Rites Gurgaon Haryana Recruitment

 

RITES LIMITED
(A Govt. of India Enterprise)


Applications are invited for the following posts on regular and permanent absorption basis in the level of Additional General Manager, Joint General Manager and Deputy General Manager in Mechanical and Electrical disciplines.

Date of closing of submission of Online applications : 25.07.2011

1. Additional General Manager (Mechanical) : 03 Posts , IDA Scale : Rs.
43200;66000/;, Age : Not above 53 years
2. Jt. General Manager (Mechanical) : 05 Posts , IDA Pay Scale : 36600;
62000/; , Age : Not above 50 years
3. Dy. General Manager (Mechanical) : 02 Posts , IDA Pay Scale : Rs. 29100;
54500 , Age : Not above 45 years
4. Jt. General Manager (Electrical) : 01 Post , IDA Pay Scale : Rs. 36600;
62000, Age : Not above 50 years
5. Dy. General Manager (Electrical) : 01 Post , IDA Pay Scale : Rs. 29100;
54500 Age : Not above 45 years


    Candidates fulfilling the criteria may send their applications on the standard
application format available on the RITES website: www.rites.com to Manager (P)/ Rectt., RITES Ltd., RITES Bhawan, Plot No.1, Sector-29, Gurgaon - 122001 (Haryana)
 more detail to click here

National Centre for Biological Sciences JE Recruitment

National Centre for Biological Sciences
(NCBS)
Tata Institute for Fundamental Research
(TIFR)
GKVK , Bellary Road , Bangalore - 560 065
Advertisement No. 04/2011

Applications are invited for the following posts at NCBS, Bangalore.
1. Junior Engineer : 04 Posts

Pay: PB-2 -Rs. 9300 - 34800/- Grade Pay: Rs. 4200/-
Disciplines :
Civil - 01
Instrumentation - 01
Electrical - 02

Age Limit : For Civil & Instrumentation : 31 years (including relaxation) , For Electrical : 28 years for Unreserved & 33 years for ST candidates as on 01.01.2011
Last Date for receiving application : 02.07.2011


See more detail http://www.ncbs.res.in/staff_positions

HLL contract jobs

HLL Lifecare Limited
(Previously Hindustan Latex Limited (HLL))
(A Government of India Enterprise) 
                 

HLL Lifecare Limited, a Mini Ratna Enterprise under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India  is on the look out for dynamic, result oriented, performance driven professionals having good track record  : 

1. Project Manager (Civil) on Fixed Term Contract Consolidated Pay Rs.30000/- 50000/- p.m.
2. Project Engineers (Civil/ Electrical/ Mechanical) on Fixed Term Contract Consolidated Pay Rs. 25000/- 45000/- p.m.
3. Assistant Project Engineers (Civil/ Electrical/ Mechanical) on Fixed Term Contract Consolidated Pay Rs.17000/- 35000/- p.m.
4. Site Supervisors  (Civil/ Electrical) on Fixed Term Contract Consolidated Pay Rs. 12000/- 30000/- p.m.
5. Hindi Assistant
6. Radigrapher Trainees on Stipend Rs. 5000/- / Rs.6000/- for first and second year

How to Apply : Apply Online on or before 06/07/2011 at Lifecare HLL website only.

Please visit  http://careers.lifecarehll.com/  details information and a link to apply online.

Gujarat Water Supply & Sewerage Board Recruitment 2011

Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board
Sector-10-A, Gandhinagar.

The Board requires the following Senior and Middle Level Technical Personnel

1. Executive Engineer(Civil) Class-I : 09 Posts , Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 + Grade pay Rs. 5400 , Age : 28 years

2. Executive Engineer(Mech.) Class-I : 01 Post , Pay Scale :Rs. 9300-34800 Grade pay Rs. 5400, Age : 30 Years

3. Deputy Executive Engineer(Civil) Class-II : 12 Posts , Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 Grade pay Rs. 5400 , Age : 28 Years

4. Deputy Executive Engineer(Mech.) Class-II : 02 Posts , Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 Grade pay Rs. 5400 , Age : 28 Years

