APGENCO AE (ASSISTANT ENGINNERS) EXAM

APGENCO 2010 JOB NOTIFICATION

ANDHRA PRADESH POWER GENERATION CORPORATION LIMITED

Many students are waiting for APGENCO 2010 notification and asked many times in comments.Finally APGENCO released recruitment notification today 3rd jun 2010.


NOTIFICATION

APGENCO is the largest power Generating Company of Andhra Pradesh State and is the 3rd largest Power utility (8087.9 MW) in India and has second highest Hydel capacity in the Country want to be the best power utility in the country and one of the best in the world offers excellent opportunities to Professionals.

Position No.of.Vacancies
Notification No. 1 / CGM (Adm) / 2010 TraineeAssistant Engineer (for Engineering Graduates in electrical,Mechanical, Electronics & Civil). 398
(BL-38 + GR-360)
Notification No. 2 / CGM (Adm) / 2010 Trainee Chemist. 35
(BL-1 + GR-34)
Notification No. 3 / JS (Per) / 2010 Trainee JuniorAccountsOfficer. 42
Total: 475

BL: Backlog GR:General Recruitment
Note:The above vacancies are subject to variation based on the necessity and shall be filled as per Rule of Reservation in vogue.

Date of written test:
i. For Chemists, JuniorAccounts Officers & Graduate Civil Engineers – 11-07-2010 .
ii. For Graduate Electrical,Mechanical & Electronics Engineers. – 01-08-2010

How to apply: The candidate has to apply online through www.apgenco.gov.in after carefully going through the detailed notification and instructionsmentioned threin. Online application is accessible from 05-06-2010 to 25-06-2010.

APGENCO AE (ASSISTANT ENGINNERS) EXAM PATTERN,SELECTION PROCEDURE

A. Written test will be conducted in the following manner.

Section.A : Questions on core academic curriculum of respective discipline. The syllabus for the examination is already posted in site plz see similar posts for APGENCO AE syllabus.

Section B : questions on analytical aptitude.

B. The minimum qualifying marks in the written test shall be for OCs – 40%, BCs – 35%, SCs, STs and Physically challenged – 30%.

N.B. Mere securing minimum qualifying marks does not vest any right to a candidate for selection to the post of Trainee Assistant Engineer.

C. Only those candidates who qualify in the written examination by being ranked high, community wise will be selected as per rules in vogue.

D. The candidates will be selected and allotted to Zones/Generating Stations as per their Rank in the merit list and as per zonal preferences for allotment of non-local candidates against vacancies available. Selection shall be made on State Wide merit, in respect of non-local candidates and allotment to Zones shall be made as per the preference given by candidate in his/her online application, against the actual vacancies.

The said preferences are only indicative for being considered to the extent possible but not binding. Therefore, the APGENCO has the power to assign a successful candidate to any notified post in the Zone in respect of non-local candidates, for which, he/she is considered to be qualified and eligible, subject to fulfilling the selection criteria. Mere claim of preference for any zone for allotment against vacancy does not confer any right to selection for that Zone in particular or any Zone in general.

E. Candidates have to produce Original documents viz.Date of Birth Certificate, Educational Qualification certificate/s, community certificate, physical disability certificate (disability not less than 40%) issued by the concerned competent Medical Board, if any, study/residence certificate and other particulars for verification as and when required and called for. If the particulars furnished in the Online Application Form do not tally with the Original documents produced by the Candidates, his/her candidature will be rejected.

F. The persons already in Government Service/autonomous bodies/other Corporations etc., whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged employees must take print out of the application after properly filled and get it endorsed by his/her employer and keep it with him/her ready, so as to, submit the same as and when called for.

G. The appointment of selected candidates will be subject to their being found medically fit in the appropriate medical classification.


APGENCO ASSISTANT ENGINEERS (AE) ELECTRICAL SYLLABUS

1. ELECTRICAL CIRCUITS AND NETWORKS:

Kirchhoff’s laws, mesh and node analysis, network theorems, sinusoidal steady state analysis of single phase and three phase circuits, resonance, transient response of RL, RC, RLC circuits for different inputs, two-port networks, Two element network synthesis.

