends upon ___________
a) Phase angle
b) Frequency
c) Magnitude
d) Direction

Ans : (d)

40. The shorter wave length of the electron permits the detailed examination of tiny objects due to reduction of ___________ effects
a) Reflection
b) Diffraction
c) Refraction
d) Polarization

Ans : (b)

41. Which of the following recorder gives slow response
a) X-Y recorder
b) Oscillographic
c) Galvanometric
d) Magnetic

Ans : (c)

42. The use of storage oscilloscope
S1: Viewing rapidly changing non repetitive wave forms
S2: Recording average values
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false

Ans : (b)

43. In X-Y recorders, the self balancing potentiometers plot emf as a function of
a) Another emf
b) Frequency
c) Time
d) Pressure

Ans : (a)

44. In strip chart recorders, the self balancing potentiometers plot emf as a function of
a) Another emf
b) Frequency
c) Time
d) Pressure

Ans : (c)

45. The slewing speed of X-Y recorder is
a) 1.6 m/s
b) 1.3 m/s
c) 1.4 m/s
d) 1.5 m/s

Ans : (d)


46. The resolution limit of electron microscope is
a) 2 A.V
b) 1 A.V
c) 1.5 A.V
d) 1.2 A.V

Ans : (b)

47. _____________ is also known as halftone storage or mersh storage.
a) Variable persistence storage
b) Bistable storage
c) Flat storage
d) CRT

Ans : (a)

48. Storage oscilloscope operates on the principle of
a) Primary emission
b) Deflection
c) Secondary emission
d) Diffusion

Ans : (c)

49. The writing speed of fast storage oscilloscope is
a) 2000 cm/?s
b) 1000 cm/?s
c) 1500 cm/?s
d) 2500 cm/?s

Ans : (a)

50. Stress and strain curves are plotted using
a) Magnetic tape recording
b) X-Y recording
c) Galvanometric
d) PMMC writing systems

Ans : (b)

ELECTRONICS & INSTRUMENTATION QUESTIONS

1. Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers.
a) Active
b) Passive
c) Secondary
d) Inverse
Ans : (a)

2. The transducers that converts the input signal into the output signal, which is a discrete function of time is known as ___________ transducer.
a) Active
b) Analog
c) Digital
d) Pulse
Ans : (c)

3. A transducer that converts measurand into the form of pulse is called
a) Active transducer
b) Analog transducer
c) Digital transducer
d) Pulse transducer
Ans : (d)

4. Which of the following is a digital transducer?
a) Strain gauge
b) Encoder
c) Thermistor
d) LVDT
Ans : (b)

5. Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of
a) Active transducers
b) Passive transducers
c) Analog transducers
d) Primary transducers
Ans : (c)

6. An inverse transducer is a device which converts
a) An electrical quantity into a non electrical quantity
b) Electrical quantity into mechanical quantity
c) Electrical energy into thermal energy
d) Electrical energy into light energy
Ans : (a)

7. A strain gauge is a passive transducer and is employed for converting
a) Mechanical displacement into a change of resistance
b) Pressure into a change of resistance
c) Force into a displacement
d) Pressure into displacement
Ans : (a)

8. Resolution of a transducer depends on
a) Material of wire
b) Length of wire
c) Diameter of wire
d) Excitation voltage
Ans : (c)

9. The sensitivity factor of strain gauge is normally of the order of
a) 1 to 1.5
b) 1.5 to 2.0
c) 0.5 to 1.0
d) 5 to 10
Ans : (b)

10. In wire wound strain gauges, the change in resistance is due to
a) Change in diameter of the wire
b) Change in length of the wire
c) Change in both length and diameter
d) Change in resistivity
Ans : (c)

11. Bonded wire strain gauges are
a) Exclusively used for construction of transducers
b) Exclusively used for stress analysis
c) Used for both stress analysis and construction of transducer
d) Pressure measurement
Ans : (c)

12. Certain type of materials generates an electrostatic charge or voltage when mechanical force is applied across them. Such materials are called
a) Piezo-electric
b) Photo-electric
c) Thermo-electric
d) Photo-resistive
Ans : (a)

13. Quartz and Rochelle salt belongs to ___________ of piezo-electric materials
a) Natural group
b) Synthetic group
c) Natural or Synthetic group
d) Fiber group
Ans : (a)

14. Which of the following are piezo electric substances?
1. Barium titanate
2. Lead titanate
3. Lead Zirconate
4. Cadmium and sulphate
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1,3and4
c) 1,2and 3
d) 2,3and 4
Ans : (c)

15. Piezo-electric transducers are
a) Passive transducers
b) Inverse transducers
c) Digital transducers
d) Pulse transducers
Ans : (b)

16. Piezo – electric transducers work when we apply _____________ to it.
a) Mechanical force
b) Vibrations
c) Illuminations
d) Heat
Ans : (d)
17. Piezo electric crystal can produce an emf
a) When external mechanical force is applied to i
b) When radiant energy stimulates the crystal
c) When external magnetic field is applied
d) When the junction of two such crystals are heated
Ans : (a)

18. The draw backs of strain gauges are
S1: Low fatigue life
S2: They are expensive, brittle and sensitive to temperature
S3: Poor linearity
a) S1 and S2
b) S2 and S3
c) S1 and S3
d) S1 only
Ans : (b)

19. LVDT windings are wound on
a) Steel sheets
b) Aluminium
c) Ferrite
d) Copper
Ans : (c)

20. The size of air cored transducers in comparison to the iron core parts is
a) Smaller
b) Larger
c) Same
d) Unpredictable
Ans : (b)

21. The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of
a) Self inductance
b) Mutual inductance
c) Reluctance
d) Permanence
Ans : (b)

