Sunday, January 16, 2011

GATE Civil Engineering Sample Questions

GATE-1999

Civil Engineering

SECTION A (75 Marks)


1. This question consists of 35 (Thirty five) multiple choice type sub-questions, each carrying one mark. The answer to the multiple choice questions MUST be written only in the boxes corresponding to the question by writing A, B, C, or D in the answer book. (35 x 1 = 35)

1.1 Limit of the function lim n ® ¥ GATE CE 2

(a) GATE CE 4

(b) 0

(c) ¥

(d) 1

1.2 The function f(x) = e x is

(a) Even (b) Odd

(c) Neither even nor odd (d) None of the above

1.3 If A is any n x n matrix and k is a scalar, | kA | = a | A |, where a is

(a) kn (b) n k

(c) k n (d) k/n

1.4 The infinite series GATE CE 6

(a) Converges (b) Diverges

(c) is unstable (d) Oscillates

1.5 Number of inflection points for the curve y = x + 2 x 4 is

(a) 3 (b) 1

(c) n (d) (n + 1) 2

1.6 Number of terms in the expansion of general determinant of order n is

(a) n 2 (b) n!

(c) n (d) (n + 1) 2

1.7 Two perpendicular axes x and y of a section are called principal axes when

(a) Moments of inertia about the axes are equal (I x =I y)

(b) Product moment of inertia (I xy) is zero

(c) Product moments of inertia (I x x I y) is zero

(d) Moment of inertia about one of the axes is greater than the other

1.8 In a section, shear centre is a point through which, if the resultant load passes, the section will not be subjected to any

(a) Bending (b) Tension

(c) Compression (d) Torsion

1.9 For a fixed beam with span L, having plastic moment capacity of M p, the ultimate

central concentrated load will be

(a) GATE CE 8

(b) GATE CE 10

(c) GATE CE 12

(d) GATE CE 14

1.10 In reinforced concrete, pedestal is defined as compression member, whose effective length does not exceed its dimension by

(a) 12 times (b) 3 times

(c) 16 times (d) 8 times

1.11 The minimum area of tension reinforcement in a beam shall be greater than

(a) GATE CE 16

(b) GATE CE 18

(c) GATE CE 20

(d) GATE CE 22

1.12 The characteristic strength of concrete is defined as that compressive strength below which not more than

(a) 10% of results fall (b) 5% of results fall

(c) 2% of results fall (d) None of the above

1.13 Maximum strain at the level of compression steel for a rectangular section having effective cover to compression steel as d' and neutral axis depth from compression face as x u is

(a) GATE CE 24

(b) GATE CE 26

(c) GATE CE 28

(d) GATE CE 30

1.14 A steel beam supporting loads from the floor slab as well as from wall is termed as

(a) Stringer beam (b) Lintel beam

(c) Spandrel beam (d) Header beam

1.15 The problem of lateral buckling can arise only in those steel beams, which have

(a) moment of inertial about the bending axis larger than the other

(b) moment of inertial about the bending axis smaller than the other

(c) fully supported compression flange

(d) None of the above

1.16 The values of liquid limit and plasticity index for soils having common geological origin in a restricted locality usually define

(a) a zone above A - line

(b) a straight line parallel to A - line

(c) a straight line perpendicular to A - line

(d) points may be anywhere in the plasticity chart

1.17 The toughness index of clayey soils is given by

(a) Plasticity index/Flow index (b) Liquid limit/Plastic limit

(c) Liquidity index/Plastic limit (d) Plastic limit/Liquidity index.

1.18 Principle involved in the relationship between submerged unit weight and saturated weight of a soil is based on

  • Equilibrium of floating bodies
  • Archimedes' principle
  • Stokes' law
  • Darcy's law

1.19 For an anisotropic soil, permeabilities in x and y directions are k x and k y respectively in a two dimensional flow. The effective permeability k eff for the soil is given by

(a) k x + k y

  • GATE CE 32
  • (k x 2 + k y 2) 1/2
  • (k xk y) 1/2

1.20 Cohesion in soil

(a) decreases active pressure and increases passive resistance

(b) decreases both active pressure and passive resistance

(c) increases the active pressure and decreases the passive resistance

(d) increases both active pressure and passive resistance

1.21 Consolidation in soils

(a) is a function of the effective stress

(b) does not depend on the present stress

(c) is a function of the pore water pressure

(d) is a function of the total stress

1.22 The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic jump in a rectangular horizontal channel is 10.30. The Froude Number at the beginning of the jump is

(a) 5.64 (b) 7.63

(c) 8.05 (d) 13.61

1.23 In an iceberg, 15% of the volume projects above the sea surface. If the specific weight of sea water is 10.5 kN/m 3, the specific weight of iceberg in kN/m 3 is

(a) 12.52 (b) 9.81

(c) 8.93 (d) 7.83

1.24 The ordinate of the Instantaneous Unit Hydrograph (IUH) of a catchment at any, time t, is

(a) the slope of the 1-hour unit hydrograph at that time

(b) the slope of the direct runoff unit hydrograph at that time

(c) difference in the slope of the S - curve and 1 - hour unit hydrograph

(d) the slope of the S-curve with effective rainfall intensity of 1cm/hr

1.25 An isochrone is a line on the basin map

(a) joining raingauge stations having equal rainfall duration

(b) joining points having equal rainfall depth in a given time interval

(c) joining points having equal time of travel of surface runoff to the catchment outlet.

(d) joining points which are at equal distance from the catchment outlet.

1.26 In a steady radial flow into an intake, the velocity is found to vary as (1/r 2), where r is the radial distance. The acceleration of the flow is proportional to

(a) GATE CE 34

(b) GATE CE 36

(c) GATE CE 38

(d) GATE CE 40

1.27 A soil formation through which only seepage is possible, being partly permeable and capable of giving insignificant yield, is classified as

(a) Aquifer (b) Aquitard

(c) Aquifuge (d) Aquiclude

1.28 Temporary hardness in water is caused by the presence of

(a) Bicarbonates of Ca and Mg (b) Sulphates of Ca and Mg

(c) Chlorides of Ca and Mg (d) Nitrates of Ca and Mg

1.29 Blue baby disease (methaemoglobinemia) in children is caused by the presence of excess

(a) Chlorides (b) Nitrates

(c) Fluoride (d) Lead

1.30 Standard 5-day BOD of a waster water sample is nearly x% of the ultimate BOD, where x is

  • 48
  • 58
  • 68
  • 78

1.31 The minimum dissolved oxygen content (ppm) in a river necessary for the survival of aquatic life is

(a) 0 (b) 2

(c) 4 (d) 8

1.32 Chlorine is sometimes used in sewage treatment

(a) to avoid flocculation

(b) to increase biological activity of bacteria

(c) to avoid bulking of activated sludge

(d) to help in grease separation

1.33 The total length (in km) of the existing National Highways in India is in the range of

  • 15,000 to 25,000
  • 25,000 to 35,000
  • 35,000 to 45,000
  • 45,000 to 55,000

1.34 The relationship between the length (I) and radius (r) of an ideal transition curve is given by

  • l a r
  • l a r 2
  • l a (1/r)
  • l a (1/r 2)