2. CONTROL SYSTEMS:

Modelling of physical systems, Block diagrams and signal flow graphs, Time and frequency domain analysis, Steady state errors, Routh’s criterion, Nyquist and Bode plots, compensation, root loci, elementary ideas of state variable analysis, control system components .

3. MEASUREMENTS AND INSTRUMENTATION:

SI units, measurement of current, voltage, power, power-factor and energy, Measurement of resistance, inductance, capacitance and frequency-bridge methods, transducers and their applications to the measurement of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, strain, displacement etc., cathode ray oscilloscope.

4. ANALOG AND DIGITAL ELECTRONICS:

Characteristics of diodes, BJT, FET, SCR, Amplifier biasing, equivalent circuits, frequency response, feedback amplifiers, power amplifiers, oscillators ,operational amplifiers and applications, wave shaping circuits, multivibrators, flip-flops, universal gates, combinational circuits, A/D and D/A converters .

5. ELECTRICAL MACHINES AND POWER ELECTRONIC DRIVES:

Single phase transformer; equivalent circuit, tests, regulation and efficiency, three phase transformer connections parallel operation, auto transformer, principle of energy conversion, windings of rotating machines, DC generators and motors, characteristics, starting and speed control, three phase induction motors performance characteristics, starting and speed control, single phase induction motors, synchronous generators, performance, regulation, parallel operation, synchronous motors, starting characteristics and applications, synchronous condensers, fractional horse power motors, permanent magnet and stepper motors, Characteristics of Power electronic devices, phase control, bridge converters, choppers and inverters, basic concepts of adjustable speed drives.

6. POWER SYSTEMS:

Electrical power generation thermal, hydro, nuclear: transmission line parameters; steady state performance of overhead transmission lines and cables, surge propagation, distribution systems, insulators, bundle conductors, corona, and radio interference effects; per-unit quantities: bus admittance and impedance matrices: load flow: voltage control and power factor correction; economic operation, symmetrical components, analysis of symmetrical and unsymmetrical faults; principles of over current, differential and distance protections, circuit breakers, concept of system stability, swing curves and equal area criterion.


APGENCO AE ELECTRONICS SYLLABUS

1. Basics of Circuits and Measurement Systems:
Kirchoff’s laws, mesh and nodal Analysis, Circuit theorems. One-port and two-port Network Function. Static and dynamic characteristics of Measurement Systems. Error and uncertainty analysis. Statistical analysis of data and curve fitting.


2. Transducers, Mechanical Measurement and Industrial Instrumentation:
Resistive, Capacitive, Inductive and piezoelectric transducers and their signal conditioning. Measurement of displacement, velocity and acceleration (translational and rotational), force, torque, vibration and shock. Measurement of pressure, flow, temperature and liquid level. Measurement of pH, conductivity, viscosity and humidity.


3. Analog Electronics:
Characteristics of diode, BJT, JFET and MOSFET. Diode circuits. Transistors at low and high frequencies, Amplifiers, single and multi-stage. Feedback amplifiers. Operational amplifiers, characteristics and circuit configurations, Instrumentation amplifier. Precision rectifier. V-to-I and I-to-V converter. Op-Amp based active filters. Oscillators and signal generators.


4. Digital Electronics:
Combinational logic circuits, minimization of Boolean functions. IC families, TTL, MOS and CMOS. Arithmetic circuits, Comparators, Schmitt trigger, timers and mono-stable multi vibrator. Sequential circuits, flip-flops, counters , shift registers, Multiplexer, S/H circuit, Analog-to-Digital and Digital-to-Analog converters. Basics of number system. Microprocessor applications, memory and input-output interfacing. Microcontrollers.


5. Signals, Systems and Communications:
Periodic and aperiodic signals. Impulse response, transfer function and frequency response of first and second order systems. Convolution, correlation and characteristics of linear time invariant systems. Discrete time system, impulse and frequency response. Pulse transfer function. IIR and FIR filters. Amplitude and frequency modulation and demodulation. Sampling theorem, pulse code modulation. Frequency and time division multiplexing. Amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying and pulse shift keying for digital modulation.


