Sunday, January 29, 2012

APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer- Electrical Solved Paper



Written Exam will be of Duration 2 hours Consists 100 Marks (70 Questions based on Core & 30 Questions on Aptitude).

Booklet-C 
(EXAM HELD ON: 22-01-2012)
 1. Transfer Function of a System in  1/(s+1)(s+2) the impulse response of the System is
A) e-2t  – e-t    B) e-2t  + e-t      C) e-t  + e-2t       D) e-t  – e-2t
2. In a thermal power plant,ash is Collected in
A) Mills     B) hoppers    C) Bunkers    D) Boiler
3. The average life of neutrons after they decay is
A) 1 sec     B) 10 sec    C) 100 sec   D) 1000 sec
4. The Operating time of instantaneous relay is
A) 0.001 sec  B) 0.01 sec   C) 0.1 sec   D) 1 sec
6. Stringing chart is useful for
A) the design of tower   B) the design of insulator String   C) finding the Sag in the Conductor  D) finding the distance between the towers
7. The Self GMD method is used to evaluate
A) inductance   B) capacitance  C) inductance and capacitance   D) resistance
8. The velocity of travelling Wave through a cable of relative permitivity 36 is
A)  3 x 108 m/sec   A)  2 x 108 m/sec   A)  0.5 x 108 m/sec   A)  108 m/sec
9. The Coefficient of reflection for current wave is
A) 1  B) 2  C) -1  D) 0
10. A relay has a rating of 5A, 2.2 sec IDMT and relay setting of 125% TMS =0.6. It is connected to a supply circuit through a C.T. 400/5 ratio. The Fault Current is 4000 A. The operating current of the relay is
A) 6.25 A      B) 5A   C) 8A    D) 2.2 A
12. A single Phase transformer has resistance and reactance of 0.2 pu  and 0.6 pu respectively. Its pu voltage regulation at 0.8 pf lagging would be
A)  0.52   B) 0.42  C) 0.62  D) 0.36
14. A Differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000, CMRR : 80 dB. The common mode gain is given by
A) 1   B) 1/2    C) 2  D) 250
15. An amplifier has input power of 2 microwatts. The Power gain of the amplifier is 60 dB. The Output power will be
A) 2 milliwatts  B) 6 microwatts  C) 2 Watts   D) 120 microwatts
16. The voltage gains of the amplifier with and without feedback are 20 and 100 respectively. The percentage of negative feedback would be
A) 40%   B) 80%   C) 4%  D) 8%
17. For OPAMP in differential configuration, open loop gain is 100000, and differential input voltage is 2 μ V. Power supply for OPAMP is ± 12 V. Then Output voltage will be
A) + 12 V    B) -12 V   C)  0 V  D) 2 μ V
18. A 3-stage ripple counter has Flipflop with propagation delay of 25 nsec and pulse width of strobe input 10 nsec. Then the maximum operating frequency at which counter operates reliably is
A) 16.67 MHz     B) 17.6 MHz    C) 12.67 MHz    D) 11.76 MHz
19. The percent resolution of an 8-bit D/A converter is
A)  0.392   B) 1/256   C) 1/255    D)  (A) and (B) both
20. The Diode used in a clipping circuit has Rf = 25Ω  and Rr = 1 MΩ. The External resistor R is
A) 50 KΩ   B) 5KΩ    C) 1/25 MΩ   D) 25 MΩ
21. Which circuit is used as amplitude comparator?
A) Bistable  B) Monostable  C) Astable   D) Schmitt Trigger
23. An example of a bounded signal is
A) e-4t    B) e2t    C) t     D) et  sint
25. A Transfer function has a Second order denominator and constant gain in the numerator
A) the System has two zeros at the origin    B) the system has two finite zeros   C) the System has two zeros at infinity   D) the System has one zero at infinity
26. A system is linear if and only if it satisfies
A) principle of Superposition   B) principle of Homogeneity    C) both (A) and (B) above   D) neither (A) and (B) above
29. A 200 V dc shunt motor is running at 1000 rpm and drawing a current of 10 A. Its armature winding resistance is 2Ω. It is braked by plugging. The resistance to be connected in series with armature to restrict armature current to 10A, is
A) 32 Ω    B) 36 Ω    C)  38 Ω   D) 40 Ω
30. A transformer has maximum efficiency at 3/4 th of full load. The ratio of its iron loss (pi) and full load copper loss (Pc), is
A) 4/3   B)  16/9   C) 9/16    D) 3/4
33. A single phase fully controlled rectifier has an average output voltage of 200 V when alpha=0 . Its output voltage when alpha = 30o is approximately
