Saturday, March 10, 2012

Indian Railways Centralised Employment Notice No. 01/2012


Indian Railways jobs at http://www.SarkariNaukriBlog.comGovernment of India
Ministry of Railways
Railway Recruitment Board (RRB)

Indian Railways Centralised Employment Notice No. 01/2012



Applications in the prescribed format are invited from eligible Indian Nationals for filling up of various jobs in different Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) and Zonal Railways  and other Railway organisation. Application should be sent directly to the respective RRBs / Zonal Ofifces :
  1. Sr. Section Engineers : 1403 posts of Civil, Mechanical, Electrical and S&T Departments
  2. Junior Engineer : 4784 posts of  Civil, Mechanical, Electrical and S&T Departments
  3. Senior P-Way Supervisor : 160 posts
  4. Chief Depot Material Superintendent : 37 posts
  5. Depot Material Superintendent  : 65 posts

Age : 18-33 years. Relaxation in age as per rules.

Application Fee : Rs.60/- for the OBC candidates only in the form of IPO / DD in favour of Assistant Secretary/Secretary/ Member Secretary/ Chairman of  concerned RRB where candidate wants to apply. No examination fees for SC / ST / Ex-Servicemen / Physically Handicapped / Women / Minorities / Economically backward classes candidates having annual family income less than Rs. 50000/-.

How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send to the Assistant Secretary/ Member Secretary of the concerned RRB where candidate want to apply on or before 09/04/2012. (For candidates of far-flung areas, the last date is 24/04/2012) Candidates can also apply online at respective RRB websites. The envelope containing the application should be clearly super-scribed “Application for the Post/s of ___________Category No./s ________Centralised Employment Notice No. 01/2012 of RRB/ , Community (SC/ST/OBC/PWD/Ex-SM)”.

The detailed advt. is published in the Employment News dated 10/03/2012 and it is also  available at the websites of all the  Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs). The list of all RRB with their website is available at http://rrcb.gov.in/rrbs.html.

Detail of this recruitment is available at http://www.rrbbbs.gov.in/CEN%20No.01-2012.pdf and  details along with application format (online submission also) available at http://www.rrbbbs.gov.in/index.htm

Published for http://www.SarkariNaukriBlog.com
(Click on the Labels below for more similar Jobs)

Friday, March 9, 2012

JPSC Assistant Engineer Recruitment

Jharkhand Public Service Commission (JPSC)

Circular Road, Ranchi - 834001
Applications are invited for following posts of Assistant Engineers from Indian Citizens in Jharkhand :
  • Assistant Engineer (Civil) : 83 posts
  • Assistant Engineer (Mechanical) : 03 posts
  • Assistant Engineer (Electrical) : 06 posts
Pay Scale : Rs.9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs.5400/-
Age : 23-35  years

Application Fee :  Rs 400/- (Rs.200/- of SC/ST of Jharkhand, no fee for PH candidates)  can be deposited through challan in any branch of State Bank of India in Account No. 32214212734.

How to Apply :  Application should be received in JPSC office through registered/ Speed post on the address of Secretary,  Jharkhand Public Service Commission, Circular Road, Ranchi-834001 latest by 5.00 PM on 31/03/2012.

Please visit  http://jpsc.gov.in/applicationform.php for details, application format and bank challan voucher form.

JPSC Junior Engineer Recruitment

Jharkhand Public Service Commission (JPSC)

Circular Road, Ranchi - 834001

Applications are invited for following posts of Junior Engineers from Indian Citizens in Jharkhand :
  • Junior Engineer (Civil) : 1012 posts
  • Junior Engineer (Mechanical) : 122 posts
  • Junior Engineer (Electrical) : 19 posts
Pay Scale : Rs.9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs.4200/-

Age : 23-35  years

Application Fee :  Rs 400/- (Rs.200/- of SC/ST of Jharkhand, no fee for PH candidates)  can be deposited through challan in any branch of State Bank of India in Account No. 32214212734.

How to Apply :  Application should be received in JPSC office through registered/ Speed post on the address of Secretary,  Jharkhand Public Service Commission, Circular Road, Ranchi-834001 latest by 5.00 PM on 31/03/2012.

Please visit  http://jpsc.gov.in/applicationform.php for details, application format and bank challan voucher form.

BrahMos Aerospace for various posts

BrahMos with its unmatched synergic edge continues its march meeting all mission parameters ushering in an ambitious new era of technological advancement. Dynamic professionals in the following fields are beckoned to shoulder responsibilities at its emerging work centres :
  1. General Manager/ AGM 
  2. Dy. General Manager
  3. System Engineers
  4. Senior Assistant 
  5. Technical Supervisors
  6. Technicians
  7. Sr. Executives/ Executives
  8. Senior Assistant/ Assistants
  9. Driver Heavy Vehicles
  10. Stores Attendants 
  11. Research Associates (JRF/SRF/PDF)

Last date of receipt of application : 31.03.2012

For complete advertisement visithttp://www.brahmos.com/career.php?id=22&sid=23

DMRC Executive Trainees Requirement


Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. (DMRC)
A Joint Venture of Govt. of India and Govt. of Delhi
Fire Brigade Lane, Barakhamba Road, New Delhi - 110001, India

Requirement of Executive Trainees in Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Limited (DMRC)  

Applications are invited from young,dynamic and motivated persons of Indian nationality for appoint for following category pf posts in DMRC as Junior executive level : 

  • Executive Trainees : 25 posts (Civil-10, Electrical-8, Signal/Telecom-6, Architect-1), Pay Scale : Rs.20600-46500, Age : 28 years as on 01/01/12, Stipend :  Rs.25000/- p.m .
How to Apply : Apply Online at DMRC website from 05/03/2012 to 30/03/2012 only. Take a printout of the system generated application forma and send it with requisite documents/ photo by ordinary post to  DMRC Limited, Post Bag No. 9, Lodhi Road Post Office, New Delhi - 110003 on or before 04/04/2012.

