PSU EXAMS ELECTRONICS ENGINEETING PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. An example for insulator

a) a.copper

b) aluminium

c) c.plastic

d) none of these

Ans: c

2. An example for semiconductor

a) copper

b) aluminium

c) mica

d) germanium

Ans:d

3. Forbidden gap is

a) gap between conduction band and valance band

b) gap between covalant band and valance band

c) gap between conduction band and energy band

d) none of these

Ans:a

4. In conductor, Forbidden gap is

a) large

b) very large

c) small

d) overlapped

Ans:d

5. In insulator, Forbidden gap is

a) large

b) very large

c) small

d) overlapped

Ans:b

6. In semiconductor, Forbidden gap is

a) small

b) large

c) zero

d) none of these

Ans:a

7. A pure semiconductor is

a) carbon

b) extrinsic semiconductor

c) zero semiconductor

d) intrinsic semiconductor

Ans:d

8.After the valley point UJT acts as

a.transister

b.amplifier

c.contoller

d.forward PN Diode

Ans:d

9.UJT used in

a.pulse generator

b. electric circuit

c.either (a)&(b)

d.none of these

Ans:a

10.Diac is used as

a.triggering device

b. pulse generator

c. amplifier

d.contoller

Ans:a

11.Triac is

a.Two transister device

b.two diodes device

c.two diacs device

d.two SCR device

Ans:d

12.When Gate current is equal to zero,SCR acts as

a.Diode

b.transister

c.PNPN Diode

d.none of these

Ans:c

13..Triac has

a.one terminal

b.two terminal

c.three terminal

d.four terminal

Ans:c

14.Terminals of SCR

a.gate,emitter

b.gate,base.collector

c.anode,cathode,gate

d.none of these

Ans:c

15. A term ‘holding current’ used in

a.Diode

b.transister

c.PNPN Diode

d.SCR

Ans:d

16. A term ‘Zener breakdown voltage’ used in

a.Zener Diode

b.transister

c.PNPN Diode

d.SCR

Ans:a

17.A term ‘intrinsic standoff ratio’ used in

a.Diode

b.UJT

c.PNPN Diode

d.SCR

Ans:b

18. A term ‘latching current’ used in

a.Diode

b.transister

c.PNPN Diode

d.SCR

Ans:d

19.Which one is used as triggering device

a.Diode

b.UJT

c.PNPN Diode

d.none of these

Ans:b

20.SCR is used as

a.pulse generator

b. amplifier

c.contoller

d.none of these

Ans:c

21. Majority carriers of P type material

(a) Electrons

(b) Holes

(c) Protons

(d) None of these

Ans:b

22. Minority carriers of N type material

(a) Electrons

(b) Holes

(c) Protons

(d) None of these

Ans:b

23. Minority carriers of P type material

(a) Electrons

(b) Holes

(c) Protons

(d) None of these

Ans:a

24. Terminals of diode

a.gate,emitter

b.gate,base.collector

c.anode,cathode,

d.none of these

Ans:c

25. Terminals of transistor

a.gate,emitter

b.gate,base.collector

c.anode,cathode,gate

d.base,emitter,collector

Ans:d

26.At room temperature, extrinsic semiconductor is

a)conductor

b)poor conductor

c)partially conductor

d)none of these

Ans:b

27.Which one is trivalent impurity

a)boron

b)antimony

c)silicon

d)none of these

Ans:a

28.Which one is pentavalent impurity

a)boron

b)antimony

c)silicon

d)none of these

Ans:b

29.Resistance of an ideal diode, resistance during reverse biasing

(a) Zero

(b) Unity

(c) Maximum

(d) infinite

Ans:d

30. In CB Configuration of transistor, the output impedance is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) none of these

Ans:a

31. In CB Configuration of transistor, voltage gain is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) none of these

Ans:a

32. In CB Configuration of transistor, current gain is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) almost one

Ans:d

33. In CE Configuration of transistor, the input impedance is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) none of these

Ans:b

34. In CE Configuration of transistor, the output impedance is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) none of these

Ans:b

35. In CC Configuration of transistor, the output impedance is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) none of these

Ans:c

36. An ideal diode resistance has———resistance during forward biasing

(a) Zero

(b) Unity

(c) Maximum

(d) Minimum

Ans:a

37. Transistor is used as

(a) Switch

(b) Amplifier

(c) Both (a) & (b)

(d) None of these

Ans:c

38. Majority carriers of N type material

(a) Electrons

(b) Holes

(c) Protons

(d) None of these

Ans:a

39. Which one is semiconductor

(a) Copper

(b) Mica

(c) Carbon

(d) Silicon

Ans:d

40. Transistor is ———–Device

(a) Bipolar

(b) Unipolar

(c) Constant current

(d) Constant voltage

Ans:a

41. Diode is used as

(a) Regulator

(b) Inverter

(c) Current Regulator

(d) Rectifier

Ans:d

42. Zener diode acts as

(a) Rectifier

(b) Regulator

(c) Inverter

(d) None of these

Ans:b

43. Diode is ———–Device

(a) Bipolar

(b) Unipolar

(c) Constant current

(d) Constant voltage

Ans:b

44. Which one is intrinsic semiconductor

(a) Copper

(b) Mica

(c) Carbon

(d) Silicon

Ans:d

45. Which one is conductor

(a) Copper

(b) Mica

(c) Carbon

(d) Silicon

Ans:a

46. Which one is insulator

(a) Copper

(b) Mica

(c) Carbon

(d) Silicon

Ans:b

47. Ripple factor for half wave rectifier

(a) 1.11

(b) 1.21

(c) 1.5

(d) 0.48

Ans:b

48. Ripple factor for full wave rectifier

(a) 1.11

(b) 1.21

(c) 1.5

(d) 0.48

Ans:d

49. Ripple factor for bridge wave rectifier

(a) 1.11

(b) 1.21

(c) 1.5

(d) 0.48

Ans:d

50. BJT is ———–Device

(a) Bipolar

(b) Unipolar

(c) Constant current

(d) Constant voltage

Ans:a

51. SCR is

(a) un controlled device

(b) Regulator

(c) controlled device

(d) None of these

Ans:c

52. In CB Configuration of transistor, the input impedance is

(a) High

(b) medium

(c) Low

(d) none of these

Ans:c

53. Diac is

(a) Unidirectional device

(b) Bidirectional device

(c) Constant device

(d) None of these

Ans:b

54. Other name of SCR

(a) Transistor

(b) Diode

(c) Thyristor

(d) Resistor

Ans:c

55. UJT terminals are

(a) Base 1,Base 2,Emitter

(b) Base 1, collector,Emitter

(c) Base 1,Base 2,Collector

(d) None of these

Ans:a

56.A term intrinsic standoff ratio used in

(a) diode

(b) transistor

(c) UJT

(d) None of these

Ans:c

57.Which one works on negative resistance region

(a) diode

(b) transistor

(c) UJT

(d) None of these

Ans:c

58.SCR maybe considered as

(a) two diode model

(b) transistor model

(c) two transistor model

(d) None of these

Ans:c

59. Semiconductor is

1. conductor
2. insulator
3. either conductor or insulator
4. none of these

Ans:c

60. An example for conductor

1. copper
2. mica
3. plastic
4. carbon

Ans:a

SSC JUNIOR ENGINEERS (ELECTRICAL) PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. DC output is small due to the diode utilized only one half of transformer secondary in ______ in rectifier.

1. Half
2. Centre – tap
3. Bridge
4. Full wave

Ans. b

2. Output of bridge rectifier is as those of the centre tap circuit.

1. Same
2. Twice
3. Half
4. Four times

Ans. b

3. ______ have universal input.

1. UPS
2. Rectifier
3. regulators
4. SMPS

Ans. d

4. On-line UPS is also called as

1. Power conditioner
2. Line conditioner
3. Line interactive UPS
4. All the above

Ans. d

5. For an ac input and dc output SMPS, first job is to

1. Inversion
2. transformation

c. regulation

d. Rectification

Ans. d

6. SMPS in personal computers work with the rated voltage from

1. 10kV to 240kV
2. 10V to 240V
3. 100V to 240V
4. 100kV to 240kV

Ans. c

7. Ripple factor of half wave rectifier is

a. 1.11

b. 1.21

c. 1.31

d. 1.4

Ans b

8. Ripple factor of full wave rectifier is

a. 1.11

b. 0.48

c. 0.38

d. 1.4

Ans:b

9The lagging power factor of an ac circuit implies that

(a) the current is lagging the applied voltage

(b) the applied voltage is lagging the current

(c) Both current and applied voltage are in phase

(d) None of the about

Ans : a

10. The current in a resistor circuit

(a) Lags the applied voltage

(b) Leads the applied voltage

(c) Is in phase with the applied voltage

(d) None of these

Ans : c

11. The expression for frequency of ac wave can be represented in terms of no of poles P and its speed N by

(a) 120 PN

(b) 120/ PN

(c) PN/120

(d) 120 P/N

Ans : c

12. Two current wave shapes are represented by i1 = I_max sin wt,

i2 = I_max sin (wt + 30). The current wave i1 is

(a) Lagging the current wave i2 by 30 degree

(b) Lagging the current wave i2 by 30 degree

(c) In phase with current wave i2

(d) None of these

Ans : a

13. The leading power factor of ac circuit implies that,

(a) The current leads the applied voltage

(b The current leads the applied voltage

(c) Current and voltage are in phase

(d) None of these

Ans : a

14. The peak value of voltage of full wave rectified sine wave is 300 V, when measured

by a moving iron voltmeter, its value will be

(a) 300 V

(b) 150 V

(c) 95.4 V

(d) None of these

Ans : b

15. A capacitive circuit of 50 µF and of negligible resistance is connected across a

300 V, 50 Hz single phase supply. The rms value of current drawn by the circuit is

(a) 4. 72 A

(b) 6 A

(c) 16. 68 A

(d) 59. 44 A

Ans : a

16. The overall circuit power factor of a RLC series circuit is found to be 0.898 lagging.

the nature of the resultant circuit is

(a) Resistive

(b) Inductive

(c) Capacitive

(d) None of these

Ans : b

17. The term admittance of ac circuit implies

(a) Reciprocal reactance

(b) Reciprocal impedance

(c) Reciprocal resistance

(d) None of these

Ans : b

18. The effect of fringing

(a) Increases the effective gap area

(b) Decreases the effective gap area

(c) Flux density in air gap is constant

(d) None of these

Ans : a

19. Reason for the induction of emf in a circuit is given by

(a) Fleming’s rule

(b) Lenz’s law

(c) Faraday’s first law

(d) Faraday’s second law

Ans : c

20. Magnitude of induced emf generated in a coil is given by

(a) Fleming’s rule

(b) Lenz’s law

(c) Faraday’s first law

(d) Faraday’s second law

Ans : d

21. The frequency of DC current
(a) Equal to voltage magnitude
(b) 0
(c) Double of AC frequency
(d) 50 HZ
Ans : b

22. The current flowing in a purely inductive circuit of 30 mH on application of 230 V,
50 Hz single phase supply is 24.4 A. If the frequency of the applied voltage is
increased to 100 Hz the current flowing in the same circuit will be
(a) 24.4 A
(b) 48.8 A
(c) 12.2 A
(d) 6.1 A
Ans : c