5. Assistant Engineer ( Civil) : 213 Posts , Pay Scale : Rs 9300- 34800 Grade pay - 4600. , Age : 28 Years

6. Assistant Engineer (Mech.) : 25 Posts , Pay Scale : Rs 9300- 34800 Grade pay Rs. 4600. , Age : 28 Years

Last Date for receiving application : 15.07.2011

    Interested candidates may download application form from website and send their application along with detailed resume. The envelope should be subscribed as (APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF ....................) along with true copies of all testimonials , so as to reach at Member Secretary, Gujarat Water Supply & Sewerage Board, Jalseva Bhavan,Sector 10-A, Opp: Air force, Gandhinagar-382010

For Further Detail, Application Form, Please Visit http://www.gwssb.org/pdf/Advt-Needs-EE-DEE-AE-22-6-11.pdf

Website : http://www.gwssb.org

SAIL Management Trainee Previous Question Paper

SAIL EXAM PATTERN:
Reasoning – 45 marks
Quantitative Aptitude- 35 marks
General Awareness- 35 marks
English Language- 35 marks
Technical Paper (Engineering )-100 marks.

1. If ‘JANTA’ is coded as ‘26’ and DEPOSIT as ‘52’. How can be the code number for ‘JANTA DEPOSIT SCHEME’?
1. 265276
2. 265213
3. 265287
4. 2652104
2. If SALEM is coded as RZKDL, how can MADRAS be coded?
1. NZESZR
2. LZESZT
3. LZCQZR
4. NBESBT
3. WCYB : AZBX : : ? : CGFE
1. DGEF
2. EFGD
3. EGFD
4. GFDE
4. EXPLOSION : DEBRIS : : ?
1. Train : Car
2. Bruise : Fall
3. Television : Dial
4. Locusts : Holocaust
5. Madness is to brain as paralysis is to
1. arms
2. face
3. body
4. nerves

Directions (Q 6-8): Below are given four statements. On the basis of these statements, answer the following questions.
Statements:
1. Ram and Sham play chess and cards.
2. Sham and Pappu play cards and carom.
3. Pappu and Sudhir play carom and ludo.
4. Ram and Sudhir play ludo and chess.

6. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and carom
1. Ram
2. Sham
3. Pappu
4. Sudhir
7. Name the boy who plays cards, carom and ludo
1. Sudhir
2. Pappu
3. Sham
4. Ram
8. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and ludo
1. Ram
2. Sham
3. Pappu
4. Sudhir
9. Madhubala is taller than Mugdha but shorter than Geeta who is not as tall as Raveena. Sudha is shorter than Geeta but not as short as Mugdha. Who among them is the shortest?
1. Sudha
2. Mugdha
3. Madhubala
4. Data inadequate
10. How many such symbols are there in the following series, which are immediately preceded by an even number and immediately followed by an odd number?
8 4 * 3 5 6 $ 5 8 7 % 9 4 3 # 7 6 2? 3 4 6 ? 3 8 9 4 $ 5 9
1. Three
2. Five
3. Four
4. Six

Directions (Q. 11-13): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences, which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer as:
1. if the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
2. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given.
3. if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
4. if the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts given.
5. if the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
In the overall economy of India, agriculture is the largest sector of economic activity. It plays a crucial role in the country’s economic development by providing food to its people and raw materials to industry. It accounts for the largest share to the national income. The share of the various agricultural commodities, animal husbandry and ancillary activities has been more than 40 percent of the fifties, it actually contributed about half of the national output.

11. Agriculture is the mainstay of Indian economy.
12. The contribution of agricultural sector has decreased in recent years.
13. Agriculture is the only source of income in India.

Directions (Q 14-16): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(1) if only assumption I is implicit.
(2) if only assumption II is implicit.
(3) if either I or II is implicit.
(4) if neither I nor II is implicit.
(5) if both I and II are implicit.
14. STATEMENT:
“Use chlorine tablets for drinking water.” A notice by municipal authority.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. To drink water without using chlorine tablets is hazardous.
II. Municipal authority is providing chlorine tablets.
15. STATEMENT:
If we provide primary education to children of poor families and arrange good attendance in primary schools, then it will be a great achievement in the field of education
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. Children of poor families do not go to good schools.
II. Children of poor families do not go to school regularly.
16. STATEMENT:
Chief Minister has cancelled all his programmes in Allahabad and he has left for capital by air A news.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. These types of news are always in headlines.
II. There is an air-route between Allahabad and capital.