Please visit http://www.eonlineapply.com/dmrc2/index.aspx for details and apply online.

Wednesday, February 29, 2012

AAI JUNIOR EXECUTIVE RECRUITMENT




Airport Authority of India (AAI)
Rajiv Gandhi Bhawan, Safdarjung Airport, New Delhi - 110003


Airports Authority of India invites applications from the eligible candidates to apply
Online  through AAI’s Website for the posts of Junior Executives :

  • Junior Executive (ATC)  : 200 posts (SC-30, ST-15, OBC-54, UR- 101), Pay Scale : Rs.16400-3%-40500, Age :  27 years as on 01/02/2012 
  • Junior Executive (Electronics)  : 159 posts (SC-22, ST-12, OBC-48, UR-75), Pay Scale : Rs.16400-3%-40500, Age :  27 years as on 01/02/2012 

Application Fee : Through Demand Draft (DD) / Pay Order (PO) - Rs.420/-  for application fee + Rs.20 for processing charges payable in favour of “Airports Authority of India” drawn on any bank and payable at any of the HDFC Branches OR Through Credit/Debit card – Rs.414.34 (Rs.400/- for application fee
+ Rs.14.34 as processing charges).  SC/ST/PWD/Women applicants are exempted from paying the application fee.

How to Apply : Apply Online at AAI website from 28/02/2012 to 30/03/2012.

Further details, please view http://www.aai.aero/employment_news/JE_ATC_Elect2012.pdf and  details along with link to apply Online for the posts of Junior Executives is available at http://203.145.141.162/ors/

Friday, February 17, 2012

Delhi Jal Board (DJB) Junior Engineer (Civil) Recruitment



DJB jobs at http://sarkari-naukri.blogspot.com
Delhi Government
Delhi Jal Board (DJB) 
Office of the Assistant Commissioner (T)
Varunalaya Phase-II, Karol Bagh, New Delhi-110005

Applications are invited from Engineers having Diploma in Civil Engineering or its equivalent OR Degree in Civil Engineering for engagement of Junior Engineer (E&M) in Delhi Jal Board on contractual basis at a fixed monthly remuneration :
  • Junior Engineer (Civil) : 144 posts (UR-75, SC-21, ST-10,OBC-38), Remuneration : Rs.17758/- per month consolidated, Age : 18-27 years.
How to Apply :  Application in the prescribed format  along with attested copies of Certificates with Marks heets and other relevant documents must reach to The Assistant Commissioner (T), Delhi Jal Board, Room No. 212, Varunalaya Phase-II, Karol Bagh, New Delhi-110005 on or before 28/02/2012 upto 4:00 p.m. Candidates can also drop the application in a drop box at reception counter Delhi Jal Board, Varunlaya Phase-II, Karol Bagh, New Delhi-110005

Please visit http://www.delhi.gov.in/wps/wcm/connect/doit_djb/DJB/Home/Latest+News for details and application format.

Delhi Jal Board (DJB) Junior Engineer (Electrical/ Mechanical) Recruitment

Delhi Jal Board (DJB) Junior Engineer (Electrical/ Mechanical) Recruitment



DJB jobs at http://sarkari-naukri.blogspot.com
Delhi Government
Delhi Jal Board (DJB) 
Office of the Assistant Commissioner (T)
Varunalaya Phase-II, Karol Bagh, New Delhi-110005

Applications are invited from Engineers having Diploma in Electrical & Mechanical Engineering or its equivalent for engagement of Junior Engineer (E&M) in Delhi Jal Board on contractual basis at a fixed monthly remuneration :
  • Junior Engineer (Electrical/ Mechanical) : 13 posts (UR-10, SC-3), Remuneration : Rs.17758/- per month consolidated, Age : 18-27 years.
How to Apply :  Application in the prescribed format  along with attested copies of Certificates with Marks heets and other relevant documents must reach to The Assistant Commissioner (T), Delhi Jal Board, Room No. 212, Varunalaya Phase-II, Karol Bagh, New Delhi-110005 on or before 05/03/2012 upto 4:00 p.m. Candidates can also drop the application in a drop box at reception counter Delhi Jal Board, Varunlaya Phase-II, Karol Bagh, New Delhi-110005

Please visit http://www.delhi.gov.in/wps/wcm/connect/doit_djb/DJB/Home/Latest+News for details and application format.

Thursday, February 16, 2012

AP GENCO ASSISTANT ENGINEER 2012 ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING SOLVED PAPER (Written Test conducted on Dt : 22.01.2012)


                                                           

APTRANSCO ASSISTANT ENGINEER (TELECOM) SOLVED PAPER

EXAM HELD ON: 29-01-2012                                                           

APTRANSCO ASSISTANT ENGINEER (ELECTRICAL) SOLVED PAPER

(EXAM HELD ON: 29-01-2012)                                                           

Sunday, January 29, 2012

APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer- Electrical Solved Paper



Written Exam will be of Duration 2 hours Consists 100 Marks (70 Questions based on Core & 30 Questions on Aptitude).