1.35 Rapid curing cutback bitumen is produced by blending bitumen with

(a) Kerosene (b) Benzene

(c) Diesel (d) Petrol

2. This question consists of 20 (Twenty) multiple choice type sub-questions, each carrying TWO marks. The answers to the multiple choice questions MUST be, written only in the boxes corresponding to the question numbers writing A, B, C or D in the answer book. (20 x 2 = 40)


2.1 lf c is a constant, solution of the equation GATE CE 42 = 1 +y 2 is

(a) y = sin (x + c) (b) y = cos (x + c)

(c) Y = tan (x + c) (d) Y = e x + c

2.2 The equation GATE CE 44 represents a parabola passing through the points

(a) (0, 1), (0, 2), (0, - 1) (b) (0, 0), (- 1, 1), (1, 2)

(c) (1, 1), (0, 0), (2, 2) (d) (1, 2), (2, 1), (0, 0)

2.3 The Laplace transform of the function

f(t) = k, 0 <>

= 0, c <>

(a) GATE CE 46

(b) GATE CE 48

(c) GATE CE 50

(d) GATE CE 52

2.4 Value of the function lim (x- a) (x-a) is

x ® a

  • 1
  • 0
  • ¥
  • a

GATE CE 54 2.5 The shape factor of the section shown in Fig. 1 is

  • 1.5
  • 1.12
  • 2
  • 1.7

2.6 The slope of the elastic curve at the free end of a cantilever beam of span L, and with flexural rigidity EI, subjected to uniformly distributed load of intensity w is

(a) GATE CE 56

(b) GATE CE 58

(c) GATE CE 60

(d) GATE CE 62

2.7 If an element of a stressed body is in a state of pure shear with a magnitude of

80N/mn 2, the magnitude of maximum principal stress at that location is

(a) 80 N/mm 2 (b) 113.14 N/mm 2

(c) 120 N/mm 2 (d) 56.57 N/mm 2

2.8 Two steel plates each of width 150 mm and thickness 10 mm are connected with three 20 mm diameter rivets placed in a zig - zag pattern. The pitch of the rivets is 75 mm and gauge is 60 mm. If the allowable tensile stress is 150 MPs, the maximum tensile force that the joint can withstand is

(a) 195.66 kN (b) 195.00 kN

(c) 192.75 kN (d) 225.00 kN

2.9 The two tubes shown in Fig. 2 may be considered to be permeameters. Dimensions of the

sample in Fig. 2 (i) & (ii) are alike, and the elevations of head water and tail water are

the same for both the figures. A, B,……..etc. indicate points and AB, AE,….etc. indicated

GATE CE 64 heads. Head loss through these samples are

  • (i) BD, (ii) FE
  • (i)AC, (ii)AE
  • (i) AD, (ii) AF
  • (i) AB, (ii) AB

2.10 A river 5 m deep consists of a sand bed with saturated unit weight of 20 kN/m 3

v w = 9.81 kN/m 3. The effective vertical stress at 5m from the top of sand bed is

(a) 41 kN/m 2 (b) 51 kN/m 2

(c) 55 kN/m 2 (d) 53 kN/m 2

2.11 A soil sample in its natural state has mass of 2.290 kg and a volume of 1.15 x10 -3 m 3. After being oven dried, the mass of the sample is 2.035 kg. G s for soil is 2.68. The void ratio of the natural soil is

(a) 0.40 (b) 0.45

(c) 0.55 (d) 0.53

2.12 Triaxial compression test of three soil specimens exhibited the patterns of failure as shown in Fig. 3. Failure modes of the samples respectively are

GATE CE 66

  • (i) brittle, (ii) semi-plastic, (iii) plastic
  • (i) semi-plastic, (ii) brittle, (iii) plastic
  • (i) plastic, (ii) brittle, (iii) semi-plastic
  • (i) brittle, (ii) plastic, (iii) semi-plastic

2.13 A direct runoff hydrograph due to an isolated storm with an effective rainfall of 2 cm was trapezoidal in shape as shown in Fig. 4. The hydrograph cores ponds to a catchment area (in sq. km.) of GATE CE 68

  • 790.2
  • 599.4
  • 689.5
  • 435.3

2.14 The number of revolutions of a current meter in 50 seconds were found to be 12 and 30 corresponding to the velocities of 0.25 and 0.46 m/s respectively. What velocity (in m/s) would be indicated by 50 revolutions of that current meter in one minute?

  • 0.42
  • 0.50
  • 0.60
  • 0.73

2.15 In a river, discharge is 173 mp 3/s; water surface slope is 1 in 6000; and stage at the gauge

station is 10.0 m. If during a flood, the stage at the gauge station is same and the water

surface slope is 1 in 2000, the flood discharge in m 3/s, is approximately

  • 371
  • 100
  • 519
  • 300

2.16 A hydraulic turbine has a discharge of 5 m 3/s, when operating under a head of 20 m with a speed of 500 rpm. If it is to operate under a head of 15 m, for the same discharge, the rotational speed in rpm will approximately be

(a) 433 (b) 403

(c) 627 (d) 388

2.17 Two samples of water A and B have pH values of 4.4 and 6.4 respectively. How many times more acidic sample A is than sample B?

(a) 0 (b) 50

(c) 100 (d) 200

2.18 In a BOD test, 5 ml of waste is added to 295 ml of aerated pure water. Initial dissolved oxygen (D.O.) content of the diluted sample is 7.8 mg/l. After 5 days of incubation at 20°C, the D.O. content of the sample is reduced to 4.4 mg/l. The BOD of the waste water is

  • 196 mg/l
  • 200 mg/l
  • 204 mg/l
  • 268 mg/l

2.19 A parabolic curve is used to connect a 4% upgrade with a 2% downgrade as shown in Fig.5. The highest point on the summit is at a distance of (measured horizontally from the first tangent point-FTP).

GATE CE 70

  • 50 m
  • 60 m
  • 75 m
  • 100 m

2.20 A two lane single carriageway is to be designed for a design life period of 15 years. Total two - way traffic intensity in the year of completion of construction is expected to be 2000 commercial vehicles per day. Vehicle damage factor = 3.0, Lane distribution factor = 0.75. Assuming an annual rate of traffic growth as 7.5%, the design traffic expressed as cumulative number of standard axles, is

(a) 42.9 x 16 6 (b) 22.6 x 16 6

(c) 10.1 X 16 6 (d) 5.3 X 16 6

Saturday, January 15, 2011

ELECTRONICS & INSTRUMENTATION OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. The decibel is a measure of

a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Power
d) Power level

Ans : (d)

2. Power gain in decibels is equal to voltage gain in decibels only when
a) Input impedance is equal to output impedance
b) Output impedance is zero
c) Never
d) Input impedance is zero

Ans : (a)

3. An ideal amplifier has
a) Noise figure of 0 db
b) Noise figure of more than 0 db
c) Noise factor of unity
d) Noise figure of less than 1 db

Ans : (c)

4. Fidelity represents
S1: Reproduction of signal
S2: Reproduction of phase relation
a) S1 and S2 are true
b) S1 and S2 are false
c) S1 false and S2 true
d) S1 true and S2 false

Ans : (d)