6. Electrical and Electronic Measurements:
Bridges and potentiometers, measurement of R, L and C. Measurements of voltage, current, power, power factor and energy. A.C & D.C current probes. Extension of instrument ranges. Q-meter and waveform analyzer. Digital voltmeter and multi-meter. Time, phase and frequency measurements. Cathode ray oscilloscope. Serial and parallel communication. Shielding and grounding.

7. Control Systems and Process Control:
Feedback principles. Signal flow graphs. Transient Response, steady-state-errors. Routh and Nyquist criteria. Bode plot, root loci. Time delay systems. Phase and gain margin. State space representation of systems. Mechanical, hydraulic and pneumatic system components. Synchro pair, servo and step motors. On-off, cascade, P, P-I, P-I-D, feed forward and derivative controller, Fuzzy controllers.


8. Analytical, Optical Instrumentation:
Mass spectrometry, UV, visible and IR spectrometry, X-ray and nuclear radiation measurements. Optical sources and detectors, LED, laser, Photo-diode, photo-resistor and their characteristics. Interferometers, applications in metrology. Basics of fiber optics.



APGENCO ASSISTANT ENGINEERS (AE) MECHANICAL SYLLABUS

Strength of Materials:

Simple stresses and strains Hooke’s law, elastic constants, stress strain curve of mild steel bars of uniform strength, compound bars, temperature stresses, stresses on oblique planes – principal stresses and strains, Mohr’s stress circle, shear force and bending moment diagrams for beams, bending and shear stresses in beams, deflections of beams, columns and struts, strain energy, torsion of circular shafts and springs.

Fluid Mechanics and Machinery:

Basic fluid properties, fluid static – pressure measurements, buoyancy and flotation, truid Kinematics, fluid dynamics – Euler’s, Bernoulli’s and Impulse momentum equations, laminar and turbulent flows, flow through pipes and losses in pipes, bends, boundary layer theory, compressible fluid flow, impact of jets, Hydraulic turbines and pumps, Ram, accumulator and intensifier.

Material Science and Metallurgy:

Structure and properties of engineering materials, bonding in solids, imperfections in crystals and metals, structure of alloys, manufacture of iron and steel, heat treatment, alloy steels, principles of powder metallurgy.

Theory of Machines:

Displacement, velocity and acceleration analysis of plane mechanisms. dynamic analysis of slider – crank mechanism, gear trains, flyWheels. .

Vibrations:

Free and forced vibrations, effect of damping, resonance. Vibration isolation, critical speeds of shafts.

Design of Machine Elements:

Design for static and dynamic loading, failure theories, fatigue strength, S-N diagram, design of joints, shafts, bearings, gears, brakes, clutches, screws, springs, cranks, piston, gyroscopes, balancing and governors.

Heat Transfer:

Various modes of heat transfer, fins, heat exchangers, LMTD & NTU methods, unsteady state heat conduction, dimensionless parameters, free and forced convective heat transfer, thermal boundary layer, heat Transfer in flow-over flat plates and through Pipes, effect of turbulence, radiative heat transfer, shape factors, network analysis, eondensation and boiling.

Thermodynamics:

Zeroth, first and second laws of thermodynamics, thermodynamics systems and processes, Carnot cycle, Air-standard cycles, irreversibility and availability, properties of pure substances. Psychometry, Refrigeration and Air-conditioning, working principles and their applications.

Applied Thermodynamics:

Classification of compressors and its working principles, Classification of I.C . Engines and its working principles, performances, Design considerations of combustion chambers for C.!. & S.L Engines, knocking, Rating of fuels, Lubrications, Ignition systems.

Turbo machines:

Working principles of gas turbines, steam turbines, Rankine’s cycle. modified Rankine’s cycle, jet propulsion and nozzles.

Metal cutting and Machine tools:

Mechanics of machining, single and multi point cutting tools, tool geometry, tool life, wear, cutting force analysis, micro finishing machines-EDM, ECM and USM, NC machines, jigs and fixtures. Standards of measurements, limits, fits, tolerances, linear and angular measurements, comparators, lathes, drilling, shaping, planning, milling, gear cutting. broaching and grinding machines.