Booklet-C 
(EXAM HELD ON: 22-01-2012)
 1. Transfer Function of a System in  1/(s+1)(s+2) the impulse response of the System is
A) e-2t  – e-t    B) e-2t  + e-t      C) e-t  + e-2t       D) e-t  – e-2t
2. In a thermal power plant,ash is Collected in
A) Mills     B) hoppers    C) Bunkers    D) Boiler
3. The average life of neutrons after they decay is
A) 1 sec     B) 10 sec    C) 100 sec   D) 1000 sec
4. The Operating time of instantaneous relay is
A) 0.001 sec  B) 0.01 sec   C) 0.1 sec   D) 1 sec
6. Stringing chart is useful for
A) the design of tower   B) the design of insulator String   C) finding the Sag in the Conductor  D) finding the distance between the towers
7. The Self GMD method is used to evaluate
A) inductance   B) capacitance  C) inductance and capacitance   D) resistance
8. The velocity of travelling Wave through a cable of relative permitivity 36 is
A)  3 x 108 m/sec   A)  2 x 108 m/sec   A)  0.5 x 108 m/sec   A)  108 m/sec
9. The Coefficient of reflection for current wave is
A) 1  B) 2  C) -1  D) 0
10. A relay has a rating of 5A, 2.2 sec IDMT and relay setting of 125% TMS =0.6. It is connected to a supply circuit through a C.T. 400/5 ratio. The Fault Current is 4000 A. The operating current of the relay is
A) 6.25 A      B) 5A   C) 8A    D) 2.2 A
12. A single Phase transformer has resistance and reactance of 0.2 pu  and 0.6 pu respectively. Its pu voltage regulation at 0.8 pf lagging would be
A)  0.52   B) 0.42  C) 0.62  D) 0.36
14. A Differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000, CMRR : 80 dB. The common mode gain is given by
A) 1   B) 1/2    C) 2  D) 250
15. An amplifier has input power of 2 microwatts. The Power gain of the amplifier is 60 dB. The Output power will be
A) 2 milliwatts  B) 6 microwatts  C) 2 Watts   D) 120 microwatts
16. The voltage gains of the amplifier with and without feedback are 20 and 100 respectively. The percentage of negative feedback would be
A) 40%   B) 80%   C) 4%  D) 8%
17. For OPAMP in differential configuration, open loop gain is 100000, and differential input voltage is 2 μ V. Power supply for OPAMP is ± 12 V. Then Output voltage will be
A) + 12 V    B) -12 V   C)  0 V  D) 2 μ V
18. A 3-stage ripple counter has Flipflop with propagation delay of 25 nsec and pulse width of strobe input 10 nsec. Then the maximum operating frequency at which counter operates reliably is
A) 16.67 MHz     B) 17.6 MHz    C) 12.67 MHz    D) 11.76 MHz
19. The percent resolution of an 8-bit D/A converter is
A)  0.392   B) 1/256   C) 1/255    D)  (A) and (B) both
20. The Diode used in a clipping circuit has Rf = 25Ω  and Rr = 1 MΩ. The External resistor R is
A) 50 KΩ   B) 5KΩ    C) 1/25 MΩ   D) 25 MΩ
21. Which circuit is used as amplitude comparator?
A) Bistable  B) Monostable  C) Astable   D) Schmitt Trigger
23. An example of a bounded signal is
A) e-4t    B) e2t    C) t     D) et  sint
25. A Transfer function has a Second order denominator and constant gain in the numerator
A) the System has two zeros at the origin    B) the system has two finite zeros   C) the System has two zeros at infinity   D) the System has one zero at infinity
26. A system is linear if and only if it satisfies
A) principle of Superposition   B) principle of Homogeneity    C) both (A) and (B) above   D) neither (A) and (B) above
29. A 200 V dc shunt motor is running at 1000 rpm and drawing a current of 10 A. Its armature winding resistance is 2Ω. It is braked by plugging. The resistance to be connected in series with armature to restrict armature current to 10A, is
A) 32 Ω    B) 36 Ω    C)  38 Ω   D) 40 Ω
30. A transformer has maximum efficiency at 3/4 th of full load. The ratio of its iron loss (pi) and full load copper loss (Pc), is
A) 4/3   B)  16/9   C) 9/16    D) 3/4
33. A single phase fully controlled rectifier has an average output voltage of 200 V when alpha=0 . Its output voltage when alpha = 30o is approximately
A) 200 V     B) 160 V     C) 173 V    D) 183 V
34. A 200 V dc-dc converter is turned ON for 30 μ sec and turned off for 10 μ sec. The output voltage will be
A) 200 V    B) 150 V    C) 175 V   D) 120 V
35. In Single Pulse Modulation used in PWM Inverters, for eliminating third harmonic component in the output voltage , the pulse width should be
A) 600   B) 900   C) 1100   D) 1200
36. The Dynamic resistance of a p-n junction germanium diode at room temperature with current of 1 mA under forward biasing is
A) 100 Î©   B) 13 mΩ    C) 13 Î©   D) 26 Ω
37. Thermal runway is not possible in FET because as temperature of FET increases
A)  mobility increases  B) mobility Decreases  C) drain current decrease  D) transconductance increases
38. The initial value of   f(t), with transform  F(s) = s+1/ (s+2)(s+3)   is
A) 0    B) 1   C) ∞   D) 1/6
39. The two-port parameter h21 is called
A) open-circuit output admittance    B) short-circuit input impedance   C) open-circuit reverse voltage gain  D) short-circuit forward current gain
41 . The impedance of a two-element series circuit is represented by (20-j10) Ω  at a certain frequency. If the frequency is doubled, the new value of impedance is
A) (20-j5) Ω    B) (40-j20) Ω  C)  (10-j10) Ω   D)  (20-j20) Ω
42. A unity feedback control system has forward-path transfer function  G(s) = K/s(s+2) . If the design specification is that the steady-state error due to a unit ramp input is 0.05,the value of K allowed is
A)  20  B) 40  C) 10  D) 80
43. The transfer function of a system has the form G(s) = 200 (s+2)/s(s2+10s+100) . At very high frequencies the Bode gain curve has a slope of
A)  -6 dB/octave   B) -12 dB/octave  C)  6 dB/octave  D) 12 dB/octave
44. A Unity feed-back system has open-loop transfer function GH (s) =  K/ s(s+4)(s+6) , It’s root locus plot intersects the jw axis at
A) ± j 2   B)  ± j 4   C) ± j 8  D) does not intersect the jw axis
45. Auto reclosing used in case of
A) Lightning arrester   B)  bulk oil C.B   C) air blast C.B   D) minimum oil C.B
46. A transmission line has 1 P.U impedance on a base of 11 KV,100 MVA. on a base of 55KV, it will have a P.U impedance of
A) 1 P.U     B)  0.2 P.U       C) 0.02 P.U      D) 0.1 P.U