5. If the current gain of the amplifier is X, its voltage gain is Y, then its power gain will be
a) X/Y
b) X*Y
c) X+Y
d) X-Y

Ans : (b)

6. In an amplifier, the coupling capacitors are employed for
a) Limiting the bandwidth
b) Matching the impedance
c) Preventing of Dc mixing with input or output
d) Controlling the output

Ans : (c)

7. The amplifier which has no drift is called as
a) Differential amplifier
b) DC amplifier
c) Single ended amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier

Ans : (d)

8. The amplifier gain varies with frequency. This happens mainly due to
a) Miller effect
b) Presence of external and internal capacitance
c) Logarithmic increase in its output
d) Inter stage transformer

Ans : (b)

9. The outstanding characteristics of a D.C. amplifier is its
a) Ability to amplify Dc and low frequency signals
b) Temperature stability
c) Utmost economy
d) Avoidance of frequency sensitive components

Ans : (a)

10. Isolation amplifier actually operates on the principle of
a) Filtering
b) Attenuation
c) Clipping
d) Amplification

Ans : (b)

11. Isolation amplifiers are also called as
a) DC amplifier
b) Output amplifier
c) Inverting amplifier
d) Iso-amps

Ans : (d)

12. The improper response time of the amplifier in the biomedical recorders
a) Affects the gain of the amplifier
b) Delays the signals
c) Changes the shape of the waveform of the signal
d) Attenuates the signals

Ans : (c)

13. To reduce common mode interference during recording of bio signals one can use__________
a) Buffer amplifier
b) Differential amplifier
c) Single ended amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier

Ans : (b)

14. Resistively generated inference arises through incorrect __________________
a) Grounding
b) Current density at the electrodes
c) Supply voltage
d) Input impedance

Ans : (a)

15. CMRR is more in_______________
a) Single ended amplifier
b) Differential amplifier
c) Inverting operational amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier

Ans : (b)

16. For biomedical applications the mostly used amplifier is
a) Single ended amplifier
b) Differential amplifier
c) Inverting operational amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier

Ans : (b)

17. ___________ amplifier is used to drive the recorder.
a) Power amplifier
b) Pre amplifier
c) Operational amplifier
d) Differential amplifier

Ans : (a)

18. When a number of components are fabricated on same IC chip it is necessary to provide isolation between two different components for input interconnection is called __________
a) Input amplification
b) Input differentiation
c) Common mode rejection
d) Input isolation

Ans : (d)

19. A chopper amplifier
a) Converts AC signal from low frequency to high frequency
b) Converts DC signal from low frequency to high frequency
c) Converts AC signal from low frequency to DC high frequency
d) Converts DC signal from low frequency to high frequency

Ans : (b)

20. Power amplifier is provided with
S1: Cross over distortion compensation
S2: Offset control
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false

Ans : (c)

21. Pre amplifier isolation in ECG circuit is to
a) Increase input impedance
b) Decrease input impedance
c) Increase output impedance
d) Decrease output impedance

Ans : (a)

22. Raising input impedance of pre amplifier reduces
a) Input current
b) Output current
c) Stray current
d) Grid current

Ans : (c)

23. Common mode rejection ratio is defined as ratio of
a) Common mode gain to differential mode gain
b) Differential mode gain to common mode gain
c) Common mode gain at input to differential mode gain at input
d) Common mode gain at output to differential mode gain at output

Ans : (b)

24. An electrometer amplifier has high input impedance of
a) 1010?
b) 105?
c) 1020?
d) 1015?

Ans : (d)

25. When the input of differential amplifier V1 = 0, then the differential amplifier is said to be operated in
a) Common mode
b) Differential mode
c) Non inverting mode
d) Inverting mode

Ans : (c)

26. When either one of the inputs to the differential amplifier is equal to zero then it is said to be operated in
a) Single ended mode
b) Differential mode
c) Non inverting mode
d) Inverting mode

Ans : (a)
27. The negative feed back in an amplifier
a) Reduces voltage gain
b) Increases the voltage gain
c) Increases the gain band width product
d) Reduces the input impedances

Ans : (a)

28. Feedback in an amplifier always helps in
a) Increasing its input impedance
b) Increasing its gain
c) Controlling its output
d) Stabilizes its gain

Ans : (c)

29. Using mechanical chopper we cannot achieve high chopping rates due to their
a) Input impedance
b) Output impedance
c) Response time
d) Inertia

Ans : (d)

30. The CMRR of a typical IC OPAMP is
a) 70 dB
b) 80 dB
c) 85 dB
d) 75 dB

Ans : (b)

31. A ————– is usually a display device used to produce a paper record of analog wave form.
a) Graphic pen recorder
b) Electron microscope
c) X-Y recorder
d) Oscilloscope

Ans : (a)

32. The _________ of a recording system is the magnitude of input voltage required to produce a standard deflection in a recorded trace.
a) Accuracy
b) Linearity
c) Sensitivity
d) Resolution

Ans : (c)

33. A recorder is said to have good frequency response when the sensitivity of the system is _________ for all frequencies present in the signal.
a) Unity
b) Zero
c) Infinity
d) Constant

Ans : (d)

34. In phase response of a recorder noise level ___________ with the band width of a system
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Reaches unity
d) Reaches infinity

Ans : (a)

35. Function of microscope is
S1: To magnify object, under observation
S2: To resolve the object
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false

Ans : (c)

36. In electron microscope the projection of the motion on a plane normal to magnetic
induction (B) will be a circle of radius (r) =
a) mVsin?+eB
b) mVsin?/eB
c) mVsin?-eB
d) mVsin?*eB

Ans : (b)

37. Match the following
1. Electron microscope – (A) Electron gun
2. Oscilloscope – (B) Condensing magnetic lens
3. Galvanometric recorder – (C) Recording head
4. Magnetic recorder – (D) Drive motor
a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

Ans : (c)

38. In PMMC writing system, the magnitude of pen deflection is proportional to
S1: Current flowing through the coil
S2: Voltage in the coil
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false

Ans : (a)

39. Duration of rotation of pen in the PMMC system depends upon ___________
a) Phase angle
b) Frequency
c) Magnitude
d) Direction

Ans : (d)

40. The shorter wave length of the electron permits the detailed examination of tiny objects due to reduction of ___________ effects
a) Reflection
b) Diffraction
c) Refraction
d) Polarization

Ans : (b)

41. Which of the following recorder gives slow response
a) X-Y recorder
b) Oscillographic
c) Galvanometric
d) Magnetic

Ans : (c)

42. The use of storage oscilloscope
S1: Viewing rapidly changing non repetitive wave forms
S2: Recording average values
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false

Ans : (b)

43. In X-Y recorders, the self balancing potentiometers plot emf as a function of
a) Another emf
b) Frequency
c) Time
d) Pressure

Ans : (a)

44. In strip chart recorders, the self balancing potentiometers plot emf as a function of
a) Another emf
b) Frequency
c) Time
d) Pressure

Ans : (c)

45. The slewing speed of X-Y recorder is
a) 1.6 m/s
b) 1.3 m/s
c) 1.4 m/s
d) 1.5 m/s

Ans : (d)


46. The resolution limit of electron microscope is
a) 2 A.V
b) 1 A.V
c) 1.5 A.V
d) 1.2 A.V

Ans : (b)