17. In a class of 33, 20 play cricket, 25 play football and 18 play hockey. 15 play both cricket and football, 12 play football and hockey and 10 play cricket and hockey. If each student plays at least one game, how many students play only cricket?
1. 8
2. 6
3. 4
4. 2
18. mn _ m _ nm _ nm _ n
1. mmmm
2. nnnn
3. mnmn
4. nmnm

Directions (Q 19-20): Given below are pairs of events ‘R’ and ‘S’. You have to read both the events ‘R’ and ‘S’ and decide their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in ‘R’ and ‘S’ are true and you will not assume anything beyond the given information in deciding the answer.
Give answer as:
1. If ‘R’ is the effect and ‘S’ is its immediate principal cause.
2. If ‘R’ is the immediate and principal cause and ‘S’ is its effect.
3. If ‘R’ is its effect but ‘S’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
4. If ‘S’ is an effect but ‘R’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
5. None of these
19. Event (R): Private bus operators are making good money these days.
Event (S): Delhi Transport Corporation has increased the fare due to hike in diesel price.
20. Event (R): The price of Personal Computer (PCs) have fallen in recent months.
Event (S): Some school children are showing great interest in learning computer.

Directions (Q 21-22): In this category of questions, a pair of words is given, which is followed by four pairs of words as alternatives. A candidate is required to select the pair in which the words bear the same relationship which each other as the words of the given pair bear or, a third part is given, and you are required to select the fourth part.

21. ‘DCBA’ is related to ‘ZYXW’ in the same way as ‘HGFE’ is related to
1. RSTU
2. VUTS
3. STVU
4. UVST
22. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ?
1. 41
2. 65
3. 56
4. 60
23. CASSOCK is to PRIEST as GRADUATE is to
1. Gown
2. Cap
3. Tie
4. Coat

Directions (Q 24): Make a meaningful word. Use the 2nd, 4th, 6th, 7th letters of the Capitalised word. Indicate the second letter of the so formed new word.
24. SPECULATION
1. A
2. D
3. L
4. P
25. Which does not cope with others in the following?
1. navigator
2. sailor
3. pilot
4. narrator

Directions (Q 26-28): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer as
1. if only conclusion I follows
2. if only conclusion II follows
3. if either I or II follows
4. if neither I nor II follows
5. if both I and II follow
26. STATEMENTS:
1. No table is chair.
2. Some chairs are stools.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tables are not stools.
II. Some stools are not tables.
27. STATEMENTS:
1. All magazines are books.
2. No book is novel.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. No novel is book.
II. No magazine is novel.
28. STATEMENTS:
1. Some tulips are roses.
2. Some roses are daffodils.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tulips are roses.
II. All roses are tulips.

Direction (Q 29-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer as:
1. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
29. Four plays M, N, O and P have been staged on four consecutive days one by one. When play P was staged?
STATEMENT:
I. First play was staged on Friday and immediately after it ‘O’ was staged.
II. There is a gap of one day between N and O.
30. In a certain code language “Pit Lit Nit” means “Red Paint Shirt”. What is the code for “Paint”?
STATEMENT:
I. In that code language “Nit Lit Rit Bit” means “Wash Red Paint Now”.
II. In that code language “Jit Cit Pit” means “Shirt is Dirty”.

31. 23457 + 4236 + 79 = ?
1. 24732
2. 23782
3. 27772
4. 27872
5. None of these

32.
1.

2.

3.
4

5.

33. 145 x 55 + 84 x 35 = ?
1. 10495
2. 10365
3. 10685
4. 10915
5. 10725

34.