22. LVDT is an/a ___________ transducer
a) Magneto-strict ion
b) Inductive
c) Resistive
d) Eddy current
Ans : (d)

23. Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal?
a) Force
b) Velocity
c) Sound
d) Pressure
Ans : (a)

24. S1: Transducer is a device which converts physical into electrical quantity
S2: Transducer is also called as sensor.
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans (b)

27. In a LVDT, the two secondary voltages
a) Are independent of the core position
b) Vary unequally depending on the core position
c) Vary equally depending on the core position
d) Are always in phase quadrature
Ans : (b)

28. Capacitive transducers are normally employed for___________ measurements
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Transient
d) Both static and dynamic
Ans : (b)

29. Match the following
1. EEG A. Diagnostic tool for heart alignment
2. ECG B. Diagnostic tool for brain alignment
3. Sphygmo-manometer C. Instrument used for measuring blood pressure
4. Stethoscope D. instrument used to hear pulse/heart beat
a) 1- B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
c) 1- C, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – D
d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
Ans : (a)

30. Pick the correct statement regarding functions of a transducer
S1: Sense the magnitude, change in & / or frequency of same measurand
S2: To provide electrical output that furnishes accurate, quantitative data about the measurand
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)

31. The transducers which requires an external power and their output is a measure of some variation such as resistance, inductance, capacitance etc., are called as
a) Active transducer
b) Primary sensor
c) Passive transducer
d) Self generating transducer
Ans : (c)

32. The principle of operation of variable resistance transducer is
a) Deformation leads to change in resistance
b) Displacement of a contact slider on a resistance
c) Coupling of two coils changes with displacement
d) Movement of magnetic field produces variation in resistance of material
Ans : (b)

33. The application of LVDT is
a) Joint motion
b) Finger movement
c) Limb movement
d) Heart wall motion
Ans : (c)

34. Venturi is associated with
a) Venous blood pressure
b) Digital plethysmography
c) Dialysate flow in artificial kidney
d) Blood flow in heart lung machine
Ans : (d)

35. Pressure transducer for measuring blood pressure is
a) Strain gauge transducer only
b) Strain gauge or capacitive transducer
c) Resistive transducer
d) Fiber optic transducer
Ans : (b)

36. The change in resistance of a metal wire owing to strain is due to
S1: Change in dimension of wire expressed by factor (1-2µ)
S2: Change in resistance ??
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (b)

37. In foil strain gauge the thickness of foil varies from
a) 2.5 micron to 6 micron
b) 25 micron (or) less
c) 25 micron to 60 micron
d) 2.5 micron to 5 micron
Ans : (a)
38. Photo conductive cell consists of a thin film of
a) Quartz
b) Lithium sulphate
c) Barium titanate
d) Selenium
Ans : (d)

39. S1: In multimode fiber optics, intensity modulating schemes can be employed.
S2: Schemes using polarizing techniques need birefringent fiber.
a) S1 is true and S2 is false
b) Both S1 and S2 are true
c) S1 is false and S2 is true
d) Both S1 and S2 are false
ans (b)

40. Test electrode is also known as
a) Indicator electrode
b) Reference electrode
c) Second electrode
d) Primary electrode
Ans : (a)

41. Most commonly used indicator electrode is
a) Calomel electrode
b) Silver electrode
c) Silver – Silver chloride electrode
d) Glass electrode
Ans : (d)

42. _____________ is the example of photo emissive cell
a) LDR
b) Photo diode
c) Photo transistor
d) Photo multiplier
Ans : (a)

43. pH value of venous blood is
a) 7.30
b) 7.40
c) 7.35
d) 7.45
Ans : (c)

44. Silver chloride electrode is used as a reference electrode due to its
a) Large half cell potential
b) Stable half cell potential
c) Stable resting potential
d) Stable action potential
Ans : (b)

45. The capacitance microphone is used for the detection of
a) Heart rate
b) Blood flow
c) Heart sound
d) Foot pressure
Ans : (c)
46. In a graded index fiber, the total reflected light takes a ___________
a) Straight line path
b) Parabolic path
c) Elliptical path
d) Circular path
Ans (b)

47. ____________ fiber is used in interferometric instruments.
a) Monomode
b) Multimode
c) Birefringent
d) Coated
Ans (a)

48. Fiber optic sensor can be used to sense _________
a) Displacement
b) Power
c) Current
d) Resistance
Ans (a)

49. Photo multiplier consists of
a) 1 Photo emissive cathode & 2 dynodes
b) 2 Photo emissive cathodes & 2 dynodes
c) 2 Photo emissive cathodes & 1 dynode
d) 1 Photo emissive cathode & 1 dynode
Ans : (a)

50. The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy.
a) Remains unaltered
b) Increases
c) Reaches maximum
d) Decreases
Ans : (d)

Saturday, January 8, 2011

ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Ohm’s law applicable for

(a) linear circuits only

(b) non linear circuits only

(c) both linear and non linear circuits

(d) none of these

Ans: a
2. Unit of current is

(a) Ampere

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) Volt-ampere
Ans: a
3. What is the equivalent resistance when 10 Ohms and 20 Ohms resistors are connected

in series

(a) 35 Ohms

(b) 25 Ohms

(c) 30Ohms

(d) none of these
Ans: c
4. Form factor is defined as the ratio of

(a) Average value to Maximum value

(b) Maximum value to Average value

(c) Peak value to R.M.S Value

(d) R.M.S Value to Average value
Ans: d
5. R.M.S Value of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is

(a) VM/3

(b) VM/2

(c) VM/Ö2

(d) none of these
Ans: c
6. Power factor for resistive load is

(a) Zero

(b) Unity

(c) Infinity

(d) 0.2
Ans: b
7. voltage is a ——quantity

(a) Scalar

(b) Vector

(c) Scalar and Vector

(d) none of these
Ans: b
8. In D.C , Capacitor acts as

(a) Short circuit

(b) Open circuit

(c) either (a)or (b)