23. Find the total resistance when two 3 Ohm resistances are connected in parallel.
(a) 1.11 ohms
(b) 1.5 ohms
(c) 0.707 ohms
(d) 1.23 ohms
Ans : b

24. Voltage drop in a resistance given by
(a) mmf/reluctance
(b) IR
(c) I/R
(d) VI
Ans : b

25. Off-line converter, SMPS has
a. AC input and dc output
b .DC input and dc output
c. AC input and ac output
d. None
Ans. a

26. Filter circuits are constructed by means of
a. Diode
b. Resistors
c. Transformers
d. Capacitor and inductors

Ans. d

27. Resistance of the diode is decreased when
a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Both forward and reverse biased
d. Either a or b

Ans. a

28. In earlier time is used for voltage regulation.
a. Diode
b. Transistors
c. Vacuum tubes and glow bulbs
d. SMPS

Ans. c

29. is the equipment used during power failure.
a. Rectifier
b. Voltage regulators
c. UPS
d. SMPS

Ans. c

30. Peak factor of the sine wave is equal to
(a) 0.901
(b) 1.414
(c) 1.1
(d) 1.11
Ans :b

31. The amplitude of current of full wave rectified sinusoidal wave is 80 A, its average
value will be
(a) 25.44A
(b) 80A
(c) 40A
(d) 56.56A
Ans : a

32.Find the total current supplied to the lamp rated 100w .when supply voltage is 200 v.
(a) 1.75A
(b) 2A
(c) 0.5A
(d) 1A
(e) Ans : c

33. The power factor of a inductive circuit is
(a) Lagging
(b) Leading
(c) Zero lagging
(d) Unity
Ans : a

34. The power factor of a purely capacitive circuit is always
(a) Lagging
(b) Leading
(c) Unity
(d) Zero lagging
Ans : b

35. The overall circuit power factor of a RLC series circuit is found to be 0.898 lagging. The nature of the resultant circuit is
(a) Resistive
(b) Inductive
(c) Capacitive
(d) None of these
Ans : b

36. The maximum, rms and average value of a periodic current wave form is 100 A,
64.42A and 57.5A, respectively. The peak factor of this wave is
(a) 0.644
(b) 1.552
(c) 1.12
(d) None of these
Ans : b

37. In a parallel resistance circuit
(a) Power is same in all resistance
(b) Current is same in all resistance
(c) Voltage is same in all resistance
(d) Resistances are same
Ans : c

38. Find the total resistance when 2 Ohm and 4 Ohm resistances are in parallel.
(a) 1.33 Ohms
(b) 0.33 Ohms
(c) 2.33 Ohms
(d) 1 Ohm
Ans : a

39. Expression for mmf in terms of field strength is
(a) HI
(b) H/I
(c) HL
(d) H/L
Ans : c

40. is the property of magnetic which opposes the flow of flux through it.
(a) Resistance
(b) MMF
(c) Reluctance
(d) emf
Ans : c

41. is the property of electrical conductor which oppose the flow of current through it
(a) Reluctance
(b) emf
(c) mmf
(d) Resistance
Ans : d

42. Reluctance is expressed in
(a) Ampere Weber
(b) Ohm
(c) Ampere/Weber
(d) Volt/Ampere
Ans : c

43. Reciprocal of reluctance is termed as
(a) Conductance
(b) Permenance
(c) Permeability
(d) None of these
Ans : b

44. Ohm’s law for electric circuit will be
(a) emf= current/resistance
(b) emf= current X resistance
(c) emf= resistance/current
(d) emf= 1/( resistance X current)
Ans : b

45. Ohm’s law for magnetic circuit will be
(a) mmf= flux /resistance
(b) flux= mmf X resistance
(c) reluctance = mmf/ flux
(d) Resistance= mmf X flux
Ans : c

46. When the diode is ____________ biased there is current flow.
a. Forward
b. Reverse
c. Forward and Reverse
d. None of these
Ans. a

47. In half wave rectification the voltage across the load is
a. Pulsating ac
b. Pulsating dc
c. Steady
d. None of these

Ans. b

48. In half wave rectification output is
a. High
b. Very low
c. Low
d. Zero

Ans. c

49. Regulated power supply supplies
a. Constant dc voltage
b. Varying dc voltage
c. Ac voltage
d. Pulsed dc voltage

Ans. a

50. UPS is also known as
a. Switched supply
b. Battery backup
c. Both a and b
d. None of these

Ans. b

51. SMPS means
a. Switched module power supply
b. Switched mode power supply
c. supply mode power source
d. all the above
Ans. b

52. A current of 10A is flowing in series RL circuit, when it is connected across a supply
of 230 V, 50 Hz, its impedance is
(a) 23 ohm
(d) 11. 5 ohm
(c) 46 ohm
(d) 5.75 ohm
Ans : a

53. When two resistances R1,R2are connected in parallel the total resistance will be
(a) R1R2/(R1+R2)
(b) R1+R2/R1R2
(c) R1R2 X R1+R2
(d) R1+R2
Ans : a

54. Unit of inductance is
(a) Weber
(b) Ampere/Weber
(c) Henry
(d) None of these

Ans : c
55. If galvanometer deflects in opposite direction it represents ………………… in circuit.
(a) Current flow
(b) Direction of current changes
(c) Constant current flow
(d) None of these
Ans : b

DRDO ECE 2008 SOLVED PAPER

1.The current I in the given network.
a) 1A b) 3A c) 5A d) 7A

2.For the Delta- Wye transformation in given figure, the value of the resistance R is.
a) 1/3 ohms b) 2/3 ohms c) 3/2 ohms d) 3 ohms

3.In the given network, the Thevenin’s equivalent as seen by the load resistance Rl is
a) V=10 V, R= 2ohms b) V=10V, R=3 ohms c) V=15V, R= 2ohms d) V=15V, R=3 ohms

4.The current I in a series R-L circuit with R=10 ohms and L=20mH is given by i=2sin500t A. If v is the voltage across the R-L combination then i
a) lags v by 45 degree b) is in-phase with v c) leads v by 45 d) lags v by 90

5.In thr given network, the mesh current I and the input impedance seen by the 50 V source, respectively, are
a) 125/13 A and 11/8 ohms b) 150/13 A and 13/8 ohms c) 150/13 A and 11/8 ohms d) 125/13 A and 13/8 ohms

6.A voltage sourcehaving a source impedance Z = R + jX can deliver maximum Average power to a load impedance Z, when
a) Z = R + jX b) Z = R c) Z = jX d) Z = R –jX

7.In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at t=0. Assuming that there is no initial Charge in the capacitor, the current i(t) for t>0 is
a) V/R e^ (-2t/RC) b) V/R e^ (-t/RC) c) V/2R e^ (-2t/RC) d) V/2R e^ (-t/RC)

8.For the circuit in given figure, if e(t) is a ramp signal, the steady state value of the Output voltage v(t) is
a) 0 b) LC c) R/L d) RC

9.For the series RLC circuit in given figure, if w=1000 rad/sec, then the current I (in Amperes) is
a) 2 ∟-15 b) 2 ∟15 c) √2∟-15 d) √2∟15

10.The Y-parameter matrix (mA/V) of the two-port given network is
a) [2 -1 -1 2] b) [2 1 -1 2] c) [1 -2 -1 2] d) [2 1 1 2]

11.The maximum number of trees of the given graph is
a) 16 b) 25 c) 100 d) 125

12.Given figure shows a graph and one of its trees. Corresponding to the tree, the group of branches that CAN NOT constitute a fundamental cut set is
a) 1,2,3 b) 1,4,6,8,3 c) 5,6,8,3 d) 4,6,7,3

13.The Y-parameter matrix of a network is given by Y=[1 1 -1 1] A/V. The Z11 parameter of the same network is
a) ½ ohms b) 1/√2 ohms c) 1 ohms d) 2 ohms

14.For the given circuit, the switch was kept closed for a long time before opening it at t=0. The voltage v(0+) is
a) -10 V b) -1 V c) 0V d) 10 V

15.The input impedance of a series RLC circuit operating at frequency W=√2w, w being the resonant frequency, is
a) R-j(wL/√2) ohms b) R+j(wL/√2) ohms c) R-j√2wL ohms d) R-j√2wL ohms

16.The threshold voltage V is negative for
a) an n-channel enhancement MOSFET b) an n-channel depletion MOSFET c) an p-channel depletion MOSFET d) an p-channel JFET

17.At a given temperature, a semiconductor with intrinsic carrier concentration ni= 10 ^ 16 / m^3 is doped with a donor dopant of concentration Nd = 10 ^ 26 /m^3. Temperature remaining the same, the hole concentration in the doped semiconductor is
a) 10 ^ 26 /m^3 b) 10 ^ 16 /m^3 c) 10 ^ 14 /m^3 d) 10 ^ 6 /m^3}

18.At room temperature, the diffusion and drift constants for holes in a P-type semiconductor were measured to be Dp = 10 cm^2/s and µp = 1200 cm^2/V-s, respectively. If the diffusion constant of electrons in an N-type semiconductor at the same temperature is Dn = 20 cm^2/s, the drift constant for electrons in it is
a) µn = 2400 cm^2/V-s b) µn = 1200 cm^2/V-s c) µn = 1000 cm^2/V-s d) µn = 600 cm^2/V-s

19.A common LED is made up of
a) intrinsic semiconductor b) direct semiconductor c) degenerate semiconductor d) indirect semiconductor

20.When operating as a voltage regulator, the breakdown in a Zener diode occurs due to the
a) tunneling effect b) avalanche breakdown c) impact ionization d) excess heating of the junction.

21.If the common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98, its common emitter DC current gain is
a) 51 b) 49 c) 1 d) 0.02

22.Negative resistance characteristics is exhibited by a
a) Zener diode b) Schottky diode c) photo diode d) Tunnel diode

23.Let En and Ep, respectively, represent the effective Fermi levels for electrons and holes during current conduction in a semiconductor. For lasing to occur in a P-N junction of band-gap energy 1.2 eV, (En - Ep) should be
a) greater than 1.2eV b) less than 1.2eV c) equal to 1.1eV d) equal to 0.7eV

24.In a P-well fabrication process, the substrate is
a) N-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
b) P-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
c) N-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET
d) P-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET

25.In a MOS capacitor with n-type silicon substrate, the Fermi potential ¢ = -0.41 V and the flat-band voltage Vfb = 0V. The value of the threshold voltage Vt is
a) -0.82 V b) -0.41 V c) 0.41 V d) 0.82

Refer given figure for question 26 and 27. Assume D1 and D2 to be ideal diodes.
26.Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Both D1 and D2 are ON.
b) Both D1 and D2 are OFF.
c) D1 is ON and D2 is OFF.
d) D2 is ON and D1 is OFF.