1. 325
2. 75
3. 65
4. 13
5. 31

35. % of 1250 99
1. 784
2. 729
3. 576
4. 676
5. 841

36. The greatest 5-digit number which is divisible by 99 is
1. 99999
2. 99990
3. 99909
4. 99099
5. None of these

37. The ratio of 3.5 kg to 280 gm is
1. 2 : 25
2. 4 : 5
3. 25 : 2
4. 5 : 4
5. None of these

38. The compound ratio of 3 : 4, 8 : 15, 25 : 28 is
1. 3 : 28
2. 5 : 14
3. 14 : 5
4. 28 : 3
5. None of these

39. The least among the ratios 5 : 6, 7 : 8, 2 : 3, and 9 : 17 is
1. 5 : 6
2. 7 : 8
3. 2 : 3
4. 9 : 17
5. None of these

40. The ratio of the present ages of father and son is 8 : After 10 years the ratio of their ages would be 2 : the present age of father is
1. 40 years
2. 45 years
3. 50 years
4. 55 years
5. None of these

41. The ratios of pure milk and water in two vessels are respectively 3 : 1 and 7 : If equal quantities of the mixtures of two vessels are mixed together, then the ratio of pure milk and water in the new vessel is
1. 1 : 2
2. 2 : 1
3. 5 : 3
4. 3 : 5
5. None of these

42. 20% of 30% of 20% of Rs. 850 is
1. Rs. 19.40
2. Rs. 9.80
3. Rs. 10.20
4. Rs. 10.80
5. None of these

43. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, the final value of the number
1. does not change
2. decreases by 2%
3. increases by 4%
4. decreases by 4%
5. None of these

44. The entry ticket to a trade fair was increased by 20%. Due to this the umber of visitors was reduced by 10%. The daily money receipts are then increased by
1. 8%
2. 10%
2. 12%
4. 50%
5. None of these

45. The price of sugar is decreased by 10%. To restore to its original, the new price must be increased by
1.

2. 10 %
2. 11%
4.

5. 15%
46. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a purchaser to obtain 5 kg more sugar for Rs. The price of sugar per kilogram before reduction is
1. Rs. 4.50
2. Rs. 5
3. Rs. 5.50
4. Rs. 8
5. None of these

47. The average age of 30 boys in a class is 16 years. The average of the ages of the boys and the teacher is 17 years. The age of teacher is
1. 37 years
2. 39 years
3. 33 years
4. 47 years
5. None of these

48. The average age of 10 students in a group increases by 0.4 years when a girl of age 6 years is replaced by another girl. The age of the new girl is
1. 16.4 yrs
2. 10 yrs
3. 12 yrs
4. 16 yrs
5. 20 yrs

49. The average height of 25 students in a class is 140 cm. five newly admitted students increase the average height by 1 cm. The average height of the set of 5 new student is
1. 146.2 cm
3. 147 cm
3. 145 cm
4. 146 cm
5. 148 cm

50. Nine men went to a hotel. Eight of them spent Rs. 30 each over their meals and the ninth spent Rs. 20 more than the average expenditure or all the nine. The total money spent by them was
1. Rs. 260
2. Rs. 262.50
3. Rs. 290
4. Rs. 292.50
5. None of these

ANSWERS:

1. 4    2. 3   3. 3   4. 3   5. 3   6. 2   7. 2   8. 1   9. 1  10. 2 

11. 1 12. 3 13. 5 14. 5 15. 5 16. 5 17. 4 18. 3 19. 1 20. 3 

21. 2 22. 2 23. 1 24. 3 25. 4 26. 2 27. 5 28. 4 29. 4 30. 4 

31. 3 32. 2 33. 4 34. 4 35. 2 36. 2 37. 3 38. 2 39. 4 40. 1

41. 2 42. 3 43. 4 44. 1 45. 4 46. 2 47. 4 48. 2 49. 4 50. 4

BEML Limited Recruitment

BEML Limited
(A Govt of India Undertaking)
BEML Soudha, 23/1, 4th Main, Sampangirama Nagar, Bangalore-560 027, INDIA
Advt.No.KP/S/16/2011

BEML Limited, is looking for personnel on contract basis in the following disciplines for its Manufacturing Unit at Palakkad: 

• Contract Engineers ( Production/ Quality/ Stores/ Tool Engineering/ Electrical Maintenance / Mechanical Maintenance/ Industrial Engineering)
  • Age: 26 Yrs
  • Pay: Consolidated (For I Year – Rs. 9000 For II Year – Rs. 12000)
• Asst. Officer Planning (On Contract)
  • Age: 26 Yrs
  • Pay: Consolidated (For I Year – Rs. 9000 For II Year – Rs. 12000)
• Purchase Assistants on Contract
  • Age: 25 Yrs
  • Pay: Consolidated (For I Year – Rs. 6000 For II Year – Rs. 7000)