(d) none of these
Ans: b
9 In 3 phase star circuit, phase voltage is

(a) VPh =Ö3 VL

(b) VPh = VL /Ö3

(c) VPh = VL

(d) VPh =3 VL
Ans: b
10. In 3 phase delta circuit, line current is

(a) IL =I Ph

(b) IL =2 I Ph

(c) IL =3 I Ph

(d) IL =Ö3 I Ph
Ans:d
11. What is the equivalent resistance when 20Ohms and 20Ohms resistors are

connected in parallel

(a) 45 Ohms

(b) 10Ohms

(c) 54 Ohms

(d) 30Ohms
Ans: b
12. Voltage-Current relationship in resistor element is

(a) In phase

(b) Out of phase

(c) No Relation

(d) constant
Ans:a

13. For high voltage applications which type of 3 phase circuit to be Preferred

(a) Star

(b) Delta

(c) Star or Delta

(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: b
14. What is the unit of Reactive Power

(a) KVA

(b) KW

(c) HP

(d) KVAR
Ans:d
15. R.M.S Value of Half wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is

(a) VM/3

(b) VM/2

(c) VM/Ö2

(d) none of these
Ans: b
16. Current is defined as

(a) Charge/time

(b) Time/charge

(c) power/time

(d) None of these
Ans:a
17. Active elements are

(a) Voltage sources only

(b) Current sources only

(c) Resistors only

(d) Both Voltage and Current sources
Ans: d

18. In Bilateral Network the current flows in

(a) Unidirectional

(b) Bidirectional

(c) Rotational

(d) None of these
Ans: b

19. D.C has

(a) Constant magnitude

(b) Variable magnitude

(c) Fixed Polarities

(d) Constant magnitude and Fixed Polarities
Ans: d

20. In Capacitive circuit, Current flows in the capacitor

(a) i=C (dv/dt)

(b) i=V(dc/dt)

(c) i=C(di/dt)

(d) i=Ct
Ans: a

21. Unit of voltage is

(a) Ampere

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) Volt-ampere
Ans: b

22. Peak factor is defined as the ratio of

(a) Average value to Maximum value

(b) Maximum value to Average value

(c) Peak value to R.M.S Value

(d) R.M.S Value to Average value
Ans: c
23. Average value is

(a) area/period

(b) period/area

(c) length/area

(d) none of these
Ans: a
24. Unit of power is

(a) Ampere

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) joules
Ans:c
25. Unit of apparent power is

(a) Ampere

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) Volt-ampere
Ans:d
26. Unit of energy is

(a) KWH

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) Volt-ampere
Ans:a
27. A.C has

(a) Constant magnitude

(b) Variable magnitude

(c) Fixed Polarities

(d) Constant magnitude and Fixed Polarities
Ans: b

28. Passive elements are

(a) Voltage sources only

(b) Current sources only

(c) Resistors ,inductors and capacitors

(d) Both Voltage and Current sources
Ans: c

29. In D.C , inductor acts as

(a) Short circuit

(b) Open circuit

(c) both (a)&(b)

(d) none of these
Ans: a

30. In Unilateral Network the current flows in

(a) Unidirectional

(b) Bidirectional

(c) Rotational

(d) None of these
Ans: a

31. Workdone is

(a) F.d

(b) E/F

(c) IR

(d) None of these
Ans: a

32. Unit of Resistance is

(a) Ampere

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) ohms
Ans: d

33. Unit of inductance is

(a) Ampere

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) henry
Ans: d

34. Unit of capacitance is

(a) Ampere

(b) farad

(c) Watt

(d) henry
Ans: b

35. For high current applications which type of 3 phase circuit is Preferred

(a) Star

(b) Delta

(c) Star or Delta

(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: a
36. For low voltage applications which type of 3 phase circuit to be Preferred

(a) Star

(b) Delta

(c) Star or Delta

(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: a
37. Unit of charge is

(a) Ampere

(b) coulomb

(c) Watt

(d) henry
Ans: b
38. EMF is

(a) Election motion force

(b) Electrical motion force

(c) Electro motive force

(d) None of these
Ans: c

39. MMF is

(a) Magnetic motive force

(b) Magnetic motion force

(c) Magneto motive force

(d) None of these
Ans: c

40. Voltage-Current relationship in inductor element is

(a) In phase

(b) 90 (lead)

(c) 90 (lag)

(d) constant
Ans: c

41. Voltage-Current relationship in capacitor element is

(a) In phase

(b) 90 (lead)

(c) 90 (lag)

(d) constant
Ans: b

42. When two inductors are connected in series, equivalent inductance is

(a) L1+L2

(b) 1/(L1+L2)

(c) L1.L2

(d) None of these
Ans: a

43. When two capacitors are connected in series, equivalent capacitance is

(a) C1+C2

(b) 1/(C1+C2)

(c) L1.L2

(d) (1/c1)+(1/c2)
Ans: d

44. R.M.S Value of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is

(a) VM/3

(b) VM/2

(c) VM/Ö2

(d) none of these
Ans:c
45. Form factor of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is

(a) 1.21

(b) 1.11

(c) 4.44

(d) none of these
Ans: b
46. Power factor for pure inductor

(a) 0(lead)

(b) 0

(c) 0(lag)

(d) none of these
Ans: c
47. Power factor for pure capacitor

(a) 0(lead)

(b) 0

(c) 0(lag)

(d) none of these
Ans: a
48. Frequency is defined as

(a) No of cycles/sec

(b) time/cycles

(c) 1/cycles

(d) None of these
Ans: a

49. In Series resistive circuit, voltage across each resistor is

(a) divided

(b) constant

(c) no change

(d) None of these
Ans: a

50. In Series resistive circuit current through each resistor is

(a) divided

(b) same

(c) 0

(d) None of these

Ans:b

51. When two inductors are connected in parallel, equivalent inductance is

(a) L1+L2

(b) (1/L1)+(1/L2)