27.Values of Vo and I, respectively, are
a) 2V and 1.1 mA b) 0V and 0 mA c) -2V and 0.7 mA d) 4V and 1.3 mA

28.In a BJT CASCODE pair, a
a) common emitter follows a common base
b) common base follows a common collector
c) common collector follows a common base
d) common base follows a common emitter

29.Inside a 741 op-amp, the last functional block is a
a) differential amplifier b) level shifter c) class-A power amplifier d) class-AB power amplifier

30.For the MOSFET in the given circuit, the threshold voltage Vt = 0.5V, the process parameter KP = 150 µA/V^2 and W/L = 10. The values of Vd and Id, respectively, are
a) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 1 mA
b) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 0.5 mA
c) Vd = 4.8 V and Id = 0.4 mA
d) Vd = 6 V and Id = 0 mA
31.A negative feedback is applied to an amplifier with the feedback voltage proportional to the output current. This feedback increases the
a) input impedance of the amplifier b) output impedance of the amplifier c) distortion in the amplifier d) gain of the amplifier
32.The early effect in a BJT is modeled by the small signal parameter
a) r0 b) r∏ c) gm d) β
33.For a given filter order, which one of the following type of filters has the least amount of ripple both in pass-band and stop-band?
a) Chebyshev type I b) Bessel c) Chebyshev type II d) Elliptic
34.For a practical feedback circuit to have sustained oscillation, the most appropriate value of the loop gain T is
a) 1 b) -1 c) -1.02 d) 1.02
35.Assume the op-amps in given figure to be ideal. If the input signal vi is a sinusoid of 2V peak-to-peak and with zero DC component, the output signal vo is a
a) sine wave b) square wave c) pulse train d) triangular wave
36.In a common source amplifier, the mid-band voltage gain is 40 dB and the upper cutoff frequency is 150kHz. Assuming single pole approximation for the amplifier the unity gain frequency fT is
a) 6 MHz b) 15 MHz c) 150 MHz d) 1.5 GHz
37.An op-amp is ideal except for finite gain and CMRR. Given the open loop differential gain Ad=2000, CMRR = 1000, the input to the noninverting terminal is 5.002 V and the input to the inverting terminal is 4.999 V, the output voltage of the op-amp is

a) 14 V b) 24 V c) -6 V c) -8 V

38.The op-amp in the circuit in given figure has a non-zero DC offset. The steady state value of the output voltage Vo is
a) –RC dvs(t)/ dt b) – (1/RC)|vs(t)dt c) –V d) +V

39.For the circuit in given figure, if the value of the capacitor C is doubled, the duty-cycle of the output waveform Vo
a) increases by a factor of 2 b) increases by a factor of 1.44 c) remains constant d) decreases by a factor of 1.44

40.Assume the op-amp in the given circuit to be ideal. The value of the output voltage Vo is
a) 3.2 Vi b) 4 Vi c) 9 Vi d) 10 Vi

41.The complement of the Boolean expression F = (X + Y¯ + Z)(X¯ + Z¯)(X + Y) is
a) XYZ+XZ¯+Y¯Z b) X¯YZ¯+XZ+X¯Y¯ c) X¯YZ¯+XZ+YZ d) XYZ+X¯Y¯

42.The Boolean function F(A,B,C,D) = ∑(0,6,8,13,14) with don’t care conditions d(A,B,C,D) = ∑(2,4,10) can be simplified to
a) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ b) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯D c) F = AB¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ d) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABCD

43.The Boolean function F = A¯D¯+B¯D can be realized by one of the following figures

44. For the multiplexer in given figure, the Boolean expression for the output Y is
a) A¯B¯+B¯C¯+AC b) AB¯+B¯C¯+AC¯ c) AB¯+B¯C+AC d) A¯B¯+B¯C+A¯C

45. Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) Both latch and flip-flop are edge triggered.
b) A latch is level triggered and a flip-flop is edge triggered.
c) A latch is edge triggered and a flip-flop is level triggered.
d) Both latch and flip-flop are level triggered.

46. In a schottky TTL gate, the Schottky diode
e) increases the propagation delay
f) increases the power consumption
g) prevents saturation of the output transistor
h) keeps the transistor in cutoff region

47. For which one of the following ultraviolet light is used to erase the stored contents
a) PROM b) EPROM c) EEPROM d) PLA

48. Which one of the following is NOT a synchronous counter
a) Johnson counter b) Ring counter c) Ripple counter d) Up-down counter

49. In 8085 microprocessor, the accumulator is a
a) 4 bit register b) 8 bit register c) 16 bit register d) 32 bit register
50. In the register indirect addressing mode of 8085 microprocessor, data is stored
a) at the address contained in the register pair
b) in the register pair
c) in the accumulator
d) in a fixed location of the memory

51. The output w[n] of the system shown in given figure is
a) x[n] b) x[n-1] c) x[n] – x[n-1] d) 0.5(x[n-1] + x[n])

52. Which one of the following is a periodic signal
a) x(t) = 2 e^j(t+(π/4)) b) x[n] = u[n] + u[-n] c) x[n] = ∑{∂[n-4k]-∂[n-1-4k]} where k = -∞to ∞ d) x(t) = e^ (-1+j)t

53. If the input-output relation of a system is y(t) = ∫x(t) dt where t = -∞ to 2t
a) linear, time-invariant and unstable
b) linear, non-causal and unstable
c) linear, causal and time invariant
d) non-causal, time invariant and unstable

54. Which one of the can be the magnitude of the transfer function | H(jw) | of a causal system

55. Consider the function H(jw) = H1(w) + jH2(w), where H1(w) is an odd function and H2(w) is an even function. The inverse Fourier transform of H(jw) is
a) a real and odd function
b) a complex function
c) a purely imaginary function
d) a purely imaginary and odd function

56. The laplace transform of given signal is
a) –A((1-e^cs)/s) b) A((1-e^cs)/s) c) A((1-e^-cs)/s) d) –A((1-e^-cs)/s)

57. If X(z) is the z-transform of x[n] = (1/2)^ |n|, the ROC of X(z) is
a) |z| > 2 b) |z| <>

58. In a linear phase system, τg the group delay and τp the phase delay are
a) constant and equal to each other b) τg is a constant and τp is proportional to w c) a constant and τg is proportional to w d) τg is proportional to w and τp is proportional to w

59. A signal m(t), band-limited to a maximum frequency of 20 kHz is sampled at a frequency fs kHz to generate s(t). An ideal low pass filter having cut-off frequency 37 kHz is used to reconstruct m(t) from s(t). The maximum value of fs required to reconstruct m(t) without distortion is
a) 20 kHz b) 40kHz c) 57 kHz d) 77 kHz

60. If the signal x(t) shown in given figure is fed to an LTI system having impulse response h(t) as shown in given figure, the value of the DC component present in the output y(t) is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

61. The characteristic equation of an LTI system is given as s^3 + Ks^2 + 5s + 10. When the system is marginally stable, the value of K and the sustained oscillation frequency w, respectively, are
a) 2 and 5 b) 0.5 and √5 c) 0.5 and 5 d) 2 and √5

62. The time required for the response of a linear time-variant system to reach half the final value for the first time is
a) delay time b) peak time c) rise time d) decay time

63. The signal flow graph of the given network is

64. Let c(t) be the unit step response of a system with transfer function K(s+a)/(s+K). If c(0+)=2 and c(∞)=10, then the values of a and K, respectively, are
a) 2 and 10 b) -2 and 10 c) 10 and 2 d) 2 and -10

65. The loop transfer function of an LTI system is G(s)H(s)= K(s+1)(s+5) / s(s+2)(s+3). For K>0, the point on the real axis that DOES NOT belong to the root locus of the system is
a) -0.5 b) -2.5 c) -3.5 d) -5.5

66. The state space equation of the circuit shown in given figure for x1=v0, x2=I is

67. The open loop gain of a unity feedback system is G(s)=wn^2 / s(s+2wn). The unit step response c(t) of the system is

69. The angles of the asymptotes of the root loci of the equation s^3 + 5s^2 + (K+2)s + K = 0, for 0<=K<∞, are a) 0 and 270 b) 0 and 180 c) 90 and 270 d) 90 and 180 70. The bode plot corresponding to a proportional derivative controller is the one shown in given figure 71. In frequency modulation, the instantaneous a) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal b) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal c) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal d) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal 72. If X is a zero mean Gaussian random variable, then P{X<=0} is a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1 73. If a single-tone amplitude modulated signal at a modulation depth of 100% transmits a total power of 15W, the power in the carrier component is a) 5W b) 10W c) 12W d) 15W 74. In a superheterodyne receiver, rejection of the image signal can be achieved by using a a) higher local oscillatorn frequency b) crystal oscillator c) narrow band IF filter d) narrow band filter at RF stage 75. The number of bbits per sample of a PCM system depends upon the a) sampler type b) quantizer type c) number of levels of the quantizer d) sampling rate 76. Which one of the following is used for the detection of AM-DSB-SC signal a) Ratio detector b) Foster-Seeley discriminator c) Product demodulator d) Balanced-slpoe detector 77. Which one of the following signal pairs can represent a BPSK signal a) A cos2πfct, A sinπfct b) A cos2πfct, - A sinπfct c) - A cos2πfct, A sinπfct d) A sin2πfct, A cosπfct 78. Which one of the following can be used for the detection of the noncoherent BPSK signal a) matched filter b) phase-locked loop c) envelope detector d) product demodulator

79. Bits of duration Tb are to be transmitted using a BPSK modulation with a carrier of frequency Fc Hz. The power spectral density of the transmitted signal has the first null at the normalized frequency
a) |F – Fc|Tb = 0 b) |F – Fc|Tb = 1 c) |F – Fc|Tb = 2 d) |F – Fc|Tb = 4

80. The probability of bit error of a BPSK modulation scheme, with transmitted signal energy per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian noise channel having one-sided power spectral density N0, is
a) (1/2) erfc(Eb/2N0) b) (1/2) erfc√(Eb/2N0) c) (1/2) erfc(Eb/N0) d) (1/2) erfc√ (Eb/N0)

81. For a given transmitted pulse p(t), 0<=t<=T, the impulse response of a filter matched to the received signal is a) –p(t-T), 0<=t<=T b) –p(T-t), 0<=t<=T c) p(t-T), 0<=t<=T d) p(T-t), 0<=t<=T 82. The multiple access communication scheme in which each user is allocated the full available channel spectrum for a specified duration of time is known as a) CDMA b) FDMA c) TDMA d) MC-CDMA 83. GSM system uses TDMA with a) 32 users per channel b) 16 users per channel c) 8 users per channel d) 4 users per channel 84. If Rx(τ) is the auto-correlation function of a zero-mean wide-sense stationary random process X, then which one of the following is NOT true? a) Rx(τ) = Rx(-τ) b) Rx(τ) = -Rx(-τ) c) σx^2 = Rx(0) d) |Rx(τ)| <=Rx(0) 85. If E denotes the expectation operator, then E[X-EX]^3 of a random variable X is a) EX^3 – E^3X b) EX^3 + 2E^3X – 3EX Ex^2 c) 3EX^3 – E^3X d) 2EX^3 + E^3X – 3EX EX^2 86. A discrete memoryless source produces symbols m1,m2,m3 and m4 with probabilities 1/2, 1/4 , 1/8 and 1/8, respectively. The entropy of the source is a) ¼ b) 1 c) 7/4 d) 2 87. A channel has a signal-to-noise ratio of 63 and bandwidth of 1200 Hz. The maximum data rate that can be sent through the channel with arbitrary low probability of error is a) 600 bps b) 1200 bps c) 4800 bps d) 7200 bps 88. For the vectors A = X ax + Y ay and B = Z az, del . (A X B) is a) 0 b) 1 c) XZ d) YZ