A) 200 V     B) 160 V     C) 173 V    D) 183 V
34. A 200 V dc-dc converter is turned ON for 30 μ sec and turned off for 10 μ sec. The output voltage will be
A) 200 V    B) 150 V    C) 175 V   D) 120 V
35. In Single Pulse Modulation used in PWM Inverters, for eliminating third harmonic component in the output voltage , the pulse width should be
A) 600   B) 900   C) 1100   D) 1200
36. The Dynamic resistance of a p-n junction germanium diode at room temperature with current of 1 mA under forward biasing is
A) 100 Ω   B) 13 mΩ    C) 13 Ω   D) 26 Ω
37. Thermal runway is not possible in FET because as temperature of FET increases
A)  mobility increases  B) mobility Decreases  C) drain current decrease  D) transconductance increases
38. The initial value of   f(t), with transform  F(s) = s+1/ (s+2)(s+3)   is
A) 0    B) 1   C) ∞   D) 1/6
39. The two-port parameter h21 is called
A) open-circuit output admittance    B) short-circuit input impedance   C) open-circuit reverse voltage gain  D) short-circuit forward current gain
41 . The impedance of a two-element series circuit is represented by (20-j10) Ω  at a certain frequency. If the frequency is doubled, the new value of impedance is
A) (20-j5) Ω    B) (40-j20) Ω  C)  (10-j10) Ω   D)  (20-j20) Ω
42. A unity feedback control system has forward-path transfer function  G(s) = K/s(s+2) . If the design specification is that the steady-state error due to a unit ramp input is 0.05,the value of K allowed is
A)  20  B) 40  C) 10  D) 80
43. The transfer function of a system has the form G(s) = 200 (s+2)/s(s2+10s+100) . At very high frequencies the Bode gain curve has a slope of
A)  -6 dB/octave   B) -12 dB/octave  C)  6 dB/octave  D) 12 dB/octave
44. A Unity feed-back system has open-loop transfer function GH (s) =  K/ s(s+4)(s+6) , It’s root locus plot intersects the jw axis at
A) ± j 2   B)  ± j 4   C) ± j 8  D) does not intersect the jw axis
45. Auto reclosing used in case of
A) Lightning arrester   B)  bulk oil C.B   C) air blast C.B   D) minimum oil C.B
46. A transmission line has 1 P.U impedance on a base of 11 KV,100 MVA. on a base of 55KV, it will have a P.U impedance of
A) 1 P.U     B)  0.2 P.U       C) 0.02 P.U      D) 0.1 P.U
47. A 50 Hz, 4 pole turboalternator rated at 20 MVA, 13.2 KV has an inertia constant H = 4 KW sec/KVA. The K.E Stored in the rotor at Synchronous speed is
A) 80 KJ       B) 80 MJ        C) 40 MJ       D) 20 MJ
48. The inertia constants of two groups of machines which do not swing together are M1  and  M2. The equivalent inertia constant is
A)  M1 + M2     B)  M1 – M2  if M1 > M2   C) √M1M2     D)   M1 M2 / (M1 + M2)
50. A 36-slot, 4-pole, dc machine has a simplex lap winding with two conductors per slot. The back pitch and front pitch adopted could be respectively
A) 15,13       B) 19,17      C) 21,19   D) 23,21
53. Two Synchronous generators G1, G2 are operating in parallel and are equally sharing KVAR (lag) component of load. To shift part of KVAR from G2  to G1, while keeping terminal voltage fixed, the following action must be done
A)   Raise If1  and lower  If2   B)  Lower If1  and raise  If2    C)  Lower If1  or raise  If2    D)  Raise If1  or lower  If2
APTITUDE SECTION 30 Questions :
71.   H1(x) = 1-x ,0
= 1,  x ≥ 1
= 0, otherwise
H2(x) = -H1(x) for all x
H3(x) = H2(-x) for all x
H4(x) = -H3(x) for all x
How many of the following products are necessarily zero for every value of   “x”?
H1(x) * H3(x) ; H3(x) * H2(x) ; H1(x) * H2(x)
A) 0  B) 1   C) 2  D)  3
73. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 m long and traveling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 sec is
A)  200 m     B)  225 m   C)   245  m    D)  250 m
74. If  “PAPER”  is 11.20, “PENCIL” is 9.83,  what will be the PEN ?
A)  12.80   B)  11.60  C) 1.66  D) 13.8
75. What is the sum of all numbers less than 100 that can be written as the sum of 9 consecutive positive integers?
A)  612   B) 630  C)  702  D) 504
78. X introduces Y saying: “He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of myfather”. How is Y related to X ?
A)  brother    B)  uncle   C)  co-brother   D) brother-in-law
79. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is 17th from the last. What is Ravi’s rank from the start ?
A)  11    B)  15   C) 13    D)   9
80. In a certain code, ‘bi nie pie’ means “some good jokes”;; ‘nie bat lik’ means “some real stories”;; ‘pie lik tol’ means “many good stories”. Which word in the code means ‘jokes’ ?
A)  nie    B)  pie   C)  lik   D)  bi
81. There are five bus stops. A,B,C,D,E at equal intervals. C is not the middle stop and A,E are not terminal stops. C comes twice as many stops before D in upward jpurney as B comes after A. D is the first stop in downward journey. The correct sequence of stops in the downward journey is
A)   ABDCE     B)   CDAEB     C)  DACEB     D)  DEBAC
82. Five persons namely Yasin,Arafat,Rasheed,Ali and Rehman are to be seated in five out of the six seats numbered 1 to 6. The following table provides information about the serial numbers of the seats on which each of the mentioned friends can possibly sit.
Names Yasir Arafat Rasheed Ali Rehman
Seat No. 1 2 or 3 2,3 or 4 4 or 5 5 or 6
If one of the seats numbered 2 or 4 is unocuupied. then the number of different ways five mentioned persons can be seated is
A) 1   B)  2   C) 3  D)  4
83.   If (ABCD)a = D*a^0 + C*a^1 + B*a^2 + A*a^3
(8448)9/(2112)9=(y)3  then  y is
A) 011  B ) 101   C) 110   D) 111
84. Two straight lines can divide a circular disk into a maximum of 4 parts. Likewise, into How many maximum parts can four straight lines divide a circular disk?
A) 11   B) 21    C) 31    D)  41
85. When the numerator of a fraction is increased by 7 and denominator is increased by 13, the resulting number is equivalent to the obrained when numerator decreased by 2 and denominator decreased by 11. The sum of the numerator and denominator is 24. Find the fraction
A)  1/23    B)  7/17   C)  11/13     D)  5/19
86. A test contains 50 questions. Each correct answer fetches 1 mark and wrong answer gets 1/2 mark is deducted. A candidate who wrote the test attempted all the questions and scored 41 marks. Find the number of questions he answered correctly?
A)  46      B) 42     C) 44     D) 48
87. ABC is a three digit number. The sum of its digits is 9. If each of BA and BC are two digit numbers such that BA=BC-3. How many values C can take ?
A)  16    B) 6   C) 26   D) 36
88. The sum of three digit number and numbers formed by reversing its digits is 989. The sum of its digits is 13. Find the middle digit
A)  9    B)  6  C) 4  D) 2
89. An observer 1.6 m tall is 20√3 away from a tower .The angle of elevation from his eye to the top of the tower is 300. The height of the tower is
A) 21.6 m   B) 23.2 m   C) 24.72 m  D) 21.4 m
90. Identify the odd one
A)  heart  B)  liver   C)  nose   D)  kidneys
91.  18, 10, 6, 4, 3,  ?
A)  8   B)   4   C)  3.5   D)  2.5
92. Which makes the best comparison ?
TOMATO : MTOOTA  : : 123412 : ?
A)  312214   B) 123456  C)  321124  D) 213314
93.  My brother is standing 40m South-West of my sister.I am standing 40m South-East of my brither. I am in which direction of my sister?
A)  South  B) West   C)  East   D)  North-East
94. Find the next letters in series : BCZ, DEY, FGK,HIW,_________
A)   JKL    B)   JKV   C)  JKU    D)  JKT
95. Find related word  ;  Conscience : wrong :: Police : _________
A)  thief   B) law   C)  discipline   D) crime
96. A shopkeeper sells one transistor for Rs.840 at a gain of 20% and another for Rs.960 at a loss of 4%. His total loss or gain percent is
A) 5  15/17 %  loss   B)  5  15/17 % gain   C)  6  2/3 % gain    D) 6 2/3 % loss
97. A boatman goes 2Km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1Km along the current in 10min. How long will it take to go 5Km in stationary water ?
A)  40 Minutes    B)  1 hour   C)  1 hr 15 min   D)  1 hr 30 min
98. In how many ways can the letters of the word  LEADER  can be arranged ?
A)  72  B)   144  C)  360   D)  720
99. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together, the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in
A)  81 min    B)  144 min    C) 108 min  D) 192 min
100. If  log 27  = 1.431 , then the value of    log 9 is
A)  0.934      B) 0.954      C) 0.945     D) 0.958