Foundry, Welding and Forging:

Design of patterns moulds and cores, solidification, design consideration of runner, riser and gate. Physics of welding, types of welding and their principles, brazing, soldering, adhesive bonding. Fundamentals of hot and cold working processes, forging, rolling, extrusion, drawing, shearing and bending.

Production and operation management:

Plant layout, material handling, production planning and control, materials, management and work studies, inspections, quality control, cost analysis, operation research, basic concepts of CADI CAM, inventory control


APGENCO AE (ASSISTANT ENGINEERS) CIVIL SYLLABUS

1. Strength of materials and theory of structures:
Simple stresses and strains, Hooke’s Law, elastic constants, stress strain curve of mild steel stresses on oblique planes – Principal stresses and strains, Mohr’s stress circle, temperature stresses, compound bars, shear force and bending moment diagrams for beams, bending and shear stresses in beams, strain energy principles, torsion of circular shafts – Pure torsion and combined with bending and thrust, deflections of simple beams, thin and thick cylinders, columns and struts, direct and bending stresses, trusses, propped cantilevers and fixed beams, arches, cables and
suspension bridges; moving loads and influence lines; static and kinematic indeterminacies, Continuous beams and portal frames-movement distribution, Kani’s and matrix methods. Unsymmetrical Bending and shear Centre.

2. Reinforced Concrete:
Materials – properties, grades and tests, workability and mix design of concrete – basic concepts of working stress and limit state methods of design – Limit state design of beams, slabs, columns, footings. Circular and flat slabs, water tanks, bridges – IRC specifications and loadings, Slabs and T – beam bridges, retaining walls, Pre-stressed concrete – basic concepts, losses and analysis and design of beams including end block.

3. Steel structure:
Rivetted and welded joints, Connections – eccentric and framed, simple and compound beams, tension and compression members, plate and gantry girders, roof trusses, plate girder and truss bridges, water tanks, roof trusses, tubular sections and design, transmission towers, column bases, plastic analysis, basic principles, theorems, methods of analysis, analysis and design of determinate and indeterminate beams and frames.

4. Geo-Technical Engineering:
Origin and classification of soils, three phase system, basic definitions and relations, effective stress. Permeability, capillarity and seepage of soils, flownets, flow through earthen dams, compressibility, consolidation and compaction of soils, shear strength, stability of slopes, earth pressures and retaining walls, stress distribution in soils, settlement analysis, subsurface exploration and site investigations, bearing capacity of soils, shallow and deep foundations, pile foundations.

5. Other Topics:
Elements of surveying – Chain, plane table, compass and theodolite, leveling, building materials and construction, formwork, CPM and PERT.

6. Fluid Mechanics and Machinery:
Properties of fluids, pressure measurement fluid statics, buoyancy and flotation, fluid kinematics and fluid dynamics, orifices and mouthpieces, notches and weirs, laminar and turbulent flows, flow through pipes, forces on immersed bodies, flow in open channels, impact of jets, Hydraulic turbines and pumps, dams, power houses, hydrology and hydro power plants.

BSNL Telecom Technical Assistant (TTA) Model Question Paper

BSNL Telecom Technical Assistant (TTA) Model Question Paper

1. If the matrix A = is singular, then ? =
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5

2. A = is symmetric, then x =
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5

3. If A is a 3 x 3 matrix and det(3 A) = k det(A) then k =
a) 9 b) 6 c) 1 d) 27

4. If A = , then A-1 =
a) b) c) d)

5. If A = then A2 is equal to
a) A b) –A c) Null Matrix d) I

6. is a
a) rectangular matrix b) singular matrix
b) non-singular matrix d) skew-symmetric matrix

7. The slope of the straight line whose inclination with negative x-axis is 120º is
a) b) c) 1 d) infinity

8. If two lines whose slopes are m1 and m2 are perpendicular iff
a) m1 = m2 b) m1m2 = 0 c) m1m2 = -1 d) m1 + m2 = -1

9. The rate of increase of the radius of a circle is 1 cm/sec, the rate of increase of its area is 4? cm2/sec at a particular instant. The radius at that instant is
a) 2 cm b) 3 cm c) 4 cm d) 6 cm