(c) L1.L2

(d) None of these
Ans: b

52. When two capacitors are connected in parallel, equivalent capacitance is

(a) L1+L2

(b) (1/L1)+(1/L2)

(c) C1+C2

(d) None of these
Ans:c

53.A sinusoidal Wave form is

a)sine wave form

b) triangle wave form

c) both(a)&(b)

d)none of these
Ans:a

54. In 3 phase delta circuit, phase voltage is

(a) VPh =Ö3 VL

(b) VPh = VL /Ö3

(c) VPh = VL

(d) VPh =3 VL
Ans: c
55. In 3 phase star, line current is

(a) IL =I Ph

(b) IL =2 I Ph

(c) IL =3 I Ph

(d) IL =Ö3 I Ph
Ans:a
56.Average value of half wave rectified sine waveform is

a) Vm/?

b) 2Vm/?

c) Vm/2

d) none of these
Ans:a

56 Average value of full wave rectified sine waveform is

a) Vm/?

b) 2Vm/?

c) Vm/2

d) none of these
Ans:b

57 Form factor of half wave rectified sine waveform is

a) Vm/?

b) 2Vm/?

c) 1.57

d) none of these
Ans: c

58. Peak factor of half wave rectified sine waveform is

a) Vm/?

b) 2

c) Vm/2

d) none of these
Ans:b

59. Form factor of full wave rectified sine waveform is

a) 1.11

b) 2Vm/?

c) 1.57

d) none of these
Ans:a

60. Peak factor of full wave sinusoidal waveform is

a) Vm/?

b) square root of 2

c) Vm/2

d) none of these
Ans:b

Saturday, December 11, 2010

Electronics Engineering Questions for PSU Recruitment

1. The difference between the number of atoms in a unit cell of a bcc crystal and an fcc crystal is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6

2. If a small amount of Cu is added to a Ni conductor, then the
(a) resistiviy of Ni will decrease at all temperatures because Cu is a better conductor than Ni
(b) residual resistivity of Ni at low temperatures will increase as Cu atoms act as defect centres
(c) resistivity of Ni will increase at all temperatures as Cu destroys the periodicity of Ni and acts as defects
(d) resistivity of Ni remains unaltered as Cu atoms give the same number of free electrons as Ni atoms

3. For the n-type semiconductor with n = NP and p = ni 2/ND the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes
(a) dropback to acceptor impurity states
(b) drop to donor impurity states
(c) virtually leave the crystal
(d) recombine with the electrons

4. Match List I (Magnetic materials) with List II (Dipole arrangement in external field) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I List II

A. Paramagnetic 1. All dipoles are aligned in one preferred direction
B. Ferromagnetic 2. Half of the dipoles are aligned in opposite
direction and have equal magnitudes.
C. Antiferro-magnetic 3. Half of the dipoles (with equal magnitudes) are
aligned in opposite direction to other half having
equal but lower magnitudes.
D. Ferrimagnetic 4. All dipoles have equal magnitudes but are
randomly oriented.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3. 2 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 3 4 1

5. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be
respectively
(a) high and high
(b) low and high
(c) high and low
(d) low and low

6. Match List I (Optical devices) with List II (Electrical/optical characteristics) and select the correct answer using the codes given below Lists:
List I List II
A. LASER 1. Emits monochromatic light of low intensity
B. Solar Cell 2. Consumes electrical power due to the incident light
C. Photo diode 3. Delivers power to a load
D. LED 4. Emits monochromatic light of high intensity
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2

7. Which one of the following is the best definition of a superconductor?
(a) It is a material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
(b) It is a conductor having zero resistance
(c) It is a perfect conductor with highest diamagnetic susceptibility
(d) It is a perfect conductor but becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

8. The ac resistance of a forward-biased p-n junction diode operating at a bias voltage ‘V’ and carrying current ‘I’ is
(a) zero
(b) a constant value independent of V and 1
(c) V/I
(d) delta V/ delta I

9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Drift current 1. Law of conservation of charge
B. Einstein’s equation 2. Electric field
C. Diffusion current 3. Thermal voltage
D. Continuity equation 4. Concentration gradient
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 2 3 4 1

10. Consider the following statements:
If an electric field is applied to an n-type semiconductor bar, the electrons and
holes move in opposite directions due to their opposite charges. The net current is
1. due to both electrons and holes with electrons as majority carriers.
2. the sum of electron and hole currents.
3, the difference between electron and hole current.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 alone
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 alone
(d) 3 alone

11. Consider the following circuit configurations:
1. Common emitter.
2. Common base.
3. Emitter follower
4. Emitter follower using Darlington pair.
The correct sequence in increasing order of the input resistances of these
configurations is
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3
(b) 1, 2, 4, 3
(c) 2,1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4

12. Match List I With List II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
List I List II
(Devices) (Property)
A. Silicon diode 1. High frequency applications
B. Germanium diode 2. Very low reverse bias saturation current
C. LED 3. Low forward bias voltage drop
D. PIN diode 4. Cut-off wavelength

Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 3 4 1

13. The depletion layer across a p+ – n junction lies
(a) mostly in the p+ region
(b) mostly in the n – region
(c) equally in both the p+and n – regions
(d) entirely in the p+ region

14. Match List I (Biasing of the junctions) with List II (Functions) in respect of the BJT and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. E-B junction forward bias and C-B 1. Very low gain amplifier
junction reverse bias
B. Both E-B and C-B junctions forward bias 2. Saturation condition
C. E-B junction reverse bias and C-B 3. High gain amplifier
junction forward bias
D. Both E-B and C-B junctions reverse bias 4. Cut-off condition
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 2 3 4 1