47. _____________ is also known as halftone storage or mersh storage.
a) Variable persistence storage
b) Bistable storage
c) Flat storage
d) CRT

Ans : (a)

48. Storage oscilloscope operates on the principle of
a) Primary emission
b) Deflection
c) Secondary emission
d) Diffusion

Ans : (c)

49. The writing speed of fast storage oscilloscope is
a) 2000 cm/?s
b) 1000 cm/?s
c) 1500 cm/?s
d) 2500 cm/?s

Ans : (a)

50. Stress and strain curves are plotted using
a) Magnetic tape recording
b) X-Y recording
c) Galvanometric
d) PMMC writing systems

Ans : (b)

ELECTRONICS & INSTRUMENTATION QUESTIONS

1. Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers.
a) Active
b) Passive
c) Secondary
d) Inverse
Ans : (a)

2. The transducers that converts the input signal into the output signal, which is a discrete function of time is known as ___________ transducer.
a) Active
b) Analog
c) Digital
d) Pulse
Ans : (c)

3. A transducer that converts measurand into the form of pulse is called
a) Active transducer
b) Analog transducer
c) Digital transducer
d) Pulse transducer
Ans : (d)

4. Which of the following is a digital transducer?
a) Strain gauge
b) Encoder
c) Thermistor
d) LVDT
Ans : (b)

5. Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of
a) Active transducers
b) Passive transducers
c) Analog transducers
d) Primary transducers
Ans : (c)

6. An inverse transducer is a device which converts
a) An electrical quantity into a non electrical quantity
b) Electrical quantity into mechanical quantity
c) Electrical energy into thermal energy
d) Electrical energy into light energy
Ans : (a)

7. A strain gauge is a passive transducer and is employed for converting
a) Mechanical displacement into a change of resistance
b) Pressure into a change of resistance
c) Force into a displacement
d) Pressure into displacement
Ans : (a)

8. Resolution of a transducer depends on
a) Material of wire
b) Length of wire
c) Diameter of wire
d) Excitation voltage
Ans : (c)

9. The sensitivity factor of strain gauge is normally of the order of
a) 1 to 1.5
b) 1.5 to 2.0
c) 0.5 to 1.0
d) 5 to 10
Ans : (b)

10. In wire wound strain gauges, the change in resistance is due to
a) Change in diameter of the wire
b) Change in length of the wire
c) Change in both length and diameter
d) Change in resistivity
Ans : (c)

11. Bonded wire strain gauges are
a) Exclusively used for construction of transducers
b) Exclusively used for stress analysis
c) Used for both stress analysis and construction of transducer
d) Pressure measurement
Ans : (c)

12. Certain type of materials generates an electrostatic charge or voltage when mechanical force is applied across them. Such materials are called
a) Piezo-electric
b) Photo-electric
c) Thermo-electric
d) Photo-resistive
Ans : (a)

13. Quartz and Rochelle salt belongs to ___________ of piezo-electric materials
a) Natural group
b) Synthetic group
c) Natural or Synthetic group
d) Fiber group
Ans : (a)

14. Which of the following are piezo electric substances?
1. Barium titanate
2. Lead titanate
3. Lead Zirconate
4. Cadmium and sulphate
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1,3and4
c) 1,2and 3
d) 2,3and 4
Ans : (c)

15. Piezo-electric transducers are
a) Passive transducers
b) Inverse transducers
c) Digital transducers
d) Pulse transducers
Ans : (b)

16. Piezo – electric transducers work when we apply _____________ to it.
a) Mechanical force
b) Vibrations
c) Illuminations
d) Heat
Ans : (d)
17. Piezo electric crystal can produce an emf
a) When external mechanical force is applied to i
b) When radiant energy stimulates the crystal
c) When external magnetic field is applied
d) When the junction of two such crystals are heated
Ans : (a)

18. The draw backs of strain gauges are
S1: Low fatigue life
S2: They are expensive, brittle and sensitive to temperature
S3: Poor linearity
a) S1 and S2
b) S2 and S3
c) S1 and S3
d) S1 only
Ans : (b)

19. LVDT windings are wound on
a) Steel sheets
b) Aluminium
c) Ferrite
d) Copper
Ans : (c)

20. The size of air cored transducers in comparison to the iron core parts is
a) Smaller
b) Larger
c) Same
d) Unpredictable
Ans : (b)

21. The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of
a) Self inductance
b) Mutual inductance
c) Reluctance
d) Permanence
Ans : (b)

22. LVDT is an/a ___________ transducer
a) Magneto-strict ion
b) Inductive
c) Resistive
d) Eddy current
Ans : (d)

23. Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal?
a) Force
b) Velocity
c) Sound
d) Pressure
Ans : (a)

24. S1: Transducer is a device which converts physical into electrical quantity
S2: Transducer is also called as sensor.
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans (b)

27. In a LVDT, the two secondary voltages
a) Are independent of the core position
b) Vary unequally depending on the core position
c) Vary equally depending on the core position
d) Are always in phase quadrature
Ans : (b)

28. Capacitive transducers are normally employed for___________ measurements
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Transient
d) Both static and dynamic
Ans : (b)

29. Match the following
1. EEG A. Diagnostic tool for heart alignment
2. ECG B. Diagnostic tool for brain alignment
3. Sphygmo-manometer C. Instrument used for measuring blood pressure
4. Stethoscope D. instrument used to hear pulse/heart beat
a) 1- B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
c) 1- C, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – D
d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
Ans : (a)

30. Pick the correct statement regarding functions of a transducer
S1: Sense the magnitude, change in & / or frequency of same measurand
S2: To provide electrical output that furnishes accurate, quantitative data about the measurand
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)

31. The transducers which requires an external power and their output is a measure of some variation such as resistance, inductance, capacitance etc., are called as
a) Active transducer
b) Primary sensor
c) Passive transducer
d) Self generating transducer
Ans : (c)

32. The principle of operation of variable resistance transducer is
a) Deformation leads to change in resistance
b) Displacement of a contact slider on a resistance
c) Coupling of two coils changes with displacement
d) Movement of magnetic field produces variation in resistance of material
Ans : (b)

33. The application of LVDT is
a) Joint motion
b) Finger movement
c) Limb movement
d) Heart wall motion
Ans : (c)

34. Venturi is associated with
a) Venous blood pressure
b) Digital plethysmography
c) Dialysate flow in artificial kidney
d) Blood flow in heart lung machine
Ans : (d)

35. Pressure transducer for measuring blood pressure is
a) Strain gauge transducer only
b) Strain gauge or capacitive transducer
c) Resistive transducer
d) Fiber optic transducer
Ans : (b)

36. The change in resistance of a metal wire owing to strain is due to
S1: Change in dimension of wire expressed by factor (1-2µ)
S2: Change in resistance ??
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (b)

37. In foil strain gauge the thickness of foil varies from
a) 2.5 micron to 6 micron
b) 25 micron (or) less
c) 25 micron to 60 micron
d) 2.5 micron to 5 micron
Ans : (a)
38. Photo conductive cell consists of a thin film of
a) Quartz
b) Lithium sulphate
c) Barium titanate
d) Selenium
Ans : (d)