10.If the side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.02 cm/min, the rate at which its area is increasing at the instant when the length of the side is 5 cm is
a) 0.2 cm 2/min b) 0.4 cm 2/min c) 0.1 cm 2/min d) 0.6 cm 2/min

11.A particle is moving on a plane according to the distance-time relationship is given by s = t3 + 6t2 + 8t – 4. When its acceleration is 8 m/sec2, its velocity is
a) 8 m/sec b) 11 m/sec c) 23 m/sec d) -1 m/sec

12.A stone moves vertically upwards according to the distance-time equation s = 16t – 2t2.The greatest height reached by the stone is
a) 4 b) 64 c) 32 d) 96

13.The distance moved by a particle traveling in a straight line in t seconds is given by s = 45t + 11t2 – t3. The time taken by the particle to come to rest is
a) 9 sec b) 5 sec c) 3 sec d) 2 sec

14.The distance s described by a particle in time t is given by the relation s = aet + be-t. The acceleration is equal to
a) velocity b) the distance traveled
c) twice the distance traveled d) the square of the distance traveled

15.The slope of the normal to the curve y = at the point is
a) 9 b) -9 c) d)

17.The normal to the curve y = f(x) will be parallel to x-axis if
a) b) c) d)

18.The maximum point of the function 2×3 – 9×2 + 12x is
a) x = 0 b) x = 5 c) x = 1 d) x = 2

19.The minimum value of 2×3 – 9×2 + 12x – 4 is
a) 1 b) 3 c) 0 d) -2

20.The point of inflection of the function x3 – 3×2 + 3x is
a) (1,0) b) (1,1) c) (6,126) d) (-1,-7)

21.Velocity of sound is greatest in
a) Solids b) Liquids c) Gases d) None of these

22.If the phase difference between the two waves is 2? during superimposition, then the resultant amplitude is
a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Half of maximum d) None of these

23.If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude on superimposition produce a resultant disturbance of the same amplitude, the wave differ in phase by
a) b) c) d)

24.The equation of a plane progressive wave is given by y = 2sin?(0.5x – 200t) where x and y are expressed in cm and t in sec. The wave velocity is
a) 400 cm/sec b) 300 cm/sec c) 200 cm/sec d) 100 cm/sec

25.Equation of a plane progressive wave is given by y = 0.2 cos ?(0.04t + 0.02x – 1/6). The distance is expressed in cm and time in sec. The minimum distance between two particles separated by phase difference ?/2 is radian is
a) 25 cm b) 12.5 cm c) 8 cm d) 4 cm

26.Ultrasonic waves are those waves which
a) Human being can hear b) Human being cannot hear
c) Have high velocity d) Have large amplitude

27.It is possible to distinguish between the transverse and longitudinal waves by studying the property of
a) Interference b) Polarization c) Diffraction d) Reflection

28.The following phenomenon cannot be observed for sound waves
a) Refraction b) Polarization c) Diffraction d) Reflection

29.Doppler shift in frequency does not depend upon
a) Frequency of the wave produced b) Velocity of the source
c) Velocity of the listener/observer d) Distance between source and listener

30.A source of sound of frequency 450 cycles/second is moving towards a stationary observer with 34 m/s speed. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s then the apparent frequency will be
a) 410 cps b) 550 cps c) 500 cps d) 450 cps

31.An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound of frequency n. The apparent frequency heard by him is 2n. If the velocity of sound in air is 332 m/s, then the velocity of observer is
a) 166 m/s b) 664 m/s c) 332 m/s d) 1328 m/s

32.The equation of a wave traveling in a string can be written as y = 3 cos ?(100t – x).Its wavelength is
a) 100 cm b) 5 cm c) 3 cm d) 2 cm

33.Sound velocity is maximum in
a) O2 b) H2 c) He d) N2

34.Phon is the unit of
a) Pitch b) Quality c) Timbre d) Loudness

35.Loudness of sound L and corresponding intensity of sound I are related as
a) L = KI2 b) L = KI c) L = K d) L = K log I