15. Match List I (Structures/characteristics) with List II (Reasons) in respect of JFET and select the correct answer, using the codes given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. n-channel JFET is better than p- 1. Reverse bias increases along the
channel JFET channel
B. Channel is wedge shaped 2. High electric field near the drain
and directed towards source
C. Channel is not completely closed at 3. Low leakage current at the gate
pinch-off terminal
D. Input impedance is high 4. Better frequency performance since Mu(n)>> Mu(p)

Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 3 2 1 4

16. Consider the following statements:
A four-layer PNPN device having two gate leads can be turned on by applying a
1. positive current pulse to the cathode gate.
2. positive current pulse to the anode gate.
3. negative current pulse to the anode gate.
4.’ negative current pulse to the cathode gate.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 alone
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 alone
(d) 2 and 4

17. Almost all resistors are made in a monolithic integrated circuit
(a) during the emitter diffusion
(b) while growing the epitaxial layer
(c) during the base diffusion
(di) during the collector diffusion

Directions:
The following items consist of two statements, one labelled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other, labelled the ‘Reason R’ You are to examine these two statements and decide if the ‘Assertion A’and the ‘Reason R’ are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your Answer Sheet accordingly:
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

18. Assertion (A) : BaTiO3 is a piezoelectric material and is used in a record player.
Reason (R) : In a piezoelectric transducer, stress induces polarization and an electric
field strains the material.

19. Assertion (A) : Hall crystal can be used as a multiplier of two signals.
Reason (R) : Hall voltage is proportional to the currents or voltages applied in
perpendicular directions across the Hall crystal.

20. Assertion (A) : The hybrid pi model of a transistor can be reduced to its h-parameter
model and vice-versa.
Reason (R) : Hybrid pi and h-parameter models are inter-related as both of them
describe the same transistor.

21. Assertion (A) : When light falls at the junction of a p-n photo diode, its P side becomespositive and N side becomes negative.
Reason (R) : When a photo diode is short-circuited, the current in the external circuit
flows from the P-side to the N-side.

22. Assertion (A) : Prescalers are used in digital counters to extend the frequency range.
Reason (R) : Prescalers are simple dividing circuits and as such do not have the
high frequency limitation of digital counters.

23. Assertion (A) : CRTs, used in TV receivers are of electrostatic deflection type and
those used in oscilloscopes are of magnetic deflection type.
Reason (R) : TV receivers need a large screen to view pictures, whereas accuracy
is the main consideration in oscilloscopes.

24. Assertion (A) : Alnico is commonly used for electromagnets.
Reason (R) : Alnico has low hysteresis loss.

25. Assertion (A) The solution of Poisson’s equation is the same as the solution of
Laplace’s equation.
Reason (R) : Laplace’s equation is a special case of Poisson’s equation for source-
free regions.

26. Assertion (A) : The fundamental loop of a linear directed graph contains four twigs
and two links corresponding to a given tree.
Reason (R) : Ina linear directed graph, a link forms a closed loop.

27. Assertion (A) : TI ‘zero-state’ response of a linear constant-parameter continuous-
time system can have components having the ‘natural frequencies of the system.

Reason (R) : The ‘forced frequency components in the response of the state for any
given input may not add up to the given zero initial value of the state.
The ‘natural frequency components may be needed to bridge the gap.

28. In a two-terminal network, the open-circuit voltage measured at the given terminals by an electronic voltmeter is 100 V. A short-circuit current measured at the same terminals by an ammeter of negligible resistance is 5 A. If a load resistor of 80 Ohm is connected at the same terminals, then the current in the load resistor will be
(a) 1A
(b) 1.25A
(c) 6A
(d) 6.25A

29 Consider the following statements:
1. Tellegen’s theorem is applicable to any lumped network.
2. The reciprocity theorem is applicable to linear bilateral networks.
3. Thevenin’s theorem is applicable to two-terminal linear active networks.
4. Norton’s theorem is applicable to two-terminal linear active networks.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) l,2 and 3
(b) 1,2,3 and 4
(c) l,2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

30. The network has 10 nodes and 17 branches. The number of different node pair voltages would be
(a) 7
(b )9
(c) 10
(d) 45

31. Consider the following statements:
A 3-phase balanced supply system is connected to a 3-phase unbalanced load.
Power supplied to t4is load can be measured using
1. two wattmeters.
2. One wattmeter.
3. three wattmeters.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 alone

32.A capacitor used for power factor correction in single-phase circuit decreases
(a) the power factor
(b) the line current
(c) both the line current and the power factor
(d) the line current and increases power factor

33. Consider the following statements:
If a network has an impedance of (i -j) as a specific frequency, the circuit
would consist of series
1. R and C
2. R and L
3. R,L and C
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

34. A network contains only independent current sources and resist6rs. If the values
of all resistors are doubled, the values of the node voltages
(a) will become half
(b) will remain unchanged
(c) will become double
(d) cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors
are known

35. Consider the following statements regarding the fundamental component f1, (t)
of an arbitrary periodic signal f(t):
It is possible for
1. the amplitude of f1 (t) to exceed the peak value of f(t).
2. f1 (t) to be identically zero for a non-zero f(t).
3. the effective value of f 1(t) to exceed the effective value of f(t).
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 alone
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3

36. Two coils have .elf-inductances of 0.09 H and 0.01 H and a mutual inductance of
0.015 H. The coefficient of coupling between the coils is
(a) 0.06
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.05

37. A transmission line having 50 Ohms impedance is terminated in a load of (40 +j
30)Ohms . The VS WR is
(a) j 0.033
(b) 0.8+j 0.6
(c) 1
(d)2

38. A vertical wire of 1 m length carries a current of 1 A at 10MHz. The total radiated
power is nearly
(a) 0.13W
(b) 0.88W
(c) 7.3W
(d) 73W