39. S1: In multimode fiber optics, intensity modulating schemes can be employed.
S2: Schemes using polarizing techniques need birefringent fiber.
a) S1 is true and S2 is false
b) Both S1 and S2 are true
c) S1 is false and S2 is true
d) Both S1 and S2 are false
ans (b)

40. Test electrode is also known as
a) Indicator electrode
b) Reference electrode
c) Second electrode
d) Primary electrode
Ans : (a)

41. Most commonly used indicator electrode is
a) Calomel electrode
b) Silver electrode
c) Silver – Silver chloride electrode
d) Glass electrode
Ans : (d)

42. _____________ is the example of photo emissive cell
a) LDR
b) Photo diode
c) Photo transistor
d) Photo multiplier
Ans : (a)

43. pH value of venous blood is
a) 7.30
b) 7.40
c) 7.35
d) 7.45
Ans : (c)

44. Silver chloride electrode is used as a reference electrode due to its
a) Large half cell potential
b) Stable half cell potential
c) Stable resting potential
d) Stable action potential
Ans : (b)

45. The capacitance microphone is used for the detection of
a) Heart rate
b) Blood flow
c) Heart sound
d) Foot pressure
Ans : (c)
46. In a graded index fiber, the total reflected light takes a ___________
a) Straight line path
b) Parabolic path
c) Elliptical path
d) Circular path
Ans (b)

47. ____________ fiber is used in interferometric instruments.
a) Monomode
b) Multimode
c) Birefringent
d) Coated
Ans (a)

48. Fiber optic sensor can be used to sense _________
a) Displacement
b) Power
c) Current
d) Resistance
Ans (a)

49. Photo multiplier consists of
a) 1 Photo emissive cathode & 2 dynodes
b) 2 Photo emissive cathodes & 2 dynodes
c) 2 Photo emissive cathodes & 1 dynode
d) 1 Photo emissive cathode & 1 dynode
Ans : (a)

50. The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy.
a) Remains unaltered
b) Increases
c) Reaches maximum
d) Decreases
Ans : (d)

Monday, January 10, 2011

IOCL RECRUITMENT

Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.
(Pipelines Division)
Northersn Region Pipelines, Panipat Refinery, Panipat (Haryana) - 132140


Applications are invited from Indian Nationals in Indian Oil for following posts :
  1. Engineering Assistant (Mechanical) Gr.-IV : 05 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 11900-32000
  2. Engineering Assistant (Electrical) Gr.-IV : 07 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 11900-32000
  3. Engineering Assistant (Telecom & Instrumentation) Gr.-IV: 06 posts, Rs. 11900-32000
  4. Junior Accounts Assistant Gr.IV: 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 11900-32000
  5. Technical Assistant - Gr.I : 17 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 10500-24500

Age : 18-26 years as on 31/12/2010.

Application Fee : Crossed Demand Draft for Rs. 100/- drawn in favour of Indian Oil Corporation Limited - Pipelines Division payable at SBI, Panipat. SC/ST/PH candidates are exempted from payment of application fee.

How to Apply : Apply in the prescribed format to Senior Human Source Manager, Northern Region Pipelines, PO Panipat Refinery, Panipat-132140 latest by 31/01/2011.

please view http://www.iocl.com/ for application form.

UPSC Engineering Services Examination-2011


Engineering Services Examination-2011

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will hold the Engineering Services Examination, 2011 from 14th May, 2011 for recruitment to the posts of Indian Engineering Service. The Examination will be held at various centres across the country.

Eligibility:
  • Age : Not less than 21 years and not more than 30 years as on 1st August, 2011. The upper age is relaxable for SC/ST/OBC and certain other categories of candidates to the extent specified in the Notice.
  • Educational Qualification: Candidate must hold a degree in Engineering or equivalent. Provided that a candidate applying for the posts of Indian Naval Armament Service (Electronics Engineering Posts) and Engineer Group A in Wireless Planning & Coordination Wing/Monitoring Organisation may possess M.Sc.Degree or its equivalent with Wireless Communication, Electronics, Radio Physics or Radio Engineering as a special subject. Candidates who qualify on the results of the written part of the examination will be summoned for personality test.
  • Physical Standards: Candidates must be physically fit according to the Regulations given in notice.
Fee: Rs.50/- for the candidates applying Online and Rs.100/- for the candidates applying Offline (for remote area candidates only) through Central Recruitment Fee Stamp only. SC/ST/Female candidates are exempted from payment (OBC candidates required to pay full fee).

How To Apply: Apply Online at UPSC website upto 07/02/2011 at UPSC website http://upsconline.nic.in/mainmenu2.php. Only those candidates who are in remore difficult areas can apply offline. Those who wants to apply Offline, must apply in the Common Application Form which can be purchased from the designated Post Officers throughout the country by paying cash Rs.20. This offline application must reach the "Controller of Examinations, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi-110069" either by hand or by Post/Speed Post/ Courier on or before the 14/02/2011.

Candidates can obtain details of the examination and can get information about registration of their applications, venues of the examination and syllabus etc. at the website of the UPSC at http://upsc.gov.in/ or see Employment News dated 08/01/2011.

Heavy Water Board (HWB) Recruitment

Heavy Water Board (HWB)
Department of Atomic Energy, Government of India
V.S.Bhavan, 4th floor, Anushaktinagar, Mumbai - 400094

Advertisement No. HWB/232010

Applications are invited for the following posts:
  1. Category-I Trainees : 37 posts (Chemical-18, Mechanical-6, Electrical-4, Instrumentation-2, Chemistry (Laboratory)-7), Stipend : Rs. 9300/- p.m. (consolidated) plus Book Allowance of Rs. 1500/- as one time grant, will be posted as Scientific Assistant/B – in Pay Band of Rs. 9300-34800 and Grade Pay of Rs. 4200 (PB-2), Age : 18-25 years
  2. Category-II Trainees : 31 posts (Mechanical (Fitter) -5, Mechanical (Turner) -2, Electrical-1, Instrument - Mechanic-1, Cane Operator-3, Lab Technician-2, Process/ Plant Operator - 17) , Stipend : Rs. 6200/- p.m. (consolidated and no allowances are admissible) plus Book Allowance of Rs. 1500/- as one time grant, will be posted as Technician/B - in Pay Band of Rs. 5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs. 2000 (PB-1) or as Technician/C - in Pay Band of Rs. 5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs. 2400 (PB-1)., Age : 18-22 years
  3. Station Officer / A : 02 posts, Age : 18-40 years, Pay Scale : Pay Band of Rs. 9300-34800 with Grade Pay of Rs. 4800 (PB-2).

How to Apply : Apply in the prescribed application format alongwith a attested copies of certificates and a recent passport size photograph should be affixed on the right hand top corner of the application should be send to Administrative Officer-III, Heavy Water Board, Vikram Sarabhai Bhavan, 4th Floor, Anushaktinagar, Mumbai - 400094 so as to reach on oe before 31/01/2011. The application and the outer cover should be superscribed as "Application for the post of ______, Post No. ___ Discipline ____ against Advertisement No. HWB/3/2010".

Please visit http://www.heavywaterboard.org/htmldocs/advt/Adv_3_2011.asp for details and application form.