36.The index of refraction of a medium is 1.5. If the speed of light in air is 3 x 108 m/s, then its speed in the medium will be
a) 2 x 108 m/s b) 1.2 x 108 m/s c) 4 x 108 m/s d) 3.2 x 108 m/s

37.The ratio of intensities of the two waves is given by 4:1. The ratio of amplitudes of two waves is
a) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 4:1 d) 1:4

38.Two source of waves are called coherent if
a) Both have the same amplitude by vibrations
b) Both produce waves of different wavelength having constant phase difference
c) Both produce waves of same wavelength having constant phase difference
d) Both produce waves having the same velocity

39.Which of the following does not support the wave nature of light?
a) Interference b) Diffraction c) Polarization d) Photoelectric effect

40.Velocity of light will be minimum in
a) Vacuum b) Air c) Water d) Glass

41.Wavelength of light of frequency 100 Hz is
a) 2 x 106 m/s b) 3 x 106 m/s c) 4 x 106 m/s d) 5 x 106 m/s

42.A rocket is going away from earth at a speed of 106 m/s. If the wavelength of the light wave emitted by it be 5700 Å, its Doppler’s shift will be
a) 200 Å b) 19 Å c) 20 Å d) 0.2 Å

43.Colour of light is known by its
a) Velocity b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) Polarization

44.A rocket is going away from the earth at a speed 0.2c where c = Speed of light. It emits a signal of frequency 4 x 107 Hz. The frequency observed by an observer on the earth will be
a) 4 x 106 Hz b) 3.3 x 106 Hz c) 3 x 106 Hz d) 5 x 107 Hz

45.A light wave has a frequency of 4 x 1014 Hz and a wavelength of 5 x 10-7 m in a medium. The refractive index of the medium is
a) 1.5 b) 1.33 c) 1.0 d) 0.66

46.Stars are twinkling due to optical phenomenon of
a) Refraction b) Scattering c) Reflection d) Diffraction

47.The splitting of white light into several colours on passing through a glass prism is due to
a) Refraction b) Reflection c) Interference d) Diffraction

48.In Bohr’s model, if the atomic radius of the first orbit is ro, then the radius of the fourth orbit is
a) 16 ro b) ro c) 4 ro d) ro/16

49.The average binding energy per nucleon in the nucleus of an atom is approximately
a) 8 eV b) 8 MeV c) 8 KeV d) 8 Volt

50.The mass equivalent of 931 MeV energy is
a) 1.66 x 10-20 kg b) 1.66 x 10-27 kg
c) 6.02 x 10-24 kg d) 6.02 x 10-27 kg

Page – 2

51.The energy equivalent to 1 a.m.u. is
a) 931 MeV b) 931 eV c) 931 KeV d) 9.31 MeV

52.The ratio of kinetic energy and total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit is
a) + 2 b) – 1 c) + 1 d) – 2

53.The size of an atom is of the order of
a) 1 Å b) 1 fermi c) 1 nm b) 1 micron

54.The mass defect per nucleon is called
a) Packing fraction b) Binding Energy
c) Ionization Energy d) Excitation Energy

55.Nuclear Binding Energy is equal to
a) Mass of Nucleus b) Mass defect of Nucleus
c) Mass of Proton d) Mass of Neutron

56.The Pfund series of Hydrogen spectrum lies in the region\
a) Infrared b) Visible c) Ultraviolet d) X-Ray

57.The number of neutrons in 92U238 is
a) 92 b) 238 c) 330 d) 146

58.The energy required to remove an electron in a hydrogen atom from n = 10 state is
a) 136.0 eV b) 13.60 eV c) 1.36 eV d) 0.136 eV

59.The angular momentum of electron in nth orbit is given by
a) b) c) d)

60.The rest energy of an electron is
a) 510 MeV b) 51 MeV c) 931 MeV d) 93.1 MeV

61.In the lowest energy level of hydrogen atom, the electron has the angular momentum
a) ?/h b) h/? c) h/2? d) 2?/h

62.Laser is working in the principle of
a) Stimulated emission of radiation b) Spontaneous emission of radiation
c) Population inversion d) Normal population