89. Which one of the following relations represents Strokes’ theorem (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) ∫s del X A.ds = 0 b) ∫L A.dl = ∫s del X A.ds c) ∫s A X dS = -∫v (del X A)dv d) ∫v del.Adv = ∫s A.ds

90. Which one of the following relations is not correct (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) del X E = - ∂B/∂t b) del X H = J + ∂E/∂t c) del.D = ρv d) del.B = 0

91. The electric field component of a uniform plane wave propagating in a lossless magnetic dielectric medium is given by E(t,z)=ax 5cos(10^9 t – 20/3 z)V/m. If η0 represents the intrinsic impedance of the free space, the corresponding magnetic field component is given by
a) H(t,z)= ay 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
b) H(t,z)= ay 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
c) H(t,z)= az 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
d) H(t,z)= az 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m

92. The skin depth of a non-magnetic conducting material at 100 MHz is 0.15 mm. The distance which a plane wave of frequency 10 GHz travels in this material before its amplitude reduces by a factor of e^-1 is
a) 0.0015 mm b) 0.015 mm c) 0.15 mm d) 1.5 mm

93. A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 100 ohms and an inductance per unit length of 1 μH/m. If the line is operated at 1 GHz, the propagation constant β is
a) 2π rad/m b) 20π/3 rad/m c) 20π rad/m d) 2π *10^5 rad/m

94. When a load resistance Rl is connected to a lossless transmission line of characteristic impedance 75 ohms, it results in a VSWR of 2. The load resistance is
a) 100 ohms b) 75√2 ohms c) 120 ohms d) 150 ohms

95. A two-port network characterized by the S-parameter matrix, [S] = [0.3 L0 0.9 L90

0.9 L90 0.2 L0]

Is

a) both reciprocal and lossless b) reciprocal, but not lossless c) lossless, but not reciprocal d) neither reciprocal nor lossless

96. A lossless air filled rectangular waveguide has internal dimensions of a cm * b cm. If a=2b and the cutoff frequency of the TE02 mode is 12 GHz, the cutoff frequency of the dominant mode is
a) 1 GHz b) 3 GHz c) 6 GHz d) 9 GHz

97. A Hertzian dipole antenna is placed at the origin of a coordinate system and it is oriented along z-axis. In which one of the following planes the radiation pattern of the antenna has a circular shape?
a) x=0 b) y=0 c) z=0 d) ø=45

98. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) Antenna losses are taken into account in calculating its power gain
b) For an antenna which does not dissipate any power, the directive gain and the power gain are equal
c) Directivity of an antenna is the maximum value of its directive gain
d) The directive gain of a Hertzian dipole is same in all direction

99. The directivity of a half dipole antenna is
a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 1.64 d) 2

100. Which one of the following is not true for a step index optical fibre?
a) It can support multiple modes
b) HE11 mode is its lowest order mode
c) The refractive index of the cladding is higher than that of the core
d) At a given wavelength, single mode operation is possible by proper choice of core diameter, core and cladding refractive indices.

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

101. Sarnath is situated in the state of
a) MP b) Bihar c) Punjab d) UP

102. Green house effect is due to the increase of atmospheric
a) CO2 level b) SO2 level c) CO level d) N2 level

103. In the month of July, it is winter in
a) New York b) Beijing c) Sydney d) London

104. The chairman of the Planning commission of India is
a) The prime minister b) The vice-president c) The union finance minister d) The union commerce minister

105. The satellite launch vehicle that placed a number of satellites ito orbit in May 2008 is
a) PSLV-C7 b) PSLV-C8 c) PSLV-C9 d) PSLV-C10

106.DRDO was formed in
a) 1947 b) 1950 c) 1954 d) 1958

107. SAMYUKTA is developed for the use of
a) Navy b) Army c) Air force d) RAC

108. DARL 202 is a variety of
a) pea b) garlic c) capsicum d) tomato

109. TRISHUL is
a) a surface to surface battlefield missile
b) a quick reaction surface to air missile
c) an intermediate range ballistic missile
d) a supersonic cruise missile

110. HUMSA is a
a) sonar b) tank c) mine d) night vision device

111. The value of 1+2i / 3-4i + 2-I / 5i , where i^2 is -1, is
a) -5/2 b) 5/2 c) 2/5 d) -2/5

112. The particular solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + 2 dy/dx + 5y = 0 satisfying the conditions y(0)=0 and y’(0)=1 is
a) y=1/2 e^-x cos2x b) y=1/2 e^-x sin4x c) y=1/2 e^-x sin2x d) y=1/2 e^-x cos4x

113. For the vectors A=3i-2j+k and B=2i-k, the value of (A*B).A is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

114. The orthogonal trajectory of the family of curves x^2-y^2 = a (where a is a constant) and passing through the point (1,1) is
a) y=-1/x b) y=1/x c) y=-x d) y=x
115. The value of the line integral ∫ y^2 dx + 2xydy over the curve x=accost, y=asint is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

116. The n-th partial sum of the infinite series 1/1*2 + 1/2*3 + 1/3*4+……1/n*(n+1)……..
a) 1/n+1 b) n+2/n+1 c) n/n+1 d) n-1/n+1

117. The complex-valued function f(z)=e^z is analytic for
a) no z b) all z c) real z only d) imaginary z only
118. The inverse of the matrix [ cos A sin A
-sin A cos A] is

a) [ -cos A Sin A b) [cos A sin A} c) [cos A -sin A d) [cos A -sin A
sin A cos A] sin A -cos A] -sin A cos A] sin A cos A]

119. Consider the function f(x) defined as
F(x) = 3x-1, x<0 x="0">0
In the following table, List I shows 4 expressions for limits of f(x) and List II indicates the values of the limits
List I List II
P.Lim x->2 f(x) 1. -1
Q.Lim x->0+ f(x) 2. 9
R.Lim x->0- f(x) 3. -10
S.Lim x->-3 f(x) 4. 5
The correct matches are
a) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 B) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1 C) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3 D) P-4,Q-2,R-3,S-1

120. Two events A and B with probability 0.5 and 0.7, respectively, have joint probability of 0.4. The probability that neither A nor B happens is
a) 0.2 b) 0.4 c) 0.6 d) 0.8

121. Consider the differential equation
X^2 d^2/dx^2 + x dy/dx + (x^2 - 4)y = 0. The statement which is not true for it is
a) It is a linear second order ordinary differential equation
b) It can not be reduced to a differential equation with constant coefficients
c) X=0 is a regular singular point
d) It is a non-homogeneous second order ordinary differential equation

122. The sum of two numbers is 16 and the sum of their squares is a minimum. The two numbers are
a) 10,6 b) 9,7 c) 8,8 d) 5,11

123. The value of the definite integral 0∫(π/2)^(1/3) x^2 sin(x^3)dx is
a) -1/3 b) 0 c) 1 d) 1/3

124. A circle C2 is concentric with the circle C1 : x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -12 =0 and has a radius twice that of C1. The equation of the circle C2 is
a) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -13 =0 b) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -87 =0 c) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -100 =0 d) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -88 =0

125. Consider the quadratic equation x^2 + px + q =0. If p and q are roots of the equation, the values of p and q are
a) p=0, q=0 only b) p=1, q=-2 only c) p=0, q=0 and p=1, q=-2 d) p=0, q=0 and p=-2, q=1

126. Consider the list of words: etiquette, accommodate, forty, exaggerate, continous, independent, receipt. The number of misspelt words are
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

127. Consider the following sentences
1. A few friends he has are all very rich.
2. Do not insult the weak.
3. The later of the two persons was more interesting.
4. All the informations were correct.
Out of these sentences, the grammatically correct sentence is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

128. The appropriate auxiliary verb to fill in the blank of the sentence “Gandhi knew that he __ soon be jailed.”is
a) would b) will c) shall d) may

129. The number of missing punctuation marks in the sentence “Rajesh along with Amit went to the market.”is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

130. The meaning of the word PLAGIARISM is
a) theft of public money b) theft of ideas c) belief in one god d) belief in many gods


132. ACROPHOBIA is the abnormal fear of
a) open spaces b) height c) fire d) water

133. The appropriate pair of prepositions to fill in the blank in the sentence “He was angry __ me, because my remarks were aimed __ him.”is
a) at,to b) with, at c) with, to d) at, for

134. The appropriate word(s) to fill up the blank in the sentence “ I remember __ voices in the middle of the night.”is (are)
a) hear b) to hear c) hearing d) heard

135. The passive voice form of the sentence “I have known him for a long time.”is
a) He is known to me for a long time.
b) He is known by me for a long time.
c) He has been known to me for a long time.
d) He has been known by me for a long time.

136. If kennel is to a dog, then __ is to a hen.
a) nest b) coop c) hole d) stable

137. If NATION is to 5236765, then NOTION is to
a) 573675 b) 563765 c) 576375 d) 557365

138. The next two numbers of the series 3,5,11,21 are
a) 34 and 52 b) 34 and 53 c) 35 and 52 d) 35 and 53

139. A, B and C are three places in India with longitudes 80E, 85 E and 90 E respectively. Which one of the following statements about the local times of the places is true?
a) Local time of C is ahead of that of B.
b) Local time of B is ahead of that of C.
c) Local time of A is ahead of that of C.
d) A, B and C all have the same local time.

140. In this question, notations +, / and * are used as follows
A + B means A is the husband of B.
A / B means A is the sister of B.
A * B means A is the son of B.
With these relations, the relationship
denoted by P / Q * R is
a) P is son of R
b) P is daughter of R
c) P is uncle of R
d) P is father of R

141. If DELHI is written as EDHIL, then PARIS is written as
a) APRIS b) SARIP c) SAPIR d) APISR

142. The number of prime numbers between 10 and 50 is
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13

143. The odd one in the list : LAN, TCP/IP, HACKER and KILLER is
a) LAN b) TCP/IP c) KILLER d) HACKER

144. SAW is to carpenter as SCALPEL is to
a) surgeon b) mason c) plumber d) tailor

ANSWERS

1) d)Uttarpradesh
2) a) co2
3) c) sydney
4) a) prime minister
5) c) PSLV C9
6) d) 1958
7) b) army
8) don't know
119) b) quick reaction surface to air missile
110) a) sonar
111 to 25 simple math problem
126) d) 4
127) might be sentence 2
128) b) will
129) c) 2
130) b) theft of ideas
131) c) permanent
132) b) height
133) b) with,at
134)b) to hear
135)d) he has been known by me for a long time
136) b) coop
137)a) 573675
138)d) 35,53
139)a) local time of C is ahead of that of B( not confirmed)
140) b) P is daughter of R
141) d) APISR
142) b) 11
143) c) killr
144) a) surgeon

BHEL Mechanical Engineering Paper

BHEL Engineer Trainee written test in Mechanical stream. In Mechanical Branch there were a total of 240 questions. 120- Technical questions in Mechanical Engineering. 120- General Apptitude questions. (Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, Logical thinking, English usage).