Saturday, January 8, 2011

ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Ohm’s law applicable for

(a) linear circuits only

(b) non linear circuits only

(c) both linear and non linear circuits

(d) none of these

Ans: a
2. Unit of current is

(a) Ampere

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) Volt-ampere
Ans: a
3. What is the equivalent resistance when 10 Ohms and 20 Ohms resistors are connected

in series

(a) 35 Ohms

(b) 25 Ohms

(c) 30Ohms

(d) none of these
Ans: c
4. Form factor is defined as the ratio of

(a) Average value to Maximum value

(b) Maximum value to Average value

(c) Peak value to R.M.S Value

(d) R.M.S Value to Average value
Ans: d
5. R.M.S Value of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is

(a) VM/3

(b) VM/2

(c) VM/Ö2

(d) none of these
Ans: c
6. Power factor for resistive load is

(a) Zero

(b) Unity

(c) Infinity

(d) 0.2
Ans: b
7. voltage is a ——quantity

(a) Scalar

(b) Vector

(c) Scalar and Vector

(d) none of these
Ans: b
8. In D.C , Capacitor acts as

(a) Short circuit

(b) Open circuit

(c) either (a)or (b)

(d) none of these
Ans: b
9 In 3 phase star circuit, phase voltage is

(a) VPh =Ö3 VL

(b) VPh = VL /Ö3

(c) VPh = VL

(d) VPh =3 VL
Ans: b
10. In 3 phase delta circuit, line current is

(a) IL =I Ph

(b) IL =2 I Ph

(c) IL =3 I Ph

(d) IL =Ö3 I Ph
Ans:d
11. What is the equivalent resistance when 20Ohms and 20Ohms resistors are

connected in parallel

(a) 45 Ohms

(b) 10Ohms

(c) 54 Ohms

(d) 30Ohms
Ans: b
12. Voltage-Current relationship in resistor element is

(a) In phase

(b) Out of phase

(c) No Relation

(d) constant
Ans:a

13. For high voltage applications which type of 3 phase circuit to be Preferred

(a) Star

(b) Delta

(c) Star or Delta

(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: b
14. What is the unit of Reactive Power

(a) KVA

(b) KW

(c) HP

(d) KVAR
Ans:d
15. R.M.S Value of Half wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is

(a) VM/3

(b) VM/2

(c) VM/Ö2

(d) none of these
Ans: b
16. Current is defined as

(a) Charge/time

(b) Time/charge

(c) power/time

(d) None of these
Ans:a
17. Active elements are

(a) Voltage sources only

(b) Current sources only

(c) Resistors only

(d) Both Voltage and Current sources
Ans: d

18. In Bilateral Network the current flows in

(a) Unidirectional

(b) Bidirectional

(c) Rotational

(d) None of these
Ans: b

19. D.C has

(a) Constant magnitude

(b) Variable magnitude

(c) Fixed Polarities

(d) Constant magnitude and Fixed Polarities
Ans: d

20. In Capacitive circuit, Current flows in the capacitor

(a) i=C (dv/dt)

(b) i=V(dc/dt)

(c) i=C(di/dt)

(d) i=Ct
Ans: a

21. Unit of voltage is

(a) Ampere

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) Volt-ampere
Ans: b

22. Peak factor is defined as the ratio of

(a) Average value to Maximum value

(b) Maximum value to Average value

(c) Peak value to R.M.S Value

(d) R.M.S Value to Average value
Ans: c
23. Average value is

(a) area/period

(b) period/area

(c) length/area

(d) none of these
Ans: a
24. Unit of power is

(a) Ampere

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) joules
Ans:c
25. Unit of apparent power is

(a) Ampere

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) Volt-ampere
Ans:d
26. Unit of energy is

(a) KWH

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) Volt-ampere
Ans:a
27. A.C has

(a) Constant magnitude

(b) Variable magnitude

(c) Fixed Polarities

(d) Constant magnitude and Fixed Polarities
Ans: b

28. Passive elements are

(a) Voltage sources only

(b) Current sources only

(c) Resistors ,inductors and capacitors

(d) Both Voltage and Current sources
Ans: c

29. In D.C , inductor acts as

(a) Short circuit

(b) Open circuit

(c) both (a)&(b)

(d) none of these
Ans: a

30. In Unilateral Network the current flows in

(a) Unidirectional

(b) Bidirectional

(c) Rotational

(d) None of these
Ans: a

31. Workdone is

(a) F.d

(b) E/F

(c) IR

(d) None of these
Ans: a

32. Unit of Resistance is

(a) Ampere

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) ohms
Ans: d

33. Unit of inductance is

(a) Ampere

(b) Volt

(c) Watt

(d) henry
Ans: d

34. Unit of capacitance is

(a) Ampere

(b) farad

(c) Watt

(d) henry
Ans: b

35. For high current applications which type of 3 phase circuit is Preferred

(a) Star

(b) Delta

(c) Star or Delta

(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: a
36. For low voltage applications which type of 3 phase circuit to be Preferred

(a) Star

(b) Delta

(c) Star or Delta

(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: a
37. Unit of charge is

(a) Ampere

(b) coulomb

(c) Watt

(d) henry
Ans: b
38. EMF is

(a) Election motion force

(b) Electrical motion force

(c) Electro motive force

(d) None of these
Ans: c

39. MMF is

(a) Magnetic motive force

(b) Magnetic motion force

(c) Magneto motive force

(d) None of these
Ans: c

40. Voltage-Current relationship in inductor element is

(a) In phase

(b) 90 (lead)

(c) 90 (lag)

(d) constant
Ans: c

41. Voltage-Current relationship in capacitor element is

(a) In phase

(b) 90 (lead)

(c) 90 (lag)

(d) constant
Ans: b

42. When two inductors are connected in series, equivalent inductance is

(a) L1+L2

(b) 1/(L1+L2)

(c) L1.L2

(d) None of these
Ans: a

43. When two capacitors are connected in series, equivalent capacitance is

(a) C1+C2

(b) 1/(C1+C2)

(c) L1.L2

(d) (1/c1)+(1/c2)
Ans: d

44. R.M.S Value of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is

(a) VM/3

(b) VM/2

(c) VM/Ö2

(d) none of these
Ans:c
45. Form factor of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is

(a) 1.21

(b) 1.11

(c) 4.44

(d) none of these
Ans: b
46. Power factor for pure inductor

(a) 0(lead)

(b) 0

(c) 0(lag)

(d) none of these
Ans: c
47. Power factor for pure capacitor

(a) 0(lead)

(b) 0

(c) 0(lag)

(d) none of these
Ans: a
48. Frequency is defined as

(a) No of cycles/sec

(b) time/cycles

(c) 1/cycles

(d) None of these
Ans: a

49. In Series resistive circuit, voltage across each resistor is

(a) divided

(b) constant

(c) no change

(d) None of these
Ans: a

50. In Series resistive circuit current through each resistor is

(a) divided

(b) same

(c) 0

(d) None of these

Ans:b

51. When two inductors are connected in parallel, equivalent inductance is

(a) L1+L2

(b) (1/L1)+(1/L2)

(c) L1.L2

(d) None of these
Ans: b

52. When two capacitors are connected in parallel, equivalent capacitance is

(a) L1+L2

(b) (1/L1)+(1/L2)