47. A 50 Hz, 4 pole turboalternator rated at 20 MVA, 13.2 KV has an inertia constant H = 4 KW sec/KVA. The K.E Stored in the rotor at Synchronous speed is
A) 80 KJ       B) 80 MJ        C) 40 MJ       D) 20 MJ
48. The inertia constants of two groups of machines which do not swing together are M1  and  M2. The equivalent inertia constant is
A)  M1 + M2     B)  M1 – M2  if M1 > M2   C) √M1M2     D)   M1 M2 / (M1 + M2)
50. A 36-slot, 4-pole, dc machine has a simplex lap winding with two conductors per slot. The back pitch and front pitch adopted could be respectively
A) 15,13       B) 19,17      C) 21,19   D) 23,21
53. Two Synchronous generators G1, G2 are operating in parallel and are equally sharing KVAR (lag) component of load. To shift part of KVAR from G2  to G1, while keeping terminal voltage fixed, the following action must be done
A)   Raise If1  and lower  If2   B)  Lower If1  and raise  If2    C)  Lower If1  or raise  If2    D)  Raise If1  or lower  If2
APTITUDE SECTION 30 Questions :
71.   H1(x) = 1-x ,0
= 1,  x ≥ 1
= 0, otherwise
H2(x) = -H1(x) for all x
H3(x) = H2(-x) for all x
H4(x) = -H3(x) for all x
How many of the following products are necessarily zero for every value of   “x”?
H1(x) * H3(x) ; H3(x) * H2(x) ; H1(x) * H2(x)
A) 0  B) 1   C) 2  D)  3
73. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 m long and traveling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 sec is
A)  200 m     B)  225 m   C)   245  m    D)  250 m
74. If  “PAPER”  is 11.20, “PENCIL” is 9.83,  what will be the PEN ?
A)  12.80   B)  11.60  C) 1.66  D) 13.8
75. What is the sum of all numbers less than 100 that can be written as the sum of 9 consecutive positive integers?
A)  612   B) 630  C)  702  D) 504
78. X introduces Y saying: “He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of myfather”. How is Y related to X ?
A)  brother    B)  uncle   C)  co-brother   D) brother-in-law
79. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is 17th from the last. What is Ravi’s rank from the start ?
A)  11    B)  15   C) 13    D)   9
80. In a certain code, ‘bi nie pie’ means “some good jokes”;; ‘nie bat lik’ means “some real stories”;; ‘pie lik tol’ means “many good stories”. Which word in the code means ‘jokes’ ?
A)  nie    B)  pie   C)  lik   D)  bi
81. There are five bus stops. A,B,C,D,E at equal intervals. C is not the middle stop and A,E are not terminal stops. C comes twice as many stops before D in upward jpurney as B comes after A. D is the first stop in downward journey. The correct sequence of stops in the downward journey is
A)   ABDCE     B)   CDAEB     C)  DACEB     D)  DEBAC
82. Five persons namely Yasin,Arafat,Rasheed,Ali and Rehman are to be seated in five out of the six seats numbered 1 to 6. The following table provides information about the serial numbers of the seats on which each of the mentioned friends can possibly sit.
Names Yasir Arafat Rasheed Ali Rehman
Seat No. 1 2 or 3 2,3 or 4 4 or 5 5 or 6
If one of the seats numbered 2 or 4 is unocuupied. then the number of different ways five mentioned persons can be seated is
A) 1   B)  2   C) 3  D)  4
83.   If (ABCD)a = D*a^0 + C*a^1 + B*a^2 + A*a^3
(8448)9/(2112)9=(y)3  then  y is
A) 011  B ) 101   C) 110   D) 111
84. Two straight lines can divide a circular disk into a maximum of 4 parts. Likewise, into How many maximum parts can four straight lines divide a circular disk?
A) 11   B) 21    C) 31    D)  41
85. When the numerator of a fraction is increased by 7 and denominator is increased by 13, the resulting number is equivalent to the obrained when numerator decreased by 2 and denominator decreased by 11. The sum of the numerator and denominator is 24. Find the fraction
A)  1/23    B)  7/17   C)  11/13     D)  5/19
86. A test contains 50 questions. Each correct answer fetches 1 mark and wrong answer gets 1/2 mark is deducted. A candidate who wrote the test attempted all the questions and scored 41 marks. Find the number of questions he answered correctly?
A)  46      B) 42     C) 44     D) 48
87. ABC is a three digit number. The sum of its digits is 9. If each of BA and BC are two digit numbers such that BA=BC-3. How many values C can take ?
A)  16    B) 6   C) 26   D) 36
88. The sum of three digit number and numbers formed by reversing its digits is 989. The sum of its digits is 13. Find the middle digit
A)  9    B)  6  C) 4  D) 2
89. An observer 1.6 m tall is 20√3 away from a tower .The angle of elevation from his eye to the top of the tower is 300. The height of the tower is
A) 21.6 m   B) 23.2 m   C) 24.72 m  D) 21.4 m
90. Identify the odd one
A)  heart  B)  liver   C)  nose   D)  kidneys
91.  18, 10, 6, 4, 3,  ?
A)  8   B)   4   C)  3.5   D)  2.5
92. Which makes the best comparison ?
TOMATO : MTOOTA  : : 123412 : ?
A)  312214   B) 123456  C)  321124  D) 213314
93.  My brother is standing 40m South-West of my sister.I am standing 40m South-East of my brither. I am in which direction of my sister?
A)  South  B) West   C)  East   D)  North-East
94. Find the next letters in series : BCZ, DEY, FGK,HIW,_________
A)   JKL    B)   JKV   C)  JKU    D)  JKT
95. Find related word  ;  Conscience : wrong :: Police : _________
A)  thief   B) law   C)  discipline   D) crime
96. A shopkeeper sells one transistor for Rs.840 at a gain of 20% and another for Rs.960 at a loss of 4%. His total loss or gain percent is
A) 5  15/17 %  loss   B)  5  15/17 % gain   C)  6  2/3 % gain    D) 6 2/3 % loss
97. A boatman goes 2Km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1Km along the current in 10min. How long will it take to go 5Km in stationary water ?
A)  40 Minutes    B)  1 hour   C)  1 hr 15 min   D)  1 hr 30 min
98. In how many ways can the letters of the word  LEADER  can be arranged ?
A)  72  B)   144  C)  360   D)  720
99. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together, the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in
A)  81 min    B)  144 min    C) 108 min  D) 192 min
100. If  log 27  = 1.431 , then the value of    log 9 is
A)  0.934      B) 0.954      C) 0.945     D) 0.958