39. A cavity resonator can be represented by
(a) an LC circuit
(b) an LCR circuit
(c) a lossy inductor
(d) a lossy capacitor

40. The skip distance is
(a) same for each layer
(b) independent of frequency
(c) independent of the state of ionisation
(d) independent of transmitted power

Answers :

1 b
2 c
3 d
4 b
5 c
6 c
7 a
8 d
9 b
10 b
11 c
12 d
13 b
14 b
15 a
16 a
17 a
18 a
19 d
20 a
21 b
22 a
23 d
24 a
25 d
26 d
27 b
28 a
29 b
30 b
31 b
32 d
33 b
34 c
35 a
36 b
37 d
38 d
39 a
40 a

Sunday, December 5, 2010

SAIL ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING QUESTIONS

1.Consider two samples of silicon semiconductor identical in all respects except that one is uniformly doped with1015 cm10-3 donor impurity atoms (Sample A) and the other is non-uniformly doped with donors from one side such that Nd(x) = N0 e -ax (sample B). Let a = 1 hm-1 and N0= 1017 cm-3 . Consider the following sample B.
1. Sample A will not have any current at equilibrium but current will flow out of sample B
2. Both samples will have built-in electric, field
3. Sample A will have zero built-in electric field whereas sample B will have a constant built-in electric field
4. No current will flow at equilibrium from either sample A or sample B
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a)1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

2. Consider the following statements:
The temperature dependence of resistivity of a sample of N-type silicon is based upon carrier concentration and carrier mobility variations with temperature
because
1. the resistivity of silicon increases with temperature.
2. the mobility decreases with temperature
3. the carrier concentration increases with temperature
4. the resistivity of silicon decreases with temperature
Which of these statements are correct?

(a)1,2and3
(b) 2,3and
(c)1 and2
(d) 3and 4

3. The unit of mobility is
(a)m2V-1s-1
(b) mV-1s-1
(c)Vsm-1
(d) Vms-1

4. The Haynes-Shockley experiment enables one to determine the
(a) diffusion coefficient of majority carriers
(b) effective mass of the minority carriers
(c) mobility of the minority carriers
(d) lifetime of the majority carriers

5. The Hall constant in p-Si bar is given by 5 x 103 cm35/Coloumb The hole concentration in the bar is given by
(a) 1.00 x 1015/ cm3
(b) 1.25 x 1015/ cm3
(c) 1.50 x 1015/ cm3
(d) 1.60 x 1015/ cm3 -

6. In an extrinsic semiconductor, the Hall coefficient RH
(a) increases with increase of temperature
(b) decreases with increase of temperature
(c) is independent of the change of temperature
(d) changes with the change of magnetic field

7. Consider a semiconductor bar having square cross-section. Assume that holes drift in the positive x-direction and a magnetic field is applied perpendicular to the direction in which holes drift. The sample will show
(a) a negative resistance in positive y-direction
(b) a positive voltage in positive y-direction
(c) a negative voltage in positive y-direction
(d) a magnetic field in positive y-direction

8. The change in barrier potential of a silicon p-n junction with temperature is
(a)0.025 Volts per degree C
(b) 0.250 Volts per degree C
(c)0.030 Volts per degree C
(d) 0.014 Volts per degree C

9.Moor’s law relates to
(a) speed of operation of bipolar devices
(b) speed of operation of MOS devices
(ç) power rating of MOS devices
(d) level of integration of MOS devices

10. The colour T. V. picture signal is a
(a) single-channel, one-dimensional signal
(b) single-channel, three-dimensional signal
(c) three-channel, one-dimensional signal
(d)three-channel, three-dimensional signal

11 Consider the following statements:
1. Fourier transform is special case of Laplace transform.
2. Region of convergence need not be specified for Fourier transform.
3. Laplace transform is not unique unless the region of convergence is specified.
4. Laplace transform is a special case of Fourier transform.
Which of these statements are correct?
Codes:
(a)2 and 4
(b) 4 and 1
(c)4, 3 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. The units of the spectrum obtained by Fourier transforming the covariance function of a stationary stochastic process is?
(a)power per Hertz
(b) energy per Hertz
(c)power per second
(d) energy per second

13. The maximum power that a 12 V d.c. source with an internal resistance of 20 Ohms can supply to a resistive load is ?
(a)12W
(b) 18W
(c)36W
(d) 48W

14. Consider the following statements associated with the Superposition theorem:
1. It is applicable to d.c. circuits only.
2. It can be used to determine the current in a branch or voltage across a branch.
3. It is applicable to networks consisting of more than one source.
4. It is applicable to networks consisting of linear and bilateral elements.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c)3, 4 and 1
(d) 4, 1 and 2

15. Which one of the following statements is NOT a property of R-L driving point
impedance?
(a) The first critical frequency at the origin is a zero
(b) The last critical frequency is a pole
(c) The impedance at S =infinity is always less than the impedance at S = zero
(d) The slope of the impedance curve is positive at all points

16. In a network containing resistances and reactances the roots of the characteristic
equation give for the circuit
(a)the forced response
(b) the total response
(c)the natural response
(d) the damped response

17. Consider the following:
Energy storage capability of basic passive elements is due to the fact that
1. resistance dissipates energy
2. capacitance stores energy
3. inductance dissipates energy
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 alone
(d) 1 and 2

18. √L/C has the dimension of
(a)time
(b) capacitance
(c)inductance
(d) resistance

19. A network N’ is dual of network N if
(a) both them have same mesh equations
(5) both of them have the same node equations
(c) mesh equations of one are the node equations of the other
(d) KCL and KVL equations are the same

20. The input impedance of a short circuited quarter wave long transmission line is
(a) purely reactive
(b) purely resistive
(c) dependent on the characteristic impedance of the line
(d) none of the above