Saturday, January 28, 2012

APTRANSCO AE Exam Model Paper - Telecom Paper










ANSWERS :

1.c 2.d 3.c 4.b 5.c 6. b 7.a 8.d 9.c 10.d 11.c 12.b 13.d 14.b 15.b 16.c 17.b 18.b 19.c 20.b 21.a 22.c 23.b 24.d 25.b 26.a 27.c 28.c 29.b 30.d 31.d 32.c 33.d 34.d 35.a 36.d 37.b 38.c 39.b 40.a 41.a 42.b 43.b 44.c 45.c 46.b 47.d 48.b 49.c 50.b 51.a 52.c 53.c 54.b 55.c 56.c 57.d 58.b 59.d 60.b 61.c 62.d 63.d 64.c 65.c 66.d 67.b 68.a 69.c 70.b 71.c 72.a 73.a 74.a 75.b 76.a 77.b 78.a 79.c 80.a 81.b 82.c 83.b 84.b 85.c 86.c 87.c 88.c 89.a 90.a 91.b 92.a 93.d 94.c 95.c 96.a 97.b 98.a 99.a 100.c


Tuesday, January 10, 2012

SAIL Jr.Assistant Recruitment

SAIL,Steel Authority of India Limited, Central Marketing Organisation is inviting applications from all the eligible & Interested candidates for All India Open Examination for recruitment to the following posts::
Name of the Post ::
  • Junior Assistant (Trainee)
  • Translator
No. of Vacancies :: 35
  • Jr. Assistant (Trainee)-32*
  • Translator (Hindi / English)-3*
Important Dates ::
  • Starting date for submitting online applications :: 31.12.2011
  • Closing date for submitting online applications :: 20.01.2012
Educational Qualification ::
  • (a) Graduation in any discipline from a recognized University with minimum 55% marks
  • (b) Diploma in Computer Application of minimum 1 year duration with proficiency in MS Office Package.
  • (c) Minimum Typing speed of 40 w.p.m. in English on PC.
Age Limit (as on 01.09.2011  ) :: Between 18-28 years
SAIL Selection Process ::
  • Written test
  •  Computer Skill / Computer Typing Test
  •  Interview
Application Fee ::
  • For General / OBC candidates :: Rs. 250/-
  • For SC / ST / PWD Candidates ::  Rs. 50/-
How to Apply :: All eligible & Interested candidates need to apply through online mode only by visiting www.sail.co.in or can apply directly by clicking on below apply online link.