Saturday, January 28, 2012

APTRANSCO AE Exam Model Paper - Telecom Paper










ANSWERS :

1.c 2.d 3.c 4.b 5.c 6. b 7.a 8.d 9.c 10.d 11.c 12.b 13.d 14.b 15.b 16.c 17.b 18.b 19.c 20.b 21.a 22.c 23.b 24.d 25.b 26.a 27.c 28.c 29.b 30.d 31.d 32.c 33.d 34.d 35.a 36.d 37.b 38.c 39.b 40.a 41.a 42.b 43.b 44.c 45.c 46.b 47.d 48.b 49.c 50.b 51.a 52.c 53.c 54.b 55.c 56.c 57.d 58.b 59.d 60.b 61.c 62.d 63.d 64.c 65.c 66.d 67.b 68.a 69.c 70.b 71.c 72.a 73.a 74.a 75.b 76.a 77.b 78.a 79.c 80.a 81.b 82.c 83.b 84.b 85.c 86.c 87.c 88.c 89.a 90.a 91.b 92.a 93.d 94.c 95.c 96.a 97.b 98.a 99.a 100.c


Tuesday, January 10, 2012

SAIL Jr.Assistant Recruitment

SAIL,Steel Authority of India Limited, Central Marketing Organisation is inviting applications from all the eligible & Interested candidates for All India Open Examination for recruitment to the following posts::
Name of the Post ::
  • Junior Assistant (Trainee)
  • Translator
No. of Vacancies :: 35
  • Jr. Assistant (Trainee)-32*
  • Translator (Hindi / English)-3*
Important Dates ::
  • Starting date for submitting online applications :: 31.12.2011
  • Closing date for submitting online applications :: 20.01.2012
Educational Qualification ::
  • (a) Graduation in any discipline from a recognized University with minimum 55% marks
  • (b) Diploma in Computer Application of minimum 1 year duration with proficiency in MS Office Package.
  • (c) Minimum Typing speed of 40 w.p.m. in English on PC.
Age Limit (as on 01.09.2011  ) :: Between 18-28 years
SAIL Selection Process ::
  • Written test
  •  Computer Skill / Computer Typing Test
  •  Interview
Application Fee ::
  • For General / OBC candidates :: Rs. 250/-
  • For SC / ST / PWD Candidates ::  Rs. 50/-
How to Apply :: All eligible & Interested candidates need to apply through online mode only by visiting www.sail.co.in or can apply directly by clicking on below apply online link.

APPLY ONLINE

SAIL DETAILED ADVERTISEMENT 2012

APTRANSCO Assistant Engineer - Electrical Previous Question Papers

Q.1 The two windings of a transformer is
(A)   conductively linked.
(B)  inductively linked.
(C)  not linked at all.
(D)  electrically linked.
Ans : B
 
Q.2 A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load.  Its field current is switched off. The motor will
(A) come to stop.
(B) continue to run at synchronous speed.
(C) continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed.
(D) continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed.
Ans: B
 
Q.3 The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because
(A) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed.
(B) it will fail to start.
(C) it will not develop high starting torque.
(D) all are true.
Ans: A
 
Q.4 The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load speed is about
(A) 50 Hz.
(B)  20 Hz.
(C) 2 Hz.
(D)  Zero.
 Ans: C
 
Q.5 In a stepper motor the angular displacement
(A) can be precisely controlled.
(B) it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller.
(C) the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
(D) it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines.
 Ans: A
Q.6 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is
(A) low at light load only.
(B) low at heavy load only.
(C) low at light and heavy load both.
(D) low at rated load only.
Ans: A
 
Q.7 The generation voltage is usually
(A)  between 11 KV and 33 KV.
(B)  between 132 KV and 400 KV.
(C)  between 400 KV and 700 KV.
(D)  None of the above.
 Ans: A
 