21. For a wave propagating in an air filled rectangular waveguide
(a) guided wavelength is never less than the free space wavelength
(b) wave impedance is never less than the free space impedance
(c) TEM mode is possible if the dimensions of the waveguide are properly chosen
(d) Propagation constant is always a real quantity

22. Consider the following statements with reference to Brewster angle:
1. For oblique incidence at a boundary, there is no reflected wave when the incident wave is vertically polarized.
2. Brewster angle can occur only at the boundary of a perfect conductor.
3. For a horizontally polarized wave, there is no Brewster angle.
4. When the incident wave is not fully vertically polarized, there will be a reflected component which is horizontally polarized.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a)1,2and3
(b) 2,3and4
(c)3, 4 and 1
(d) 4, 1 and 2

23. When a particular mode is excited in a wave-guide, there appears an extra electric component in the direction of propagation. The resulting mode is
(a) transverse-electric
(b) transverse-magnetic
(c) longitudinal
(d) transverse-electromagnetic

24. The most suitable primary standard for frequency is
(a)Rubidium vapour standard
(b) Quartz standard
(c)Hydrogen maser standard
(d) Caesium beam standard

25. Horizontally mounted moving iron instruments employ
(a)Eddy current damping
(b) Air friction damping
(c)Fluid friction damping
(d) Electromagnetic damping

26. There are four types of controlled sources, namely VC VS, VC CS, CC CS, CC VS.
It is required to select a proper controlled source configuration for interfacing
the output of a high-impedance microphone to a low impedance loudspeaker.
The proper source will be
(a) VC VS (Voltage Controlled Voltage source)
(b) VC CS (Voltage Controlled Current Source)
(c) CC CS (Current Controlled Voltage Source)
(d) CC VS (Current Controlled Voltage Source)

27. Some of the functional building blocks of a measurement system are:
Primary Sensing Element (PSE)
Variable Conservation Element (VCE),or Transducer
Data Transmission Element (DTE)
Variable Manipulation Element (VME)
Data Presentation Element (DPE)

The correct sequntial connection of the functional building blocks for an
electronic pressure gauge will be
(a)PSE, VME, VCE, DPE, DTE
(b) PSE, VCE, VME, DTE, DPE
(c)DTE, DPE, VCE, PSE, VME
(d) PSE. VCE, DTE, DPE, VME

28. According to Guassian statistical analysis, if the confidence level is 0.80, then the values lying outside the confidence interval are
(a)1 in 5
(b) 1 in 10
(c)1 in 20
(d) 8 in 10

29. The true rams. voltmeter employs two thermocouples in order to
(a) prevent drift
(b) increase the accuracy
(c) increase the sensitivity
(d) cancel out the nonlinear effects of first thermocouple

30. A certain oscilloscope with 4cm by 4cm screen has its own sweep output fed to its input. If the x and y sensitivities are same, the oscilloscope will display a
(a) saw-tooth wave
(b) triangle wave
(c)diagonal line
(d) horizontal line

Answers :

1 d
2 b
3 a
4 c
5 b
6 a
7 b
8 a
9 d
10 b
11 d
12 b
13 b
14 b
15 c
16 c
17 d
18 d
19 c
20 d
21 a
22 c
23 b
24 d
25 b
26 a
27 b
28 a
29 d
30 c

Wednesday, November 3, 2010

Electronics engineering Questions

Electronics Engineering Questions For SAIL, GAIL, ONGC, IES & Other Exams

1.Consider two samples of silicon semiconductor identical in all respects except that one is uniformly doped with1015 cm10-3 donor impurity atoms (Sample A) and the other is non-uniformly doped with donors from one side such that Nd(x) = N0 e -ax (sample B). Let a = 1 hm-1 and N0= 1017 cm-3 . Consider the following sample B.
1. Sample A will not have any current at equilibrium but current will flow out of sample B
2. Both samples will have built-in electric, field
3. Sample A will have zero built-in electric field whereas sample B will have a constant built-in electric field
4. No current will flow at equilibrium from either sample A or sample B
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a)1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

2. Consider the following statements:
The temperature dependence of resistivity of a sample of N-type silicon is based upon carrier concentration and carrier mobility variations with temperature
because
1. the resistivity of silicon increases with temperature.
2. the mobility decreases with temperature
3. the carrier concentration increases with temperature
4. the resistivity of silicon decreases with temperature
Which of these statements are correct?

(a)1,2and3
(b) 2,3and
(c)1 and2
(d) 3and 4

3. The unit of mobility is
(a)m2V-1s-1
(b) mV-1s-1
(c)Vsm-1
(d) Vms-1

4. The Haynes-Shockley experiment enables one to determine the
(a) diffusion coefficient of majority carriers
(b) effective mass of the minority carriers
(c) mobility of the minority carriers
(d) lifetime of the majority carriers

5. The Hall constant in p-Si bar is given by 5 x 103 cm35/Coloumb The hole concentration in the bar is given by
(a) 1.00 x 1015/ cm3
(b) 1.25 x 1015/ cm3
(c) 1.50 x 1015/ cm3
(d) 1.60 x 1015/ cm3 -

6. In an extrinsic semiconductor, the Hall coefficient RH
(a) increases with increase of temperature
(b) decreases with increase of temperature
(c) is independent of the change of temperature
(d) changes with the change of magnetic field

7. Consider a semiconductor bar having square cross-section. Assume that holes drift in the positive x-direction and a magnetic field is applied perpendicular to the direction in which holes drift. The sample will show
(a) a negative resistance in positive y-direction
(b) a positive voltage in positive y-direction
(c) a negative voltage in positive y-direction
(d) a magnetic field in positive y-direction

8. The change in barrier potential of a silicon p-n junction with temperature is
(a)0.025 Volts per degree C
(b) 0.250 Volts per degree C
(c)0.030 Volts per degree C
(d) 0.014 Volts per degree C