The questions were mainly asked in

Thermodynamics

Engineering Mechanics

Theory of machines

Production tech


[One Mark for correct answer, 1/5th for wrong answer. Five choices were given]

Some Questions asked in Exam:


1)Unit of Entropy (J/kg K or kJ/kg K)?

2)A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1 m and penetrates the sand into for 1 m. What is the resistance force given by sand?

3)Ratio of specific heats of air ? (1.41)

4)A body weighs 3 kg in air. If it is submerged in a liquid, it weighs 2.5 kg. What is the specific gravity of the liquid ?

5)Two cars travell in same direction at 40 km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in a opposite direction in 60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between them?

6)A simple problem involing in hoops stress. For sphere: M= [3/2]*p*V* [density of pressure vessel material/Maximum working stress it can tolerate] For Thin walled pressure walls: Hoops stress or stress in the radial direction =p*r/2t?

7) A problem in force calculation in a body moving in a inclined surface?

8)Composition of bronze?
ans. Copper+zinc.

9) Compostion of stainless steel.?
ans. iron+chromium+nickel+carbon.

10) CI is manifactured in which process?
ans. cupola process

11)What percentage of carbon is preset in pig iron?
ans. 4.5 to 6%.

12)Water is available at 10m height. What is the pressure available?
ans= pressure=density*g*height;
p=1000*9.81*10;
p=98100N/m2.

13)What will happen if the speed of the centrifugal pump doubles?

14)The unit eV is widely used in ?
ans. Nuclear and atomic physics.

15)What will happen to the resistance, when the diameter of the conductor is doubled?

16)The power comsumed by a electrical device is 1000W at 250V, What is the resistance in the device?
ans. Power= Voltage*current,
Current=Power/Voltage,
Current,I=1000/250=4
amps. V=IR,
Therefore R=250/4=62.5 ohms.

17)Why DC current is not used in transformer?

18)On what principle the sonar/ radar works?

19)Bending moment diagram for the UDL is in what shape?

20)Function of the distributor in petrol vehicles?
ans. Spark timing.

21)Which is not present in CI engines?
ans. carburrettor.

22)What will happen if one cylinder recieves more amount of fuel spray from injectors than other injectors?

23)Purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines?

ans. The purpose of a draft tube is toconvert some of the kinetic energy of the flow from the runner (the rotating part of the turbine) intopressure energy and thereby increase the efficiency ofthe hydro power turbine.

24)What is the effect or reheater in the gas turbine?

The advantage of reheater is significantly increased thrust; the
disadvantage is it has very high fuel consumption and inefficiency.

25)Problems involving with fricition coefficient.

26)Factor of safety = Yeild stress/Working stress.

27)Which is the example of non parallel power transmission (Universal coupling)?

28)For perpendicular shafts worm gear is used?

29)A planet gear with 25 teeth is meshed with a sun gear of 100 teeth. Both are connected using a arm. How many rotations are needed for planet gear to complete one rotation around the sun gear?

30)What is equivalent spring constant for spring in parallel?

31) Some questions was asked related to boundary layer and vortex flow.

32) 5 questions were asked in PERT, Process planning, Product planning, Break even analysis.

33)How are tungsten and sintered composite materials are machined?
(Electro Discharge Machining, EDM)

General Apptitude:

There are 120 questions .

English:

Detect the words with wrong spellings (5 questions).
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words(5 questions).
Two reading comprehensions were given(10 questions).
Find the error in the sentence (8 questions).

Reasoning:

Seating arrangement problems.
Find the relation between them.

Quantitative ability:

50% of the questions are from basic geometry .

A.P.GENCO ASSISTANT ENGINEER (CIVIL) 2010 EXAM QUESTION PAPER

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AP GENCO SUB ENGINEERS WRITTEN EXAM SYLLABUS

(For Sub-Engineer/Electrical)
1. Elements of Electrical Engineering:
a. Comprehend basic principles of electricity
b. Know the magnetic effects of electric current.
c. Understand electromagnetic induction
d. Understand electric charge and electrostatic field
2. Electrical circuits:
a. Understand Kirchoffs laws and star delta Transformations and Network Theorems.
b. Comprehend the relationship between quantities connected with alternating
current.
c. Comprehend the single phase A.C. Circuits
d. Poly Phase Circuits.
3. D.C.Machines:
a. Fundamentals of D.C. Generators
b. Armature Reaction and Characteristics of D.C. Generator
c. Fundamentals of D.C. Motors
d. Speed Control and Starters of D.C.Motors
e. Characteristics and Testing of D.C.Motors
4. Electrical Measuring Instruments & Batteries:
a. Know the Classification of different measuring instruments.
b. Understand the construction and working of different electrical measuring instruments
c. Understand the method of measurement of resistance.
d. Transducers and sensors
e. Understand Batteries
5. A.C.Machines:
a. Understand the working of Single Phase Transformers
b. To understand Three Phase Transformers.
c. Know the classification, construction, working and testing of alternators
d. Comprehend the procedure for voltage control and synchronization.
e. Comprehend the working of synchronous motors
f. Comprehend the working of three phase induction motor
g. Comprehend the working of single phase induction motor
h. Comprehend the working of single phase commutator motor
6. Power Systems:
a. understand the various sources of Power Generation
b. understand working of Thermal Power station
c. understand hydroelectric power station
d. understand the working of Nuclear & Gas Power stations
e. Comprehend combined operation and economics of power stations.
f. Comprehend the need for transmission and choice of supply system
g. Line structure for transmission and distribution
h. Underground cables.
i. Understand different types of switchgear, fuses and reactors and their working
j. Protective relays
k. Protection of alternators, transformer and transmission line.
l. Lighting arrestors and neutral grouding
7. Electronics:
a. passive components (Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors)
b. Know the semi-conductor Devices.
c. Understand the working principle of Power supply circuits
d. Understand the performance of special devices.
e. Understand the principle of working of Amplifiers.
f. Understand the principle of working of Small Signal Amplifiers.
g. Understand the principle of Oscillators
h. Appreciate the need for Modulation and Demodulation
i. Electronic instruments and industrial applications
j. Know the basics of ICs
k. Know the basics of digital electronics
l. Understand the working of combination logic circuits
m. Understand the working of sequential logic circuits
n. Understand working of registers and memories
8. Electrical Utilization and traction:
a. understand the principles of lightings
b. understand principle of electric heating, welding and its industrial application
c. electric traction systems
9. General Mechanical Engineering:
a. I.C. Engines, Boilers, Turbines
b. Understand the working of the centrifugal pumps
10. Information Technology:
a. understand the features of MS-word
b. understand working of MS-Excel
c. Understand MS-Power Point
d. Understand working with MS-Access
11. Industrial Management and Entrepreneurship:
a. understand the principles of management as applied to industry
b. Know the organization structure of an industry and the behavior of an
individual in an organization.
c. Understand the different aspects of production management
d. Understand the role of material management industries.
e. Understand marketing, sales and feasibility study.
f. Comprehend the provisions of industrial legislation in India and safety
procedures.
g. Understand ISO 9000 and TQM
h. Understand the role of entrepreneur in economic development and in
improving the quality of life.

Syllabus
(for Sub-Engineer/Mechanical)
1. Electrical Engineering & Basic Electronics:
a. comprehend basic Electrical Fundamentals
b. Understand D.C.Machines
c. Understand A.C. Fundamentals and A.C. Machines
d. Understand storage batteries
e. Understand the principles of semi-conductor devices
f. Understand electrical measuring instruments and safety procedures
2. Thermal Engineering -I:
a. understand the Fundamentals and Laws of Thermodynamics
b. understand the laws of perfect gases
c. understand Thermodynamic Processes on gases
d. know the fuels and Combustion
e. appreciate the study of air standard cycles
f. Comprehend the construction, working and performance of Internal
Combustion engines.
3. Thermal Engineering - II:
a. understand the Properties of Stream
b. understand the working of steam boilers
c. steam Nozzles and Turbines
d. comprehend the construction and working of Air Compressors
e. Understand the working and applications of gas turbines and Jet Propulsion.
f. To appreciate the measuring devices used in instrumentation.
4. Hydraulics & Hydraulic Machinery:
A. Hydraulics:
a. understand the various properties of Fluids
b. understand the behaviour of liquids in motion
c. evaluate frictional losses during flow of liquids through pipe
B. Hydraulic Machines:
a. analyze forces during the impact of jets
b. understand the working of water turbines
c. know the working of pumps.
5. Energy Sources and power plant Engineering:
a. introduction of Renewable Energy Sources
b. solar and wind energy
c. fuel cells and MHD Generator
d. Bio and Tidal Energy
e. Analyse the elements of Thermal and Nuclear Power Plants
f. To understand the impact of pollutants on Environment
6. Industrial Management & Entrepreneurship:
a. understand the principles of management as applied to industry
b. Know the organization structure of an industry and the behavior of an
individual in an organization.
c. Understand the different aspects of production management
d. Understand the role of material management industries.
e. Understand marketing, sales and feasibility study.
f. Comprehend the provisions of industrial legislation in India and safety procedures.
g. Understand ISO 9000 and TQM
h. Understand the role of entrepreneur in economic development and in
improving the quality of life.
7. Estimating and Costing:
a. List out the elements of costing
b. Understand the fundamentals of estimation
c. Estimate the weight of material required for a product and machining times
d. Estimate the fabrication cost
e. Estimate the forging cost
f. Estimate foundry cost
8. Manufacturing Technology -I:
a. Lathe & Lathe Work
b. Illustrate the working of Shaper, Slotter, Planner and Broaching Machine
c. Cutting Fluids, Coolants & Lubricants
d. Metrology
e. Understand the different welding methods and technique
9. Manufacturing Technology -II:
a. milling and Gear Making
b. grinding and finishing processes
c. modern machining processes
d. plastic processing
e. press Tools, Jigs and Fixtures
f. Jig Boring
10. Refrigeration and Air Conditioning:
a. understand the various methods of Refrigeration
b. Understand vapour compression and Vapour absorption in Refrigeration systems.
c. Know the refrigerants, refrigeration Equipment and applications of Refrigeration
d. Understand fundamentals of A/C and A/C equipment
e. Understand psychometry, cooling and heating loads.
f. Appreciate the applications of A/C servicing and maintenance of refrigeration
and A/C equipment.
11. Information Technology:
a. understand the features of MS-word
c. understand working of MS-Excel
d. Understand MS-Power Point
e. Understand working with MS-Access