Q.8 When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces
(A)  damping torque.
(B)  eddy current torque.
(C)  torque aiding the developed torque.
(D)  no torque.
Ans: D
 
Q.9 If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be
(A)  A square wave.
(B)  A sine wave.
(C) A triangular wave.
(D)  A pulse wave.
 Ans: A
 
Q.10 In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to
(A)  I
(B) (Ia)2
(C)  1/I
(D) 1/(Ia)2
 Ans: B
 
Q.11 In a 3 – phase induction motor running at slip ‘s’ the mechanical power developed in terms of air gap power
(A) (s-1)Pg
( B) Pg/(1-s)
(C) (1-s)Pg
(D) s.Pg
 Ans: C
 
Q.12  In a 3 – phase induction motor the maximum torque
(A)   is proportional to rotor resistance r2
(B)   does not depend on r2
(C)  is proportional to sqrt(r2)
(D) is proportional to (r2)2
 Ans: B
 
Q.13 In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is 
(A)  stationary w.r.t. armature.
(B)  rotating w.r.t. field.
(C) stationary w.r.t. field.
(D)  rotating w.r.t. brushes.
 Ans: C
 
Q.14 In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at
(A)  unity p.f.
(B)  leading p.f.
(C)  lagging p.f.
(D)  zero p.f. leading.
 Ans: B
 
Q.15 The maximum power in cylindrical and salient pole machines is obtained respectively at load angles of
(A)  900,900
(B) <900,900
(C)   900,>900
(D) 900,<900
Ans: D
 
Q.16 The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz supply.  The secondary output voltage will be
(A)  3.6 V.
(B)  2.5 V.
(C)  3.0 V.
(D)  6.0 V.
Ans: C
 
Q.17 The emf induced in the primary of a transformer
(A)  is in phase with the flux.
(B)  lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
(C)  leads the flux by 90 degree.
(D)  is in phase opposition to that of flux.
Ans: C
 
Q.18 The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady state operation is zero for a
(A) dc machine.
(B)  3 phase induction machine.
(C)   synchronous machine.
(D)  single phase induction machine.
Ans: all options are correct
 
Q.19 The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit through
(A)  slip rings.
(B)  commutator segments.
(C)  solid connections.
(D)  carbon brushes.
 Ans: C
 
Q.20 A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is the
(A)  squirrel cage induction motor.
(B)  wound rotor induction motor.
(C)  synchronous motor.
(D)  DC shunt motor.
Ans: C
 
Q.21 A hysteresis motor
(A)  is not a self-starting motor.
(B)  is a constant speed motor.
(C)  needs dc excitation.
(D)  can not be run in reverse speed.
 Ans: B
 
Q.22 The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is
(A) a dc series motor.
(B)  a dc shunt motor.
(C)  an ac two-phase induction motor.
(D)  an ac series motor.
Ans: B
Q.23 The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the
(A)  operating voltage.                                               (B)  power factor.
(C)  current to be carried.                                          (D)  type of insulation used.Ans: C Q.24 Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is
(A)  electric arc heating                     (B)  induction heating              (C)  electric resistance heating                (D)  dielectric heating
Ans: C
Q.25 A two-winding single phase transformer has a voltage regulation of 4.5% at full-load and unity power-factor.  At full-load and 0.80 power-factor lagging load the voltage regulation will be
(A)  4.5%.           (B)  less than 4.5%.               (C)  more than 4.5%.                     (D)  4.5% or more than 4.5%.
Ans: C
Q.26 In a dc shunt motor the terminal voltage is halved while the torque is kept constant. The resulting approximate variation in speed ” ω” and armature current “Ia‘” will be
(A)  Both ω and Ia are doubled.
(B) ω is constant and Ia is doubled
(C) w is doubled while Ia is halved
(D) w is constant but Ia is halved
Ans: B
 
Q.27  A balanced three-phase, 50 Hz voltage is applied to a 3 phase, 4 pole, induction motor.  When the motor is delivering rated output, the slip is found to be 0.05. The speed of the rotor m.m.f. relative to the rotor structure is
(A) 1500 r.p.m.
(B)  1425 r.p.m.
(C)  25 r.p.m.
(D)  75 r.p.m.
 Ans: D
 
Q.28 An alternator is delivering rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor lagging case. If it is required to deliver rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor leading, the required excitation will be
(A)  less.
(B)  more.
(C)  more or less.
(D)  the same.
Ans: B
 
Q.29  A ceiling fan uses
(A) split-phase motor.
(B) capacitor start and capacitor run motor.
(C) universal motor.
(D) capacitor start motor.
 Ans: D
 
Q.30  A stepper motor is
(A) a dc motor.                 (B)  a single-phase ac motor.            (C)  a multi-phase motor.             (D)  a two phase motor.
Ans: D
 
Q.31  The ‘sheath’ is used in cable to
(A)  provide strength to the cable.
(B)  provide proper insulation.
(C)  prevent the moisture from entering the cable.
(D) avoid chances of rust on strands.
 Ans: A
 
Q.32 The drive motor used in a mixer-grinder is a
(A)  dc motor.            (B)  induction motor.           (C)  synchronous motor.               (D)  universal motor.
Ans: DQ.33  A 1:5 step-up transformer has 120V across the primary and 600 ohms resistance across the secondary.  Assuming 100% efficiency, the primary current equals (A)  0.2 Amp.          (B)  5 Amps.               (C)  10 Amps.          (D)  20 Amps.
Ans: A
Q.34  A dc shunt generator has a speed of 800 rpm when delivering 20 A to the load at the terminal voltage of 220V.  If the same machine is run as a motor it takes a line current of 20A from 220V supply.  The speed of the machine as a motor will be
(A) 800 rpm.             (B)  more than 800 rpm.               (C) less than 800 rpm.       (D)  both higher or lower than 800 rpm.
 Ans: C
 