9.Moor’s law relates to
(a) speed of operation of bipolar devices
(b) speed of operation of MOS devices
(ç) power rating of MOS devices
(d) level of integration of MOS devices

10. The colour T. V. picture signal is a
(a) single-channel, one-dimensional signal
(b) single-channel, three-dimensional signal
(c) three-channel, one-dimensional signal
(d)three-channel, three-dimensional signal

11 Consider the following statements:
1. Fourier transform is special case of Laplace transform.
2. Region of convergence need not be specified for Fourier transform.
3. Laplace transform is not unique unless the region of convergence is specified.
4. Laplace transform is a special case of Fourier transform.
Which of these statements are correct?
Codes:
(a)2 and 4
(b) 4 and 1
(c)4, 3 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. The units of the spectrum obtained by Fourier transforming the covariance function of a stationary stochastic process is?
(a)power per Hertz
(b) energy per Hertz
(c)power per second
(d) energy per second

13. The maximum power that a 12 V d.c. source with an internal resistance of 20 Ohms can supply to a resistive load is ?
(a)12W
(b) 18W
(c)36W
(d) 48W

14. Consider the following statements associated with the Superposition theorem:
1. It is applicable to d.c. circuits only.
2. It can be used to determine the current in a branch or voltage across a branch.
3. It is applicable to networks consisting of more than one source.
4. It is applicable to networks consisting of linear and bilateral elements.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c)3, 4 and 1
(d) 4, 1 and 2

15. Which one of the following statements is NOT a property of R-L driving point
impedance?
(a) The first critical frequency at the origin is a zero
(b) The last critical frequency is a pole
(c) The impedance at S =infinity is always less than the impedance at S = zero
(d) The slope of the impedance curve is positive at all points

16. In a network containing resistances and reactances the roots of the characteristic
equation give for the circuit
(a)the forced response
(b) the total response
(c)the natural response
(d) the damped response

17. Consider the following:
Energy storage capability of basic passive elements is due to the fact that
1. resistance dissipates energy
2. capacitance stores energy
3. inductance dissipates energy
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 alone
(d) 1 and 2

18. √L/C has the dimension of
(a)time
(b) capacitance
(c)inductance
(d) resistance

19. A network N’ is dual of network N if
(a) both them have same mesh equations
(5) both of them have the same node equations
(c) mesh equations of one are the node equations of the other
(d) KCL and KVL equations are the same

20. The input impedance of a short circuited quarter wave long transmission line is
(a) purely reactive
(b) purely resistive
(c) dependent on the characteristic impedance of the line
(d) none of the above

21. For a wave propagating in an air filled rectangular waveguide
(a) guided wavelength is never less than the free space wavelength
(b) wave impedance is never less than the free space impedance
(c) TEM mode is possible if the dimensions of the waveguide are properly chosen
(d) Propagation constant is always a real quantity

22. Consider the following statements with reference to Brewster angle:
1. For oblique incidence at a boundary, there is no reflected wave when the incident wave is vertically polarized.
2. Brewster angle can occur only at the boundary of a perfect conductor.
3. For a horizontally polarized wave, there is no Brewster angle.
4. When the incident wave is not fully vertically polarized, there will be a reflected component which is horizontally polarized.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a)1,2and3
(b) 2,3and4
(c)3, 4 and 1
(d) 4, 1 and 2

23. When a particular mode is excited in a wave-guide, there appears an extra electric component in the direction of propagation. The resulting mode is
(a) transverse-electric
(b) transverse-magnetic
(c) longitudinal
(d) transverse-electromagnetic

24. The most suitable primary standard for frequency is
(a)Rubidium vapour standard
(b) Quartz standard
(c)Hydrogen maser standard
(d) Caesium beam standard

25. Horizontally mounted moving iron instruments employ
(a)Eddy current damping
(b) Air friction damping
(c)Fluid friction damping
(d) Electromagnetic damping

26. There are four types of controlled sources, namely VC VS, VC CS, CC CS, CC VS.
It is required to select a proper controlled source configuration for interfacing
the output of a high-impedance microphone to a low impedance loudspeaker.
The proper source will be
(a) VC VS (Voltage Controlled Voltage source)
(b) VC CS (Voltage Controlled Current Source)
(c) CC CS (Current Controlled Voltage Source)
(d) CC VS (Current Controlled Voltage Source)

27. Some of the functional building blocks of a measurement system are:
Primary Sensing Element (PSE)
Variable Conservation Element (VCE),or Transducer
Data Transmission Element (DTE)
Variable Manipulation Element (VME)
Data Presentation Element (DPE)

The correct sequntial connection of the functional building blocks for an
electronic pressure gauge will be
(a)PSE, VME, VCE, DPE, DTE
(b) PSE, VCE, VME, DTE, DPE
(c)DTE, DPE, VCE, PSE, VME
(d) PSE. VCE, DTE, DPE, VME

28. According to Guassian statistical analysis, if the confidence level is 0.80, then the values lying outside the confidence interval are
(a)1 in 5
(b) 1 in 10
(c)1 in 20
(d) 8 in 10

29. The true rams. voltmeter employs two thermocouples in order to
(a) prevent drift
(b) increase the accuracy
(c) increase the sensitivity
(d) cancel out the nonlinear effects of first thermocouple

30. A certain oscilloscope with 4cm by 4cm screen has its own sweep output fed to its input. If the x and y sensitivities are same, the oscilloscope will display a
(a) saw-tooth wave
(b) triangle wave
(c)diagonal line
(d) horizontal line

Answers :

1 d
2 b
3 a
4 c
5 b
6 a
7 b
8 a
9 d
10 b
11 d
12 b
13 b
14 b
15 c
16 c
17 d
18 d
19 c
20 d
21 a
22 c
23 b
24 d
25 b
26 a
27 b
28 a
29 d
30 c