Syllabus
(for Sub-Engineer/Civil)
1. Surveying:
A. Surveying-I:
a. know basic facts about surveying
b. understand the principles of Chain Surveying
c. principle of Compass Surveying
d. Understand the principles of Plane Table Surveying to fill in details of the field.
B. Surveying-II:
a. understand the principles of theodolite surveying preparation of plants
and alignment.
b. understand the principles of Tacheometry to find the elevations and
distances of stations.
c. understand the method of setting out simple curves
d. understand the Electronic Surveying instruments
2. Surveying Practicals II:
a. Performs Theodolite surveying
b. Performs Trigonometric leveling
c. Performs Tachometric Surveying
d. Sets out simple curves in the field
e. To understand the method of setting out of building on the ground
f. Applies principles of Surveying of Land Development
g. Knows the principle of surveying for Land Development
h. Knows the principle of Operation of Electronic Survey Instruments
i. Applies principles of mapping from the field work, potting of the field work
j. Applies knowledge of different methods of surveying in overcoming different
field problems.
3. Quantity Surveying -I:
a. Understands basic concepts of Quantity Surveying, units and specifications
b. Understands different types of estimates and detailed estimates of buildings.
c. Understands the analysis of rates and abstract estimations
d. Computes the volumes of earth work and reservoir capacity
e. Compute the material required for construction of a structure
4. Construction Materials:
a. understands selection of stones and their acceptability for construction work
b. understands the acceptability of bricks for construction work
c. understands suitability of tiles, pipes and building sand for construction
d. to check the quality of cement for construction work
e. understands the principles of preparation of mortars and concrete
f. understands the selection and applications of wood, plastics, Glass and
Asbestos for construction work
5. Construction Practice:
a. knows the classification of Buildings and design of foundation as per NBC
b. Understand the construction of masonry work
c. Understands the types and principles of doors, windows, ventilators and
Lintels, Sunshades.
d. Understands methods of construction and finishes of different types of roofs
and floorings.
e. Understands scaffolding and types of stair cases
f. Protective, decorative finishes and Termite proofing
6. Theory of Structures:
A. Theory of Structures-I:
a. Understands the effect of Loading on Beams
b. Understands Deflection of Beams under loading
c. Understands the effects of Internal pressure on unriveted and riveted thin cylinders
d. Understand the effects of Pure Torsion on solid and hollow Circular
Shafts and closely coiled helical spring under given axial loading
e. Understands the behaviours of columns under vertical loads
B. Theory of Strucres-II:
a. understands the stability of retaining walls and dams under the action
of lateral pressures.
b. Understands the effects of loading on propped, continuous, fixed and
continuous beams.
c. Understands effect of Dead and live loads on statically determinate frames
7. Hydraulics:
a. knows the properties of Fluids
b. understands fluid pressure and its Measurement
c. understands the General principles of flow of the liquids
d. understands the flow through Orifices and mouth pieces
e. Comprehends the flow over different types of notches and weirs.
8. Transportation Engineering:
a. introduction to Highways and Soil machanics
b. understands highway survey and traffic engineering
c. understands highway construction and maintenance
d. understands introduction and permanent way of Railways
e. understands station yard and maintenance of Railways
f. Understands Bridges, Culverts and cause ways.
9. Environmental Studies:
a. Knows the importance of the environmental studies and Natural Resources.
b. Understands ecosystems and Biodiversity and its conservation
c. Know environmental Pollution, Social issues and the environment.
d. Understand Human Population and the Environment
e. Field work
10. Design of RC structures:
a. understand the basic ideas of concrete, reinforcing steel and philosophy of
limit state design
b. Understand the principles of analysis and design of singly reinforced and
doubly reinforced R.C.C. rectangular beams by limit state method.
c. Understand the principles involved in the design of R.C.C. slabs by limit state method.
d. Understand the principles involved in design of lintels, sunshades, T-Beams,
continuous slabs and beams
e. Understand analysis and design of columns, footings and staircases.
11. Information Technology:
a. understand the features of MS-word
b. understand working of MS-Excel
c. Understand MS-Power Point
d. Understand working with MS-Access

Syllabus
(for Sub-Engineer/Electronics)
1. Electronic Components and Devices:
Inductors, Transformers, switches, connectors and relays. PN Junction Diode,
BJT configurations, JFET and MOSFETs, Rectifiers and Regulators.
2. Elements of Combinational and sequential logic circuits:
Flip-flops, counters, registers, memories, A/D and D/A converters.
3. Fundamentals of Instrumentation and Transducers:
Accuracy, precision, errors, LVDT, RVDT, Synchros, RTD, Thermistors,
Thermocouples pressure and flow measurement.
4. Basics of DC machines, AC machines and transformers
5. Measuring instrumentation:
Analog Instruments, bridges, DVMS, Q-meter, logic analyzer, signal and
function generators.
6. Process instrumentation:
pH and conductivity measurement,viscosity and density measurements ,
spectrophotometers, gas analyzer, auto analyzer, chromatographs.
7. Power plant instrumentation and unit operation:
Introduction power plant: Unit operation and Unit processes, material balance
and energy balance. Introduction to thermal power plant, significance of
instrumentation in power plant, principle and working and salient features of hydro
electric, nuclear gas turbine plant.
Processes in Thermal Power plant: evaporation: distillation: leaching and extraction:
gas absorption: humidification and dehumidification adsorption: drying: size reduction:
crystallization: mixers.
Boiler instrumentation and control: measurements and control loops, drum level
control, fuel flow control, furnace draft and excess air control, combustion control,
steam pressure control, boiler safety interlocks.
Turbine monitoring and control: turbine, supervisory system for monitoring of
mechanical parameters speed, vibration, eccentricity, axial shift, shell temperature
monitoring, lube oil temperature control, turbine trip condition.
Instrumentation and control of alternator, steam heaters, pumps and compressors,
condenser.
Auxiliaries in power plants: soot blowers, electrostatic precipitator, oil automation
system, water treatment plant, cooling towers.
8. Power Electronics:
SCR, Triac, UJT, Single and three phase converters, inverters, cycloconverters, SMPS and UPS.

Syllabus on power plant related topics for Sub-Engineers (except
Sub-Engineer/Civil)
A. Thermal Power Stations - Process
1. Boiler a. Boiler construction
b. Pressure Parts
c. Fans - types
d. Mills - types
e. Air Preheaters
f. Fuels - Supply Systems
g. Firing and Arrangements in power House
h. ESP - Construction - Operation - Details
i. Safety Valves and their importance
2. Turbine a. Turbines - Parts - Details
b. CWPs, Cooling Towers, Condenser Cooling and
Vacuum System - Details
c. LP Heaters, DA, CEPs and Condensate system
d. BFPs, HP heaters and feed water system
e. PRDS, HFO and Light oil systems
3. Generator a. Electrical Power - Energy - Voltage - Current - Explanation.
b. Turbo - Generator construction - details
c. Excitatiom systems
d. Transformers - working - cooling systems - types
4. Protection Protection of Generators, Generator Transformers
etc., circuit breakers.
5. Economic aspects Generation Costs and their classification, PLF, Plant
base load and Peak load operation and optimul
operation of thermal and Hydel stations.
6. switch-yard Switch - yard -Equipment - Details
7. Electrical circuits: Storage batteries, classification of cells, construction
chemical action of cells, lead acid, NI - Cadmium
Cells, VRLA batteries (maintenance free batteries)
concept of trickle charging and boost charging.
8. Electrical measuring instruments:
a. measurement of voltage current, power, energy etc.
b. principles of measurement of pressure, flow, level, diff pressure, temperature
(thermocouple, RTD) etc.
c. Principle of measurement of PH, conductivity, oxygen using Zircona principle.
9. AHP Ash handling plant - Equipment - Functions
10. CHP Coal handling plant - Equipment - Functions
11. WTP Water treatment plant - Flow Charts/Diagrams
B. Hydel Power Stations - Process
1. Functions of various Equipment of Hydel Power Stations
2. Layout of equipment in Hydel Power Stations
3. Symbols of various tools and Tackles, Fasteners and their functions.
4. General knowledge about various works, abbreviations pertaining to Hydel
power stations.
5. Various Equipment of Hydel Power Stations.
6. Types of turbines.
7. Penstock.
8. Surge Tank.
9. Turbine.
10. Governing system
11. Trash rack
12. Generator - Construction details - Function.
13. Electrical Energy, Power, Voltage, Current - Definition.
14. Transformers - Details and Functions.
15. Switch-yard - Important Equipment - Functions
16. Electrical circuits: Storage batteries, classification of cells, construction
chemical action of cells, lead acid, NI - Cadmium
Cells, VRLA batteries (maintenance free batteries)
concept of trickle charging and boost charging.
17. Electrical measuring instruments:
a. measurement of voltage current, power, energy etc.
b. principles of measurement of pressure, flow, level, diff pressure, temperature
(thermocouple, RTD) etc.
C.
1. Industrial Electronics
To understand PLC and programming - logic with relays, PLC ladder logic,
timers, counters, input output modules, digital, analog I/O s.logic functions -
OR, AND, EX-OR etc.
2. BASIC communication Engineering
a. Understanding the work of power line carrier communication (PLCC)
technique
b. Understanding the principle of working of EPABX
3. Understand the distributed control system DCS.
D.
1. FPS - Fire protection Systems - Types - Functions
2. Fire accidents - Fire accidents and preventive measures
3. Safety aspects - Safety of personnel and equipment - Safety
measures and precautions.
4. House keeping - House keeping and its importance.

Thermal/Hydel plants related syllabus for Sub-Engineer (Civil)
1 Reservoirs - Inflows, Outflows, live storage capacity, gross
storage capacity, FRL, MDL Water spread,
catchment area, annual rainfall.
2 Dams - Masonry dam, Earthen Dam, Gravity Dam,
Height of Dam, Crest level, Arch dam, Max
flood discharge, Crest gates.
3 Penstocks - Head, Pipe diameter, Plate thickness, Valves
(Butterfly valves).
4 Survey - North, South, Latitude, Longitude, Reduced
levels, marking of buildings etc.
5 Power House - Types of Turbines, PH Crane, Turbo
generator, Boiler, Electro Static Precipitators,
LP turbines, HP turbine, Coal pulverization mills etc.
6 Gates - Stop log gate, regulator sluice, Crest gates,
butterfly valves, D.T. gates, radial gates.
7 Canals - Carrying capacity, bed slopes, side slopes,
variation of velocity w.r.t height, trash rack.
8 Makeup Water Reservoirs - Capacity, raw water pipelines.
9 Water Treatment Clarifiers - Alumn dozing, chlorination, filtration, DM plants.
10 Marshalling yard - Rails, sleepers, points and crossings, ballast, keys etc.
11 Coal Plant - Conveyor, Wagon tippler, crushers etc.
12 Ash Ponds - Earthen embankment, decanting wells, spillways.
13 Chimney, cooling towers - Deashing, Acid and Fire Resistant Bricks &
mortar, desilting, troughs, flashcups.
14 Roads, Buildings, Maintenance.
- Storm water drains, Maintenance, drinking
water supply, Roof leakages, painting, drainage, sanitary.
15 Construction of Plant - Earth work excavating PCC, raft, bearing
capacity of soils, piles, backfilling, plinth
beams, Design mix, Bridges, strength of
concrete, steel, bricks, st. steel etc.
16 Safety - CO2 cylinders, application of foam,
firefighting lines, burning of dry Jungle, GIS, EPF, etc.
17 Stores Materials - Storage of cement, Steel.
18 Carpentry material - Carpentry material, their usage.
19 FPS Fire protection Systems - Types - Functions
20 Fire accidents Fire accidents and preventive measures
21 Safety aspects Safety of personnel and equipment - Safety
measures and precautions.
22 House keeping House keeping and its importance.