Q.35  A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 r.p.m. The number of poles of the motor are
(A) 4.                  (B)  6.                      (C)  12.                       (D)  8.
 Ans: A

Thursday, January 5, 2012

IFFCO Graduate Engineer Trainees (GET) Recruitment

Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited
IFFCO Sadan, C-1, Distt.Centre, Saket Place, New Delhi-110017

IFFCO requires Graduate Engineer Trainee (GET) for its existing establishments / subsidiaries / Joint Ventures and future projects anywhere in India or abroad
    1. Graduate Engineer Trainee (GET)
    • Age : 30 Years as on 01.01.2012 relaxable as per rules
    • Qualification : Full Time Bachelor’s Degree in Engineering from recognized university / Institute in the disciplines Chemical, Mechanical, Electrical, Civil. Instrumentation & Electronics.
Last Date for online apply : 18.01.2012

For More Detail and Online Apply, Please visit http://125.19.12.214/IFC/web.nsf/vwleftlinks/News?OpenDocument&Careers


Monday, December 19, 2011

APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer AE Recruitment 2012


APGENCO is the largest Power Generating Company of Andhra Pradesh State and is the 3rd largest Power utility (8923.9 MW) in India and has second highest Hydel capacity in the Country want to be the best power utility in the Country and one of the best in the World invites Online applications for the Recruitment of Trainee Assistant Engineer (for Engineering Graduates in Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil).
 
Post: Trainee Assistant Engineer (Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil)
Vacancies: 411 Posts
Pay Scale: Rs.23115 – 35720 
Date of APGENCO Trainee AE Written Test: 22.01.2012
Eligibility Criteria for Trainee Assistant Engineers:
Age Limit: Shall not be more than 34 years as on 01.12.2011.  Upper age limit will be relaxed up to 5 years for SC/ST/BC candidates and 10 years in respect of physically challenged candidates.
Educational Qualifications:
Electrical B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Electrical & Electronics Engineering or equivalent
Mechanical B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Mechanical Engineering or equivalent
Electronics B.E/B.Tech./A.M.I.E., in Electronics & Communication Engineering/ Instrumentation & Controls Engineering/ Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering/ Electronics & Control Engineering/ Instrumentation Engineering/ Electronics Instrumentation & Power/ Power electronics or equivalent
Civil B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Civil Engineering or equivalent
Application Fee: OC Candidates – Rs.500/- & for SC/ ST/ BC/ PWD – Rs.150/-  The applicant should pay the prescribed Registration Fee in any one of the A.P. Online Centers or A.P. Online Portal and obtain the receipt.
How to apply: The candidate has to login to the website http://www.apgenco.gov.in and click on APPLY ONLINE link or directly visit http://apgenco.cgg.gov.in to view detailed notification, user guide and to submit application form.  Online application is accessible from 20.12.2011 to 03.01.2012.

Wednesday, December 14, 2011

APTRANSCO Assistant Engineer Practice Questions

Microprocessors : 
1. Which interrupt has the highest priority?
a) INTR b) TRAP c) RST6.5
2. In 8085 name the 16 bit registers?
a) Stack pointer b) Program counter  c) a & b
3. Which of the following is hardware interrupts?
a) RST5.5, RST6.5, RST7.5 b) INTR, TRAP c) a & b
4. What is the RST for the TRAP?
a) RST5.5 b) RST4.5 c) RST4
5. What are level Triggering interrupts?
a) INTR&TRAP b)RST6.5&RST5.5 c)RST7.5&RST6.5
6. Which interrupt is not level sensitive in 8085?
a) RST6.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt. b) RST7.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt. c) a & b.
7. What are software interrupts?
a) RST 0 – 7 b) RST 5.5 – 7.5 c) INTR, TRAP
8. Which stack is used in 8085?
a) FIFO b) LIFO c) FILO
9.  Why 8085 processor is called an 8 bit processor?
a) Because 8085 processor has 8 bit ALU. b) Because 8085 processor has 8 bit data bus. c) a & b.
10. What is SIM?
a) Select Interrupt Mask b) Sorting Interrupt Mask c) Set Interrupt Mask.
11. RIM is used to check whether, ______
a) The write operation is done or not b) The interrupt is Masked or not c) a & b
12. What is meant by Maskable interrupts? a) An interrupt which can never be turned off. b) An interrupt that can be turned off by the programmer. c) none
13.  In 8086, Example for Non maskable interrupts are
a) Trap b) RST6.5 c) INTR
14. What does microprocessor speed depends on?
a) Clock b) Data bus width c) Address bus width
15. Can ROM be used as stack?
a) Yes b) No c) sometimes yes, sometimes no
16.  Which processor structure is pipelined?
a) all x80 processors b) all x85 processors c) all x86 processors
17. Address line for RST3 is?
a) 0020H b) 0028H c) 0018H
18. In 8086 the overflow flag is set when
a) The sum is more than 16 bits b) Signed numbers go out of their range after an arithmetic operation c) Carry and sign flags are set d) During subtraction
19. The advantage of memory mapped I/O over I/O mapped I/O is,
a) Faster b) Many instructions supporting memory mapped I/O c) Require a bigger address decoder d) All the above
20. BHE  of 8086 microprocessor signal is used to interface the
a) Even bank memory b) Odd bank memory c) I/O d) DMA
21. In 8086 microprocessor the following has the highest priority among all type interrupts.
a) NMI b) DIV 0 c) TYPE 255 d) OVER FLOW
22. In 8086 microprocessor one of the following statements is not true.
a) Coprocessor is interfaced in MAX mode b) Coprocessor is interfaced in MIN mode c) I/O can be interfaced in MAX / MIN mode d) Supports pipelining
23. 8088 microprocessor differs with 8086 microprocessor in
a) Data width on the output b) Address capability c) Support of coprocessor d) Support of MAX / MIN mode
24. Address line for TRAP is?
a) 0023H b) 0024H c) 0033H