(c) C1+C2

(d) None of these
Ans:c

53.A sinusoidal Wave form is

a)sine wave form

b) triangle wave form

c) both(a)&(b)

d)none of these
Ans:a

54. In 3 phase delta circuit, phase voltage is

(a) VPh =Ö3 VL

(b) VPh = VL /Ö3

(c) VPh = VL

(d) VPh =3 VL
Ans: c
55. In 3 phase star, line current is

(a) IL =I Ph

(b) IL =2 I Ph

(c) IL =3 I Ph

(d) IL =Ö3 I Ph
Ans:a
56.Average value of half wave rectified sine waveform is

a) Vm/?

b) 2Vm/?

c) Vm/2

d) none of these
Ans:a

56 Average value of full wave rectified sine waveform is

a) Vm/?

b) 2Vm/?

c) Vm/2

d) none of these
Ans:b

57 Form factor of half wave rectified sine waveform is

a) Vm/?

b) 2Vm/?

c) 1.57

d) none of these
Ans: c

58. Peak factor of half wave rectified sine waveform is

a) Vm/?

b) 2

c) Vm/2

d) none of these
Ans:b

59. Form factor of full wave rectified sine waveform is

a) 1.11

b) 2Vm/?

c) 1.57

d) none of these
Ans:a

60. Peak factor of full wave sinusoidal waveform is

a) Vm/?

b) square root of 2

c) Vm/2

d) none of these
Ans:b

TATA MOTORS PLACEMENT PAPER (THERMAL MECHANICAL)

1. What is the poison’s ratio?
2. When boiler bursts, whom u would inform?
3. Modular ratio?
4. Envelope of damped free vibration?
5. A ball with a mass M is falling on to the ground with some velocity V1 and raising with velocity V2 . find the impulse?
6. Contd.. for 5th problem. When time of contact is given then force exerted on the ground.
7. two masses are connecting with string on to pulley coefficient of friction of mass m1 is given and also m1 and m2 are given. Find the relation b/n m1 and m2 , to make m2 move downwards
8. In a damped free excitation system maximum amplitude occurs
1. before resonance b. after resonance
9. Questions on set screws?
10. A four bar link mechanism is given with moment m acting on crank and also a force given at crank end. Find the reaction at hinged end of crank.
11. Deflection due to self weight of a uniform rod of diameter D and unit density and length is given .
12. The type of key used in wrist watch?
13. Bending stress is proportional to….? Ans). Section modulus
14. The hypoid gears are …. Ans). Non intersecting non parallel gears.
15. Hollow cylinder of outer D0 is given find the diameter of solid cylinder for the same material and same torsion strength. ?
16. principle plane is ?
17. Two masses are resting on a inclined plane with 30 degree angle and the two masses are welded with weightless rod and coefficients of friction is given. Find the common acceleration of a two masses.
18. two masses are of different weights smaller one is placed on the bigger mass. If the force is force is acting on bigger mass given find the acceleration of smaller mass.
19. Stress on minor diameter of bolt when bolt is subjected to longitudinal force.
20. no of independent elastic constants required for isotropic material?
21. pitch of the bolt of 30 mm metric thread diameter is?
22. the ratio of natural frequency on earth to moon?
23. upper portion of set screw is given fig shown and asked which type of set screw is ?
24. Efficiency of screw jack formula?
25. which of the parts given is harder one? Ans a). inner case b) outer case like that?
26. Max efficiency of screw jack formula?
27. Given some c/s of diffirent types which is having more torsional strength ?
28. Max principle stress theory is valid for which material?
29. efficiency of reveted joints of different types has given which is having max efficiency ?
30. if the roots are real then which type of vibrations will occur in damped systems ?
31. problem on transmissibility ?
32. when the disc is rotating on which on man is standing at the edge then what is the possibility of increase in speed of the disc? A)man moves towards center b) out ward?
33. what is the principle behind the collisions of ball ?which is related to Q.7 ? ans constant linear momentum.
34. Find the elongation of the bar due to self weight
35. Problem on the cantilever deflection
36. Problem on the two blocks connected by string one is on table and on is hanging from the pulley…mechanics’ problem
37. Ratio of the tension of the band block breaks
38. max and normal efficiency of the power skew
39. what is monel metal
40. for which material max normal stress theory is used
41. efficiency of the riveted joints
42. coefficient of friction for the greased ball bearing
43. which key is used in wrist watch
44. bending stress is proportional to 1. directly/inversely proportional to section modulus
45. find the width of the strongest beam that can be cut of cylindrical log of wood whose diametre is ‘d’
46. If the phi is friction angle then which of the following can not be the value of the tan(phi) a) 0 b) 1.5 mu etc. Ans is 0
47. problem on the transmissibility …to calculate dynamic amplitude

Thursday, January 6, 2011

BEML RECRUITMENT

BEML Limited
(A Govt of India Undertaking)
BEML Soudha, 23/1, 4th Main, SR Nagar, Bangalore-560027

BEML Limited is looking for high performing, dynamic & achievement oriented professionals for the following posts various different disciplines :
  1. Deputy General Manager (Public Relations)
  2. Assistant General Manager/ Senior Manager (Production Planning)
  3. Assistant General Manager/ Senior Manager (Marketing, Dealer Management)
  4. Assistant General Manager/ Senior Manager (Security)
  5. Assistant Security Officers

Application Fee : Fee of Rs. 100/- by the payment challan and by remitting the same only in State Bank of India in the BEML Account no. 31006750220.

How to Apply : Eligible and interested candidates may apply Online on or before 24/01/2011 at BEML website onlty.
Please visit http://www.bemlindia.com/job-advt21.php for details and online submission of the application.

Monday, January 3, 2011

BEL GEN APTITUDE SOLVED PAPER

BEL GEN APTITUDE SOLVED PAPER

General Aptitude Solved Test Paper : 2010

  1. In which of the following movements ‘Vande Mataram’ was adotped for the first time as a slogan for agitation?
    (A) Revolt of 1857
    (B) Partition of Bengal in 1905
    (C) Non-cooperation Movement in 1922
    (D) Quit India Movement in 1942

    2. Who warned Gandhiji not to encourage fanaticism of Muslim religious leaders and their followers?
    (A) Agha Khan
    (B) AjmaI Khan
    (C) Hasan Imam
    (D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

    3. Which one of the following is not correct about the Congress Session.of Lucknow, 1916?
    (A) Ambika Charan Majumdar was not the president of this session
    (B) In this session the reunion between the liberal and the extremist was established
    (C) Mahatma was apprised the problems of the peasants Champaran for the first time
    (D) None of the above

    4. Kanpur conspiracy case was against the leaders of?
    (A) Khilafat Movement
    (B) Non-cooperation Movement
    (C) Communist Movement
    (D) Revolutionary Movement

    5. In India “Currency Notes issue system” is based on?
    (A) Minimum reserve system
    (B) Proportional reserve system
    (C) Fixed exchange rate system
    (D) Full convertibility system

    6. ‘Disguised’ unemployment means?
    (A) Persons with no jobs
    (B) Unemployment among house wives
    (C) Unemployment among per sons above 60 years pf age
    (D) Employment of more persons in a job which lesser number of persons can perform