RBI Recruitment for the post of Manager-Technical (Civil/Electrical)

RESERVE BANK OF INDIA SERVICES BOARD, MUMBAI Advt.No.3A/ 2010-11 Applications (App.) are invited for the posts mentioned below in Reserve Bank of India (RBI/Bank) from Indian citizens, citizens of Nepal and subjects of Bhutan, Tibetan refugees (who came over to India before 1st January 1962) and persons of Indian origin who have migrated from Myanmar and Sri Lanka with the intention of permanently settling in India and in whose favour Eligibility Certificates have been issued by Government of India. Number of Vacancies Sr. No. Post Unreserved i.e. General (Gen) Scheduled Castes (SC) Scheduled Tribes (ST) Other Backward Classes (OBC) Total 1. Manager (Technical-Civil) 2 2* 4** 2. Manager (Technical-Electrical) 1 1 2*** (*) out of these 01 vacancy is reserved towards Backlog vacancy. (**) There is no vacancy reserved for Persons With Disability (PWD). However, Orthopaedically Handicapped(OH) candidates with One Arm affected(OA), One Leg affected(OL) and Both Legs affected but not arms (BL) and Hearing Impaired (HI) candidates who are Partially Deaf (PD) are eligible to apply as General candidates. However, they will not be entitled for any relaxation/concession except for age and application fee. (***) There is no vacancy reserved for Persons with Disability (PWD). However, Orthopaedically Handicapped (OH) candidates with One Leg affected (OL) and Hearing Impaired (HI) candidates who are Partially Deaf (PD) are eligible to apply as General candidates. However, they will not be entitled for any concession/relaxation except for age relaxation and application fee. Note: OH/HI should posses a latest Certificate to this effect issued by an authorized Government of India/State Government Department/ Hospital. 1. EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS (as on 01.01.2011): i) MANAGER (TECHNICAL-CIVIL) Essential: A Bachelor's Degree in Civil Engineering or equivalent qualification with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent grade. Desirable: Specialization in Structural Design, Public Health Engineering, Soil Mechanics & foundation Engineering. ii) MANAGER (TECHNICAL- ELECTRICAL) Essential: A B.E./B. Tech Degree in Electrical Engineering or Electrical and Electronics Engineering with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent grade in aggregate of all semesters. Desirable: Elective/course papers in power electronics, Programmable logic controllers, electronic measurements, communication theory. 2. EXPERIENCE (ason 01.01.2011): i) MANAGER (TECHNICAL-CIVIL) Essential: At least 3 years' experience after graduation (in a position of independent responsibility equivalent to that of an Assistant Engineer) in a public /private limited organization including hospitals / banks / financial institutions / in Planning / Designing / Construction of Large Office Buildings /Multistoried Buildings / Housing Companies /residential campus based education institutions including preparation and evaluation offender papers. Desirable: (i) Experience of administering construction projects in all its aspects and knowledge of PERT/ CPM techniques, (ii) Working knowledge of Computer in Structural Design and CAM/CAD/ evaluation and analyzing of tenders with special references. (iii) Working knowledge of Electro-mechanical services and electrical maintenance, (iv) Working knowledge in structural rehabilitation works, (v) Good drafting capacity. ii) MANAGER (TECHNICAL- ELECTRICAL) Essential: At least 3 years' experience after graduation (in a position of independent responsibility equivalent to that of an Assistant Engineer) in a public/private limited organization including hospitals/banks/financial institutions/residential campus based educational institutions in planning/ designing/execution of internal and external electrical installation work, large central air-conditioning plant, lift, communication systems and other associated services involved in large, multi storey building projects including preparation, scrutiny and evaluation offenders. Desirable: i) Working knowledge of electronic systems like CCTV surveillance systems, Addressable Security Alarm and Fire Alarm systems, EPABX, UPS system etc. (ii) Experience in maintenance of lifts, pumps, air-conditioning plants, etc. (iii) Experience of administering construction projects in all its aspects and knowledge of PERT/CPM techniques, (iv) Good drafting capability in English, ability to work with computers as regards Microsoft Word, Excel and Power point presentation. 3. AGE (as on 01.01.2011) Not above 35 years (Candidates must not have been born earlier than 02.01.1976). Refer item 6 below for relaxation in upper age limit for specified categories. 4. SCHEME OF SELECTION: Selection will be through Written Examination (WE) in the following two papers and Interview. 'WE' 'will be held in the month of April/May 2011. Paper Test Duration Marks I Objective Type Test of professional knowledge / job knowledge As per Admission Letter 100 II Descriptive Type Standard of the papers will be that of a B.E. Degree 3hrs 100 Total 200 EXAMINATION AND INTERVIEW i) Paper II of such candidates who score sufficiently high marks, as decided by the Board, in order of merit in Paper I only would be assessed. ii) Question papers for WE will be set in Hindi and English. Answers may be written either in Hindi or English. iii) Candidates may answer the Interview in Hindi or English at their option. iv) The number of candidates to be called for interview will be decided by the Board. v) Final selection will be on the basis of performance in the WE (Paper I and Paper II) and Interview, taken together. 5. EXAMINATION CENTRES WE will be held at the following centres (Code Numbers indicated in the brackets) Name of Centre Code No. Name of Centre Code No. Ahmedabad (11) Jaipur (20) Bangalore (12) Jammu (21) Bhopal (13) Kanpur (22) Bhubaneswar (14) Mumbai (25) Kolkata (15) Nagpur (26) Chandigarh (16) New Delhi (27) Chennai (17) Patna (29) Guwahati (18) Thiruvananthapuram (31) Hyderabad (19) Candidates can select only one centre and must indicate its Name and Code No. in the application. In the event of cancellation of 'WE' at any centre, the Board may at its discretion allot an alternative centre to the candidates concerned. Candidates admitted to the 'WE' will be intimated dates, time table and venue of 'WE' through Admission Letters (AL). Candidates will not be admitted to the 'WE' without the AL. Centre and date of 'WE' are liable to be changed at the Board's discretion. Request for change of centre will not be entertained. 6. RELAXATION IN THE UPPER AGE LIMIT : Upper age is relaxable by: 3 years in the case of OBC candidates if the posts are reserved for them. 5 years in the case of: i) Ex-employees of banking institutions whose services had to be terminated for reasons of economy or as a result of bank going into liquidation and personnel retrenched from Government Offices after at least one year's service and applying through Employment Exchanges, ii) Ex-servicemen (including Emergency Commissioned Officers/Short Service Commissioned Officers) provided applicants have rendered at least five years continuous Military Service and have been released on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year) otherwise than byway of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency or/on account of physical disability or have been released on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service or on invalidment, iii) Emergency Commissioned Officers/Short Service Commissioned Officers who have completed their initial period of assignment of five years of Military Service but whose assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues certificates that they would be released on selection within three months from the date of receipt of offer of appointment, iv) Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu and Kashmir between 1st January, 1980 and 31st December, 1989. 10 years for OH/HI (GEN/SC/ST) and 13 years for OH/HI (OBC) candidates. NOTE : CUMULATIVE AGE RELAXATION WILL NOT BE AVAILABLE EITHER UNDER THE ABOVE ITEMS OR IN COMBINATION WITH ANY OTHER ITEMS. 7. SERVICE CONDITIONS / CAREER PROSPECTS i) Pay Scale: Selected Candidates will draw a starting basic pay of Rs.21,000/- p.m. in the scale of Rs.21000-1000-30000-EB-1000-32000-1100-36400 applicable to Officers in Grade B and they will also be eligible for Dearness Allowance, Local allowance, House Rent Allowance, Family Allowance and Grade Allowance as per rules in force from time to time. At present, initial monthly Gross emoluments to Direct Recruit Grade B Officers are approximately Rs. 38,276/-. NOTE: For candidates possessing very high academic or professional qualification/ experience of significant value to the Bank, the Bank may, at its sole discretion, consider granting up to four advance increments. The Board, at the sole discretion, will consider requests for higher emoluments on account of higher qualification/special experience of value to the Bank at the interview stage only. Such information may be furnished in the Bio-data form in the appropriate column. The number of maximum increments will be4. The Board/Bank will not entertain any request received after the interview. ii) Perquisites: Bank's accommodation subject to availability, reimbursement of expenses for maintenance of vehicle for official purpose, newspaper, telephone charges, book grant, allowance for furnishing of residence, etc. as per eligibility. Free dispensary facility besides reimbursement of medical expenses for OPD treatment/hospitalization as per eligibility. Interest free festival advance, Leave Fare Concession (once in two years for self, spouse and eligible dependents). Loans and Advances at concessional rates of interest for Housing, Car, Education, Consumer Articles, Personal Computer, etc. The posts also carry benefits of Provident Fund, Pension and Gratuity. Total pay and allowances along with admissible perquisites attached to the post work out to Rs10.00 lakhs p.a. (approx.) on a Cost to the Bank basis. iii) At certain centres, limited number of residential quarters are available. Facility for securing residential accommodation on lease, however, exists at all centres. iv) Initial appointment will be on probation for a period of two years which may, at Bank's discretion, be extended upto a maximum period of four years. v) There are reasonable prospects for promotion to higher grades. vi) Selected candidates are liable to be posted and transferred anywhere in India. 