Last Date: 05.07.2011
For Full details visit the link below :
http://www.bemlindia.com/Job_KP_S_16_2011.php

Indian Ordnance Factories Recruitment

Government of India, Ministry of Defence

Department of Defence Production

Indian Ordnance Factories

Ordnance Factory

Raipur, Dehradun 248008

Applications are invited for the following posts:

• Fitter (Inst) Semi Skilled): 30 Posts
• Opt Worker (Semi Skilled): 09 Posts
• Turner (Semi Skilled): 02 Posts
• Machinist (Semi Skilled): 11 Posts 
• Electrician (Semi Skilled): 02 Posts
• Fitter (G) (Semi Skilled): 01 Post

Last Date: 21 days from 11.06.2011 (date of publication in the employment news) i.e. up to 01.07.2011
For Full details visit the link below:
https://sites.google.com/site/currentvacancy/Home/IOF01072011.gif?attredirects=0&d=1

RRB RAILWAY ENGINEERING PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 10 cm
Ans : A
2. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender
(b) Stream turbine
(c) Boiler
(d) Fire box
Ans : B
3. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge
(b) Curves
(c) Branching
(d) Tangents
Ans : B
4. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m
(b) 1.676 m
(c) 0.6096 m
(d) 0.792 m
Ans : B
5. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical
(b) bone shaped
(c) circular
(d) rectangular
Ans : B
6. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C
7. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B
8. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients
(b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds
(d) sharp curves
Ans : C
9. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station
(b) flag station
(c) way side station
(d) junction station
Ans : D
10. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge
(b) direction and gradient
(c) direction
(d) gradient
Ans : C

11. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart
(b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart
(d) Vibro chart
Ans: C
12. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block
( b) section clear system
(c) absolute block
(d) pilot guard system
Ans : C
13. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m
(b) 0.792 m
(c) 1m
(d) 1.676 m
Ans : A
14. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve
(b) Tition curve
(c) Summit curve
(d) Valley curve
Ans : B
15. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track
(b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track
(d) all above
Ans : C
16. An expion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expAnsion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm
(b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm
(d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C
17. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt
(b) Eye bolt
(c) Rag bolt
(d) Fish bolt
Ans : B
18. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient
(b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient
(d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B
19. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D
20. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails
(b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails
(d) Bucking rails
Ans : A
21. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m
(b) 3.35 m
(c) 1.83 m
(d) 2.25 m
Ans : B
22. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m
(b) 183 m
(c) 495 m
(d) 250 m
Ans : A
23. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm
b) 10.16 cm
(c) 3.8 cm
(d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C
24. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km
(b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM
(d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B
25. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient
(b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient
(d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D
26. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system
(b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system
(d) automatic block system
Ans : A
27. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100
(b) 1 in 1000
(c) 1in 200
(d) 1 in 400
Ans : D
28. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus
(b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction
(d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D
29. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 6
Ans : A
30. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway
(b) Underground railway
(c) Railway
(d) Tube railway
Ans : D
31. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg
(b) cm
(c) Kg/cm
(d) kg cm
Ans : B
32. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30
(b) 1 in 10
(c) 1 in 4
(d) 1 in 20
Ans : D
33. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers
(b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers
(d) all above are suitable
Ans : C
34. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard
(b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard
(d) station yard
Ans : C
35. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine
(d) Shunting engine
Ans: B
36. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe
(b) Stud
(c) Heel
(d) Flare
Ans : A

37. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8%
(b) 33.3%
(c) 10%
(d) 20%
Ans : C
38. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D
39. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spAns is known as:
(a) Bridge
(b) Tunnel
(c) Viaduct
(d) Aqueduct
Ans : C
40. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch
(b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar
(d) throw of switch
Ans : B
41. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B
42. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails
(b) Wing rails?
(c) Check rails
(d) Lead rails
Ans : B

43. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C
44. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same
(b) more
(c) low
(d) not comparable
Ans : C
45. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D
46. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals
(b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals
(d) Cab signals
Ans : C
47. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway
(b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway
(d) Railway
Ans : B
48. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates
(b) Spikes
c) Chairs
(d) Anchors
Ans : D
49. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg
(b) 45 kg
(c) 35 kg
(d) 65 kg
Ans : A
50. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line
(b) loop line
(c) main line
d) none are correct
Ans : B