APPLY ONLINE

SAIL DETAILED ADVERTISEMENT 2012

APTRANSCO Assistant Engineer - Electrical Previous Question Papers

Q.1 The two windings of a transformer is
(A)   conductively linked.
(B)  inductively linked.
(C)  not linked at all.
(D)  electrically linked.
Ans : B
 
Q.2 A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load.  Its field current is switched off. The motor will
(A) come to stop.
(B) continue to run at synchronous speed.
(C) continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed.
(D) continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed.
Ans: B
 
Q.3 The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because
(A) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed.
(B) it will fail to start.
(C) it will not develop high starting torque.
(D) all are true.
Ans: A
 
Q.4 The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load speed is about
(A) 50 Hz.
(B)  20 Hz.
(C) 2 Hz.
(D)  Zero.
 Ans: C
 
Q.5 In a stepper motor the angular displacement
(A) can be precisely controlled.
(B) it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller.
(C) the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
(D) it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines.
 Ans: A
Q.6 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is
(A) low at light load only.
(B) low at heavy load only.
(C) low at light and heavy load both.
(D) low at rated load only.
Ans: A
 
Q.7 The generation voltage is usually
(A)  between 11 KV and 33 KV.
(B)  between 132 KV and 400 KV.
(C)  between 400 KV and 700 KV.
(D)  None of the above.
 Ans: A
 
Q.8 When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces
(A)  damping torque.
(B)  eddy current torque.
(C)  torque aiding the developed torque.
(D)  no torque.
Ans: D
 
Q.9 If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be
(A)  A square wave.
(B)  A sine wave.
(C) A triangular wave.
(D)  A pulse wave.
 Ans: A
 
Q.10 In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to
(A)  I
(B) (Ia)2
(C)  1/I
(D) 1/(Ia)2
 Ans: B
 
Q.11 In a 3 – phase induction motor running at slip ‘s’ the mechanical power developed in terms of air gap power
(A) (s-1)Pg
( B) Pg/(1-s)
(C) (1-s)Pg
(D) s.Pg
 Ans: C
 
Q.12  In a 3 – phase induction motor the maximum torque
(A)   is proportional to rotor resistance r2
(B)   does not depend on r2
(C)  is proportional to sqrt(r2)
(D) is proportional to (r2)2
 Ans: B
 
Q.13 In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is 
(A)  stationary w.r.t. armature.
(B)  rotating w.r.t. field.
(C) stationary w.r.t. field.
(D)  rotating w.r.t. brushes.
 Ans: C
 
Q.14 In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at
(A)  unity p.f.
(B)  leading p.f.
(C)  lagging p.f.
(D)  zero p.f. leading.
 Ans: B
 
Q.15 The maximum power in cylindrical and salient pole machines is obtained respectively at load angles of
(A)  900,900
(B) <900,900
(C)   900,>900
(D) 900,<900
Ans: D
 
Q.16 The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz supply.  The secondary output voltage will be
(A)  3.6 V.
(B)  2.5 V.
(C)  3.0 V.
(D)  6.0 V.
Ans: C
 
Q.17 The emf induced in the primary of a transformer
(A)  is in phase with the flux.
(B)  lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
(C)  leads the flux by 90 degree.
(D)  is in phase opposition to that of flux.
Ans: C
 
Q.18 The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady state operation is zero for a
(A) dc machine.
(B)  3 phase induction machine.
(C)   synchronous machine.
(D)  single phase induction machine.
Ans: all options are correct
 
Q.19 The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit through
(A)  slip rings.
(B)  commutator segments.
(C)  solid connections.
(D)  carbon brushes.
 Ans: C
 
Q.20 A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is the
(A)  squirrel cage induction motor.
(B)  wound rotor induction motor.
(C)  synchronous motor.
(D)  DC shunt motor.
Ans: C
 
Q.21 A hysteresis motor
(A)  is not a self-starting motor.
(B)  is a constant speed motor.
(C)  needs dc excitation.
(D)  can not be run in reverse speed.
 Ans: B
 