8. APPLICATION FEE (NON-REFUNDABLE): Rs.100/- (Rupees one hundred only). No fee is payable by SC/ST/OH/HI candidates. Fee is payable by Demand Draft favouring Reserve Bank of India and payable at Mumbai only. However, candidates from un-banked areas may pay fee by crossed Indian Postal Orders in favour of Reserve Bank of India payable at GPO, Mumbai. Candidates should write their Name and Address on the reverse of the Demand Draft and in the space provided for the purpose on the Postal Orders (if fee is payable) and enclose them to the application with a pin (should not be stapled). Fees sent separately not accompanied with proper application or payment in any other manner will not be accepted. Fees once paid will not be refunded under any circumstances. 9. GENERAL RULES / INSTRUCTIONS: i) APPLICATION FORMAT (FOR OFF-LINE MODE) IS GIVEN ATTHE END. CANDIDATES APPLYING BY OFF-LINE MODE SHOULD APPLY STRICLY IN CONFORMITY WITH THE FORMAT AS PRESCRIBED. ii) APP. NOT ACCOMPANIED BY PRESCRIBED FEES (UNLESS EXEMPTED) OR INCOMPLETE/ILLEGIBLE/NOT IN THE PRESCRIBED FORMAT/WITHOUT PHOTOGRAPH/WITHOUT SIGNATURE WILL BE REJECTED AND NO CORRESPONDENCE IN THIS REGARD WILL BE ENTERTAINED BYTHE BOARD. iii) APPLICATION MUST BE COMPLETED IN ALL RESPECTS. INCOMPLETE APPLICATIONS WILL NOT BE CONSIDERED. iv) CANDIDATES SHOULD NOT ENCLOSE ANY CERTIFICATES OR COPIES THEREOF WITH THE APPLICATION. THEIR CANDIDATURE WILL BE CONSIDERED ON THE STRENGTH OF THE INFORMATION DECLARED IN THE APPLICATION. IF AT ANY STAGE, IT IS FOUND THAT ANY INFORMATION FURNISHED IN THE APR IS FALSE/INCORRECT OR IF ACCORDING TO THE BOARD, THE CANDIDATE DOES NOT SATISFY THE ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA, HIS/HER CANDIDATURE/APPOINTMENT IS LIABLE TO BE CANCELLED/TERMINATED. v) ALL EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS MUST HAVE BEEN OBTAINED FROM RECOGNISED UNIVERSITIES/INSTITUTIONS IN INDIA OR ABROAD. IF GRADES ARE AWARDED INSTEAD OF MARKS, CANDIDATES SHOULD CLEARLY INDICATE THEIR NUMERICAL EQUIVALENT. vi) CANDIDATES SHOULD SATISFY THEMSELVES ABOUT THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE POST APPLIED FOR. THE BOARD WOULD ADMIT TO THE WE'ALL THE CANDIDATES APPLYING FOR THIS POST WITH THE REQUISITE FEE (WHEREVER APPLICABLE) ON THE BASIS OF THE INFORMATION FURNISHED IN THE APP. AND SHALL DETERMINE THEIR ELIGIBILITY ONLY AT THE FINAL STAGE I.E. WHILE CALLING THEM FOR INTERVIEW. vii) THE BOARD SHALL NOT ENTERTAIN REQUESTS FROM THE CANDIDATES SEEKING ADVICE ABOUTTHEIRELIGIBILITYTO APPLY. viii) THE LIST OF CANDIDATES ADMITTED FOR THE 'WE' WOULD BE DISPLAYED ON THE RBI WEBSITE. IF A CANDIDATE DOES NOT RECEIVE ADMISSION LETTER (AL) FOR 'WE'/ANY OTHER COMMUNICATION FROM THE BOARD, HE/SHE SHOULD CONTACT THE IN-CHARGE OF THE RBI OFFICE DURING OFFICE HOURS, AT THE EXAMINATION CENTRE INDICATED IN THE APPLICATION ALONG WITH DULY SIGNED PASSPORT SIZE PHOTOGRAPH, TWO DAYS BEFORE THE DATE OF EXAMINATION FOR NECESSARY GUIDANCE. FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH ABOVE INSTRUCTIONS WILL DEPRIVE THE CANDIDATE OF ANY CLAIM FOR CONSIDERATION. ix) CANDIDATES WILL HAVE TO APPEAR FOR THE 'WE' AT THEIR OWN EXPENSES. HOWEVER, THOSE CALLED FOR INTERVIEW, WILL BE REIMBURSED TO AND FRO ACTUAL FIRST CLASS/II AC RAILWAY FARE BY THE SHORTEST ROUTE FROM THE PLACE OF THEIR RESIDENCE/PLACE OF WORK TO THE PLACE OF INTERVIEW WHICHEVER IS NEARER. x) IN ALL CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE BOARD, ROLL NO. INDICATED IN 'AL' MUST BE QUOTED. xi) CHANGE OF ADDRESS, IF ANY SHOULD BE INFORMED TO THE BOARD IMMEDIATELY ALTHOUGH EVERY EFFORT WILL BE MADE TO TAKE ON RECORD SUCH CHANGES, THE BOARD DOES NOT ACCEPT ANY RESPONSIBILITY IN THE MATTER, PARTICULARLY WHEN THE TIME GAP BETWEEN RECEIPT OF INTIMATION AND DATE OF EXAMINATION / INTERVIEW IS VERYSHORT. xii) CANDIDATES ALREADY IN SERVICE OF GOVT/QUASI-GOVT. ORGANISATIONS AND PUBLIC SECTOR BANKS /UNDERTAKINGS WILL HAVE TO PRODUCE A "NO OBJECTION CERTIFICATE" FROM THEIR EMPLOYER, AT THE TIME OF INTERVIEW. HOWEVER, BEFORE APPOINTMENT IN RBI, A PROPER DISCHARGE CERTIFICATE FROM THE EMPLOYER WILL HAVE TO BE PRODUCED. IF THE APR IS REQUIRED TO BE ROUTED THROUGH THE EMPLOYER AND IN THE PROCESS IT REACHES THE BOARD'S OFFICE AFTER THE CLOSING DATE, IT WILL NOT BE CONSIDERED EVEN THOUGH THE APPLICANT SUBMITTED THE APP. TO THE EMPLOYER BEFORE THE CLOSING DATE. IN SUCH CASES, APP. MARKED 'ADVANCE COPY' SHOULD BE SENT TO THE BOARD'S OFFICE DIRECT, TOGETHER WITH FEE AND THE REGULAR COPY (WITHOUT FEE) SHOULD BE ROUTED THROUGH THE EMPLOYER. xiii) CANVASSING IN ANY FORM WILL BE A DISQUALIFICATION. xiv) IN ALL MATTERS REGARDING ELIGIBILITY, CONDUCT OF EXAMINATIONS, INTERVIEW, ASSESSMENT, PRESCRIBING MINIMUM QUALIFYING STANDARDS IN 'WE' AND INTERVIEW, IN RELATION TO NUMBER OF VACANCIES AND COMMUNICATION OF RESULT, THE BOARD'S DECISION SHALL BE FINAL AND BINDING ON THE CANDIDATES AND NO CORRESPONDENCE SHALL BE ENTERTAINED IN THIS REGARD. xv) MOBILE PHONES, PAGERS, OR ANY OTHER COMMUNICATION DEVICES ARE NOT ALLOWED INSIDE THE PREMISES, WHERE THE EXAMINATION IS BEING CONDUCTED. ANY INFRINGEMENT OF THESE INSTRUCTIONS SHALL ENTAIL DISQUALIFICATION INCLUDING BAN FROM FUTURE EXAMINATIONS. xvi) THE BOARD DOES NOT FURNISH THE MARK-SHEET TO CANDIDATES. HOWEVER, 'WE' AND INTERVIEW MARKS MAY BE AVAILABLE ON THE BANKS WEBSITE AFTER THE DECLARATION OF THE FINAL RESULT. xvii) THE POST IS ALSO OPEN TO THE EMPLOYEES OF RBI (STAFF CANDIDATES) WHO SATISFYTHE ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA SEPARATELY STIPULATED BYTHE BANK. 10. SUBMISSION OF THE APPLICATION: Candidates can apply for the post/s either on the prescribed Application (OFF-LINE) or submit the application ON-LINE followed up by sending a printout (hardcopy) of the online application to the Board's office. i) ON-LINE: The candidate can apply ON-LINE using the link/URL http://onlinedr.rbi.org.in Detailed Instructions for Applying ON-LINE' are available on this link. Candidates should read the Instructions carefully and then click on "Apply" link. Salient features of the system of ON-LINE Application are given hereunder: Before starting filling up of ON-LINE application, a candidate must purchase the DD or IPO for Rs.100/- (except SC/ST/OH/HI candidates who are exempted from payment of fees). Fee exempted category candidates can straightway fill the ON-LINE application. Candidates NEED to take a PRINTOUT (hard copy) of their ON-LINE Application after submission of the data through the system. A signed photograph must be pasted (not to be stapled) at the specified place on the printout and the candidate must sign on the printout of the application and attach DD or IPO of Rs.100/- (if required to pay fee). Candidates need to send the system generated print out (hard copy) of the ON-LINE Application to the Reserve Bank of India Services Board's Office (RBISB) by ordinary post. In case the print out (hard copy) is not received by the Board by the CLOSING DATE mentioned in this advertisement, the ON-LINE application will not be entertained and will be rejected. Applications should not be submitted more than once. Duplicate applications will not be entertained and will be rejected. The ON-LINE applications can be submitted till 11.59 P.M. on February 21,2011 after which the link will be disabled. ii OFF-LINE: The candidates must apply in the Application format published in this advertisement. It should be typed or neatly handwritten in Hindi or English on a good quality "White A- 4 size" paper. All the columns in the application (except PWD category and Fee, if not applicable) must be filled legibly or typed. Incomplete and illegible applications will be rejected. iii. OFF-LINE Application or printout of the ON-LINE Application (hard copy), as the case maybe, have to be sent by ordinary post to "The General Manager, Reserve Bank of India Services Board, Post Bag No. 4618, Mumbai Central Post Office, Mumbal-400008". The cover should be superscribed "APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF MANAGER (TECHNICAL - CIVIL/ ELECTRICAL)" as the case may be. iv. OFF-LINE Application or printout of the ON-LINE Application (hard copy), as the case may be, in closed cover, may also be deposited in the box specially kept for the purpose at Reserve Bank of India, Opposite Mumbai Central Railway Station, Mumbai Central, Mumbai 400008. v. Candidates should apply either by ON-LINE mode (followed up by sending a printout of the online application) or OFF-LINE mode. They should not submit application by both the modes. Duplicate applications will be rejected. 11. CLOSING DATE: i) OFF-LINE Application or the printout of the ON-LINE Application (hard copy), as the case may be, should reach the Board's Office on or before 6.00 P.M. on February 28, 2011. ii) In the case of App. received only by post from candidates living abroad, in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura; Ladakh division of Jammu and Kashmir State; Lahaul and Spiti Districts and Pangi Sub-division of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh; Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep, the last date of receipt of Applications will be on before 6.00 P.M. on March 7, 2011. For Applications received in any manner other than by post, the benefit of extended time will not be available. iii) The Board takes no responsibility for any delay in receipt of Applications or loss thereof in postal transit. 12. CHECK-LIST FOR SUBMISSION OF THE APPLICATION: i) The Format of the application given below should not itself be used as application. ii) The App. strictly in conformity with the Format as prescribed must be typed or neatly hand-written in Hindi or English on a good quality "White A4 size" paper and duly affixed (not stapled) with a signed latest passport size photograph. Candidates should ensure that all the entries have been correctly filled in and the Application, as also the photograph are signed. Application without signature, photo, fee (if applicable), not in prescribed Format, incomplete or illegible shall be rejected. iii) Name and Address in the application must be written IN CAPITAL LETTERS in English only, since processing is computerized. iv) Candidates should write their name and address on the reverse of the Demand Draft and in the space provided for the purpose on the Postal Orders (if fee is payable) and enclose them to the application with a pin (should not be stapled). v) The post applied for should be superscribed on top of the cover containing the Application. vi) Candidates must ensure that the Application [either OFF-LINE or printout of the ON-LINE] along with DD/IPO (if applicable) should reach the Board's office on or before the CLOSING DATE. Even after the successful submission of ON-LINE application through the system, unless the system generated print-out of the ON­LINE application together with fee (if applicable), photograph and signature is received by post at the Board's office within the closing date, the ON-LINE application is not valid and will be rejected.