TNPSC RECRUITMENT

Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission (TNPSC) is inviting applications for the recruitment of General Foreman and Technical Assistant vacancies. Eligible candidates can apply for the vacancies as given below:

Vacancies: 13 posts
Name of the posts:
1. General Foreman: 5 posts
Pay scale: Rs.9300-34800+Grade Pay – Rs.4700/-(PB2) (PM)
2. Technical Assistant: 8 posts
Pay scale: Rs.9300-34800+Grade Pay – Rs.4700/-(PB2) (PM).

Age limit: 18 – 35 years as on 01-07-2011, reservation as per rules.

Educational qualification: Degree in Mechanical Engineering or Auto Mobile Engineering or Auto Mobile Technology of any recognized university or institution (OR) Post Diploma in Auto Mobile Engineering of the State Board of Technical Education and Training, Tamil Nadu or of any recognized institution or board.

Application fee: Rs 130/- to be paid only through postal receipt obtained from any on of the post offices or sub post offices.

Selection process: Written test/oral test in the shape of an interview basis.

How to apply: Offline or online.

Online Application Form: Apply online at www.tnpsc.gov.in and send the printout to: Controller of Examinations, Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission, No.1 Greams Road, Chennai–600006.

Offline Application Form: Obtain OMR Application form in specified post offices by paying 30/- or obtain the application form sales counter of TNPSC on all working days till the closing date up to 5.00 pm. And filled in application should be sent to:

Controller of Examinations, Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission, No.1 Greams Road, Chennai–600006.

Dates to note:
Closing date for online submission: 13-06-2011, up to 5.45 PM.
Closing Date of offline submission: 15-06-2011, up to 5.45 PM.
Written Exam: 16-10-2011, 10.00 AM to 1.00 PM.
 

For more details, click on the link:

TNPSC Advertisement

Click here for Online Application Form

RPSC RECRUITMENT

Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC) is issuing a recruitment notification for the recruitment of Assistant Public Prosecutor Gr. II, Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Junior Chemist, Assistant Mining Engineering, Chemist and Assistant Agriculture Officer Vacancies. Interested candidates can apply for the vacancies as below:


Vacancy: 404 posts

Name of the posts:

1. Assistant Agriculture Officer: 231 posts.
   
2. Assistant Engineer (Mechanical): 5 posts
   
3. Assistant Mining Engineering: 7 posts
   
4. Assistant Public Prosecutor Gr. II: 159 posts
   
5. Chemist: 1 post
   
6. Junior Chemist: 1 post
   

Age limit: 21-35 years for Assistant Public Prosecutor Gr. II,

20-37 years for Assistant Engineer (Mechanical) and Junior Chemist,

20-42 years for Assistant Mining Engineering and Chemist,

18-35 years for Assistant Agriculture Officer.

Application fee: Rs 250/- for general candidates, Rs 150/- for OBC non creamy layer and Rs 50/- for SC/ST candidates.

How to apply: Apply online at http://rpsconline.rajasthan.gov.in website on or before 25-06-2011, till 12.00 PM.

Closing date: 25-06-2011, till 12.00 PM.

More details can be available by clicking the following links:

Rajasthan Public Service Commission Recruitment

Online Application Form

ONGC RECRUITMENT

Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC) is inviting applications to recruit various vacancies in Southern Sectors of Chennai, Karaikal and Rajahmundray under Special Recruitment Drive. Qualified candidates can apply online as in the following:
Vacancy: 16 posts
Name of the posts:

1. Jr. Technical Assistant (Chemistry): 2 posts
2. Jr. Technical Assistant (Chemistry): 6 posts
3. Jr. Technical Assistant (Geology): 1 post.
4. Jr. Technical Assistant (Geology): 3 posts
5. Technical Assistant Gd. III (Geophysics): 4 posts

How to apply: Apply online at www.ongcindia.com and after submitted, send the printout to: The Advertiser (ONGC-SS), P.O. Box: 1102, Jayanagar 3rd Block, Bangalore–560011.
ONGC Recruitment Details
Fee Payment Challan
Online Application