ANSWERS:
1 C 1.2 C  1.3 C 1.4 B 1.5 B 1.6 B 1.7 A 1.8 B 1.9 A 1.10 C 1.11 B 1.12 B 1.13 A 1.14 C 1.15 B 1.16 C 1.17 C 1.18 B 1.19 D 1.20 B 1.21 A 1.22 B 1.23 A 1.24 B

Microcontroller :

1. The 8051 microcontroller is of ___pin package as a ______ processor.
a) 30, 1byte b) 20, 1 byte c) 40, 8 bit d) 40, 8 byte
2. The SP is of ___ wide register. And this may be defined anywhere in the ______.
a) 8 byte, on-chip 128 byte RAM. b) 8 bit, on chip 256 byte RAM. c) 16 bit, on-chip 128 byte ROM d) 8 bit, on chip 128 byte RAM.
3. After reset, SP register is initialized to address________.
a) 8H b) 9H c) 7H d) 6H
4. What is the address range of SFR Register bank?
a) 00H-77H b) 40H-80H c) 80H-7FH d) 80H-FFH
5. Which pin of port 3 is has an alternative function as write control signal for external data memory?
a) P3.8 b) P3.3 c) P3.6 d) P3.1
6. What is the Address (SFR) for TCON, SCON, SBUF, PCON and PSW respectively?
a) 88H, 98H, 99H, 87H, 0D0H. b) 98H, 99H, 87H, 88H, 0D0H c) 0D0H, 87H, 88H, 99H, 98H d) 87H, 88H, 0D0H, 98H, 99H
7. Match the following:
1) TCON ——–i) contains status information
2) SBUF ——–ii) timer / counter control register.
3) TMOD——– iii) idle bit, power down bit
4) PSW——– iv) serial data buffer for Tx and Rx.
5) PCON ——-v) timer/ counter modes of operation.
a) 1->ii, 2->iv, 3->v, 4->i, 5->iii.    b) 1->i, 2->v, 3->iv, 4->iii, 5->ii.      c) 1->v, 2->iii, 3->ii, 4->iv, 5->i.     d) 1->iii, 2->ii, 3->i, 4->v, 5->iv.
8. Which of the following is of bit operations? i) SP ii) P2 iii) TMOD iv) SBUF v) IP
a) ii, v only b) ii, iv, v only c) i, v only d) iii, ii only
9. Serial port interrupt is generated, if ____ bits are set
a) IE b) RI, IE c) IP, TI d) RI, TI
10. In 8051 which interrupt has highest priority?
a)IE1 b)TF0 c)IE0 d)TF1
11. Intel 8096 is of ___ bit microcontroller family called as ______.
a) 8, MCS51 b) 16, MCS51  c) 8, MCS96 d) 16, MCS96
12. 8096 has following features fill up the following, i) ____ Register file, ii) ____ I/O Ports iii) ____ architecture.
a) 256 byte, five 8bit, register to register    b) 256 byte, four 8bit, register to register    c) 232 byte, five 8bit, register to register   d) 232 byte, six 8 bit, register to register
13. How many synchronous and asynchronous modes are there in serial port of 8096?
a) 2, 2 respectively    b) 3,1 respectively     c) 1, 3 respectively     d) 1, 2 respectively
14. In 8096 we have _____interrupt sources and _______ interrupt vectors.
a) 18, 8 b) 21, 6 c) 21, 8 d) 16, 8
15. 8096 has ___ general purpose I/O ports, Port 2 includes ______ of the following
i) two quasi-bidirectional I/O lines  ii) two output lines iii) four input lines iv) open drain outputs
a) 4, i, iv         b) 6, ii, iii       c) 4, i,ii,iii       d) 6, i, ii, iv
16. 8096 write-protected mode, no code can write to memory address between __.
a) 2020 to 3FFFH b) 8000 to FFFFH c) 2000 to 3FFFH d) 2020 to 202FH
17. If the __ pin is ___ , then we have the option of using the ____ ROM or EPROM together with _____ memory and devices.
a) EA, high, internal, external b) EA, low, internal, external c) EA, high, external, internal d) EA, low, external, internal
18. In 8096, CCB bit 3 is ____.
a) write strobe mode select b) address valid strobe select c) bus width select d) Internal read control mode
19. In 8096, mode ____ of serial port are ___ modes commonly used for ____ communications.
a) 1, 8bit, single processor    b) 0, 7bit, multiple microcontroller c) 2, 9 bit, multiple processors  d) 3, 8 bit, multiple microcontroller
20. What is the function of watchdog timer?
a) The watchdog Timer is an external timer that resets the system if the software
fails to operate properly.
b) The watchdog Timer is an internal timer that sets the system if the software fails
to operate properly.
c) The watchdog Timer is an internal timer that resets the system if the software fails
to operate properly.
d) None of them
 
ANSWERS:
1 C  2 D  3 C  4 D  5 C  6 A  7 A 8 A 9 D  10 C  11 D  12 C  13 C  14 C  15 C   16 C 17 A  18 B 19 C  20 C