63.The output beam of Ruby Laser has the wavelength of
a) 6943 Å b) 6328 Å c) 6300 Å d) 5500 Å

64.In the He-Ne Laser , the He-Ne in the mixture of
a) 10:1 b) 2:1 c) 4:1 d) 5:1

65.The full form of LIDAR is
a) Light Amplitude and Ranging
b) Light Detection and Ranging
c) Light Defect and Ranging
d) Laser Detection and Ranging

66.Which one of the following is solid state laser?
a) Nd:YAG Laser b) He-Ne Laser c) CO2 Laser d) GaAs Laser

67.Populaton Inversion is achieved by means of
a) Optical pumping b) Gas pumping
c) Mechanical pumping d) Solid pumping

68.GRASERS are
a) Galium Arsenide Lasers b) Gamma Ray Lasers
c) General Ranging Lasers d) Gallium Radium Lasers

69.LASER Beam is
a) Highly monochromatic b) Highly Intense
c) Highly Coherent d) All of the above

70.Which one of the following cannot be used as a pulsed device?
a) CFA b) BWO c) TWT d) Magnetron

71.Klystron works in the principle of
a) Velocity Modulation b) Amplitude Modulation
c) Frequency Modulation d) Phase Modulation

72.Strapping in Magnetron is used to
a) prevent mode jumping b) ensure bunching
c) improve the phase focusing effect d) prevent cathode back heating

73.Which is not a TWT slow wave structure
a) Coupled cavity b) helix c) ring bars d) periodic permanent magnet

74.30 to 300 MHz frequency range is categorized as
a) MF b) VHF c) UHF d) SHF

75.Find the centre of the circle whose two extremities of diameter are (2,3) & (4,-1) is
a) (3,1) b) (6,8) c) (3,-2) d) (-6,8)

76.The centre and radius of the circle x2+y2+4x–6y+2=0 are
a) (-2,3) & 5 b) (-2,3) & 5 c) (2,-3) & 5 d) (2,-3) & 2

77.The angle between the straight lines x + 2y -3 = 0 & 2x + 4y -4 = 0 is
a) ? = 90º b) ? = 60º c) ? = 0º d) ? = 45º

78.The condition for the pair of straight lines ax2+2xy+by2+2x+2y+3=0 to be perpendicular is
a) h2–ab = 0 b) ab = 2 c) a+b = 0 d) a-b = 0

79.The particular integral of +3 + 2y = 2e-x is
a) 2xe-x b) 2e-x c) x2e-x d) xe-x

80.The particular integral of +4 + 4y = 3sin2x is
a) – cos2x b) cos2x c) sin2x d) 3xcos2x

81.The complementary function of (D2+3)y = e-x is
a) Ae x + Be x b) (A+Bx) e x
c) A cos3x + B sin3x d) A cos x + B sin x

82.The solution of (D2-2D-15)y = 0 is
a) y = Ae3x + Be5x b) y = Ae-3x + Be-5x
c) y = Ae5x + Be-3x d) y = Ae-5x + Be3x

83.The particular integral of + y = 3 is
a) 3 b) x/3 c) 3/y d) -3

84.The area bounded by x2 = 2y, the x-axis and the lines x = 1 and x = 3 is
a) b) c) d)

85.The area of the curve y = sin x bounded by the x-axis from x = 0 to x = 2? is
a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0

86.The area enclosed by the curve xy = 8 and x-axis from x = 1 to x = 4 is
a) 8 log 2 b) 16 log 2 c) 4 log 2 d) 2 log 4

87.The area bounded by the curve x = 3y2 – 9 and the lines x = 0, y = 0 and y = 1 is
a) 8 b) c) d) 3

88.When the area enclosed by the curve y = and the x-axis from x = 0 and x = 4 is rotated about the x-axis, the volume generated is
a) b) c) d)

89.The area included between the curve y = x – x2 and the x-axis revolves about the x-axis. The volume generated by the area is
a) b) c) d)

90.If the area enclosed between the curve y2 = x3 + 5x and the x-axis from x = 2 to x = 4 is revolved about the x-axis, the volume of the solid generated is
a) 45? b) 90? c) 120? d) 60?