    7. Which of the following statements are true about the income tax in India?
    1. It is a progressive tax,
    2. It is a direct tax.
    3. It is collected by the Government.
    4. It is a proportional tax Select the correct answer from the code given below
    Codes:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 1,2and3only
    (D) 2, 3 and 4 only

    8. ‘SIDBI’ has been established to
    (A) Finance small scale industries
    (B) Finance cottage industries
    (C) Finance large scale industries
    (D) Finance public sector under takings

    9. Gangubai Hangal, who died a few months ago, was a?
    (A) Classical singer
    (B) Dancer
    (C) Painter
    (D) Sitar player

    10. Deep Joshi has recently been given Raman Magsaysay Award in the category of?
    (A) Government service
    (B) Public service
    (C) Community leadership
    (D) Emergent leadership

    11. The missing number in the following series:
    5,10,13,26,29, 58, 61,…
    Is?
    (A) 122
    (C) 128
    (B) 125
    (D) 131

    12. If 2 jeans and 3 shirts cost Rs. 4,000 and jeans and 2 shirts cost Rs. 3,500, how much does a jeans cost?
    (A) Rs. 1,500
    (B) Rs 1,000
    (C)Rs. 500
    (D) Rs. 2,000

    13. Which one of the following expresses error in computer data?
    (A) chip
    (B) byte
    (C) bug
    (D) bit

    14.Assertion (A) Graphite is a good lubricant.
    Reason (R) Graphite is good conductor of electricity.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below
    Codes:

    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (A) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (B) Both (A) and (A) are true but (H) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (D) (A) is false but (A) is true

    15. Acid rain is caused by pollution ot environment by?

    (A) Carbon dioxide and Nitrogen
    (B) Carbon monoxide and Carbon dioxide
    (C) Ozone and Carbon dioxide
    (D) Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide

    16.Which one of the following is called the ‘metal of future’?

    (A)Copper
    (B) Iron
    (C)Titanium
    (D) Aluminum

    17. The earliest coins of India were made of ?
    (A)Copper
    (B) Gold
    (C)Lead
    (D) Silver

    18. The Mongols appeared for the first time on the banks of Indus during the reign of?
    (A) Balban
    (B) Iltutrnish
    (C) Qutubuddin Aibak
    (D) Razia

    19. The first woman ruler of medieval India was?
    (A) Chand Bibi
    (B) Durgavati
    (C) Noorjahan
    (D) Razia

    20. The Moplah Rebellion (1921) took place in?
    (A) Malabar
    (B) Marathawada
    (C) Telengana
    (D) Vidarbha

    21. Which part of the Constitutions of India has been described as the:
    Soul of the Constitution ?
    (A) Directive principles of State policy
    (B) Fundamental rights
    (C) Preamble
    (D) Right to constitutional remedies

    22. The first state to implement the Panchayati Raj System in India was?
    (A) Uttar Pradesh
    (B) Rajasthan
    (C) Gujarat
    (D) Karnataka

    23. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law?
    (A) Prime Minister
    (B) President
    (C) Any High Court
    (D) All of the above

    24. Consider the following statements about the Governor of a State
    1. He is appointed by the President.
    2. He holds office at the pleasure of the President.
    3. The executive power of the: State vests in him.
    4. Normally he holds office for five years.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below
    (A) l and 2
    (B) 1,2 and 3
    (C) 1,2 and 4
    (D) All the four

    25. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
    (A)Ahmedabad—Sabarmati
    (B) Lucknow —Gomti
    (C) Bhubaneshwar—Mahanadi
    (D) Ujjain-Shipra

    26.Dilwara Jain temple is situated at?
    (A)Palitana
    (B) Mount Abu
    (C)Sonagiri
    (D) Girinarji

    27. Which one of the following is the biggest shipping canal in the world?
    (A) Kiel Canal
    (B) Panama Canal
    (C) Soo Canal
    (D) Suez Canal

    28. Where was the battle of Plassey fought?
    (A)Karnal
    (B) Haldighati
    (C)Mysore
    (D) Bengal

    29. Who was the first Vice-President of India?
    (A)Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
    (B)Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    (C)C. V. Raman
    (D)Jawahar Lal Nehru

    30.. What was the reason behind the mutiny of 1857?
    (A) Cartridge containing fat
    (B) Frustration in soldiers
    (C) Failure of British Government
    (D) Administrative research

    31.. Which of the following is UHF?
    (A) 40MHz
    (C) 400 KHz
    (B) 400 MHz
    (D) 40 KHz

    32.. Mass of a particle is m and its momentum is p. Its kinetic energy will be?
    (A)mp
    (B) ppm
    (C) pp/m
    (D) pp/2m

    33. SI . unit of power is ‘watt. It is equivalent to which of the follow ing?
    (A) Kgms-2
    (B)Kgm-2s-2
    (C) Kgm-2s-3
    (D) None of these

    34. Who among the following cricketers scored the highest runs?
    (A) Brien Lara
    (B) Sanat Jaysurya
    (C) Sachin Tendulkar
    (D) Virendra Sehwag

    35. Which is the oldest Veda?
    (A) Samveda
    (B) Rigveda
    (C) Yajurveda
    (D) Atharvaveda

    36. Who was the founder of Pakistan ?
    (A) Mohammad Ali Jinna
    (B) Liyaquat AIi Khan
    (C) Gaffar Khan
    (D) Benazir Bhutto

    37. Who invented television?
    (A)J. L. Baird
    (B) Lawrance -
    (C) Frederick Trechithic
    (D) King Gillette

    38. Who invented wireless?
    (A)Marconi
    (B)Charles Caterin
    (C)George Cayley
    (D)Zenobe Gramme

    39 Which of the following was the battle strategy of Shivaji against Mughals?
    (A) Alert army
    (B) Large army
    (C) Political monopoly
    (D) Guerilla warfare

    40. Find out the next term of the series?
    1,2,4,7,11,………
    (A)16
    (B) 12
    (C) 9
    (D) 4

    41. Which of the following cities is termed as the Pink city?

    (A) Jaipur
    (B) Jodhpur
    (C) Ajrner
    (D) Delhi

    42. Who wrote the Meghdoot?
    (A)Kalidas
    (B) Vatsyayan
    (C) Chanakya
    (D) Premchand

    43. Which of the following is a creation of Maithili-Sharan Gupta?
    (A)Saket
    (B) Urvashi
    (C) Prempachisi
    (D) Gatha

    44. Which is the longest railway line of the world?
    (A) Trans-Siberian
    (B) Trans-Canadian
    (C) Orient Railway line
    (D) Railway line from London to Paris

    45. Which of the following states has the highest number of voters?
    (A) Uttar Pradesh
    (B) Bihar
    (C) Rajasthan
    (D) Gujarat



ANSWERS

1 B 2 B 3 A 4 C 5 A 6 D 7 B 8 A 9 A 10 C 11 A 12 C 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 C 17 A 18 B 19 D 20 A 21 D 22 B 23 B 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 D 28 D 29 A 30 B 31 B 32 D 33 C 34 C 35 B 36 A 37 A 38 A 39 D 40 A 41 A 42 A 43 A 44 A 45 A