Q.22 The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is
(A) a dc series motor.
(B)  a dc shunt motor.
(C)  an ac two-phase induction motor.
(D)  an ac series motor.
Ans: B
Q.23 The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the
(A)  operating voltage.                                               (B)  power factor.
(C)  current to be carried.                                          (D)  type of insulation used.Ans: C Q.24 Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is
(A)  electric arc heating                     (B)  induction heating              (C)  electric resistance heating                (D)  dielectric heating
Ans: C
Q.25 A two-winding single phase transformer has a voltage regulation of 4.5% at full-load and unity power-factor.  At full-load and 0.80 power-factor lagging load the voltage regulation will be
(A)  4.5%.           (B)  less than 4.5%.               (C)  more than 4.5%.                     (D)  4.5% or more than 4.5%.
Ans: C
Q.26 In a dc shunt motor the terminal voltage is halved while the torque is kept constant. The resulting approximate variation in speed ” ω” and armature current “Ia‘” will be
(A)  Both ω and Ia are doubled.
(B) ω is constant and Ia is doubled
(C) w is doubled while Ia is halved
(D) w is constant but Ia is halved
Ans: B
 
Q.27  A balanced three-phase, 50 Hz voltage is applied to a 3 phase, 4 pole, induction motor.  When the motor is delivering rated output, the slip is found to be 0.05. The speed of the rotor m.m.f. relative to the rotor structure is
(A) 1500 r.p.m.
(B)  1425 r.p.m.
(C)  25 r.p.m.
(D)  75 r.p.m.
 Ans: D
 
Q.28 An alternator is delivering rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor lagging case. If it is required to deliver rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor leading, the required excitation will be
(A)  less.
(B)  more.
(C)  more or less.
(D)  the same.
Ans: B
 
Q.29  A ceiling fan uses
(A) split-phase motor.
(B) capacitor start and capacitor run motor.
(C) universal motor.
(D) capacitor start motor.
 Ans: D
 
Q.30  A stepper motor is
(A) a dc motor.                 (B)  a single-phase ac motor.            (C)  a multi-phase motor.             (D)  a two phase motor.
Ans: D
 
Q.31  The ‘sheath’ is used in cable to
(A)  provide strength to the cable.
(B)  provide proper insulation.
(C)  prevent the moisture from entering the cable.
(D) avoid chances of rust on strands.
 Ans: A
 
Q.32 The drive motor used in a mixer-grinder is a
(A)  dc motor.            (B)  induction motor.           (C)  synchronous motor.               (D)  universal motor.
Ans: DQ.33  A 1:5 step-up transformer has 120V across the primary and 600 ohms resistance across the secondary.  Assuming 100% efficiency, the primary current equals (A)  0.2 Amp.          (B)  5 Amps.               (C)  10 Amps.          (D)  20 Amps.
Ans: A
Q.34  A dc shunt generator has a speed of 800 rpm when delivering 20 A to the load at the terminal voltage of 220V.  If the same machine is run as a motor it takes a line current of 20A from 220V supply.  The speed of the machine as a motor will be
(A) 800 rpm.             (B)  more than 800 rpm.               (C) less than 800 rpm.       (D)  both higher or lower than 800 rpm.
 Ans: C
 
Q.35  A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 r.p.m. The number of poles of the motor are
(A) 4.                  (B)  6.                      (C)  12.                       (D)  8.
 Ans: A

Thursday, January 5, 2012

IFFCO Graduate Engineer Trainees (GET) Recruitment

Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited
IFFCO Sadan, C-1, Distt.Centre, Saket Place, New Delhi-110017

IFFCO requires Graduate Engineer Trainee (GET) for its existing establishments / subsidiaries / Joint Ventures and future projects anywhere in India or abroad
    1. Graduate Engineer Trainee (GET)
    • Age : 30 Years as on 01.01.2012 relaxable as per rules
    • Qualification : Full Time Bachelor’s Degree in Engineering from recognized university / Institute in the disciplines Chemical, Mechanical, Electrical, Civil. Instrumentation & Electronics.
Last Date for online apply : 18.01.2012

For More Detail and Online Apply, Please visit http://125.19.12.214/IFC/web.nsf/vwleftlinks/News?OpenDocument&Careers