91.
a) 12 b) 0 c) 6 d) 18

92. =
a) sin-1x b) cos-1x c) tan-1x c) cot-1x

93.
a) log f(x) b) 2 c) f(x) d) f(x)/2
94.
a) sec x b) tan x c) cos x d) cot x

95.The acceleration of a particle at any time t is given by 3×2 – 2x + 1, then the velocity of the particle at any time is
a) x3 -2x 2 + x b) x3 -x 2 + x c) x 2 + x d) x 2 + x +1

96.The Laplace transform of f(t) = t2 e-3t is
a) b) c) d)

97.The Laplace transform of f(t) = 1 + cos2t is
a) b) c) d)

98.The Laplace transform of unit step function is
a) b) c) 1 d)

99.The initial value of the function F(S) =
a) 1 b) 0 c) 2 d)

100.The inverse Laplace transform of is
a) e-t b) 1-e-t c) 1- et d) 2(1+ e-t)

101.The inverse Laplace transform of is
a) et cos2t b) et sin2t c) e-t cos2t d) e-t sin2t

102.(1+i)3 is equal to
a) 3 + 3i b) 1 + 3i c) 3 – 3i d) 2i – 2

103.The value of i13+i14+i15+i16 is
a) 0 b) -1 c) i d) –i

104. The polar form of complex number -1- i is
a) 2(cos + i sin ) b) 2(cos + i sin )
b) 2(cos – i sin ) d) 2(cos + i sin )

105.The modulus of a complex number is
a) b) 2 c) 1 d)

106.The value of (3+?+3?2)4 is
a) 16 b) 16 ? c) -16 ? d) 0

107.The value of is
a) cos 2? + i sin 2? b) cos ? + i sin ?
c) cos ? – i sin ? d) cos 26? + i sin 26?

108.The value of the fourier coefficient bn for the function f(x) = cosx defined in (-?, ?) is
a) 0 b) 1 c) ? d) -2 ?

109. The value of the fourier coefficient a0 for the half range series for f(x) defined in (0, ?) is
a) a0 = b) a0 =
c) a0 = d) 0

110.The value of the fourier coefficient an for the function f(x) is odd is
a) 0 b) an =
c) an= d) a0 =

111.The value of the fourier coefficient bn for the function f(x) is even is
a) 0 b) bn =
c) bn = d) bn =

112.If u = exy then x
a) u b) u logeu c) logeu d) ueu

113.If u = then the value of is
a) b) 0 c) x+y d) -1
114.If u = sin-1 , then the value of is
a) b) c) d)

115.If u = xy, then is
a) y/x b) xyx-1 c) yxy-1 d) xy-1

116. Given = = 6 and . = 18, the angle between and is
a) b) c) d)

117.( – ) x ( + ) =
a) 2 x b) x c) 2 x d) 2 – 2

118.The volume of the parallelepiped whose three coterminous edges are represented by the vectors + , + , + is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1

119.The value of p such that the vectors -2 + 3 , 4 +3 – and 11 +p + 7 are coplanar is
a) -7 b) 0 c) -12 d) 12

120.Reverberation of sound means
a) existence of sound in a room
b) vibration of sound waves
c) existence of sound eventhough the source of sound is cutoff
d) strong echoes

121.Ultrasonic waves can be produced by
a) Piezo-electric effect b) Inverse Piezo-electric effect
c) Magnetostriction effect d) Both b & c

122.The Sabine’s formula for reverberation time is
a) T = b) T =
c) T = d) T = 0.16 aAS

ONGC Graduate Trainees Exam

ONGC Graduate Trainees Exam

The selection will be on the basis of a written exam and interview. The test pattern is given below. It is a tough exam and one needs to study hard to get through.

Test Duration:

3 hours

Sections of Exam:

Test is objective as well as subjective (descriptive):

1) General Awareness (50 Marks):

a. 50 Objective Questions (40 to be attempted, 1 Mark each)

b. 2 Descriptive Type Questions (5 Marks Each)

2) Subject Specialization (100 Marks)

a. 75 Objective Questions (60 to be attempted, 1.5 mark each)

b. 2 Descriptive Type Questions (5 Marks Each)

The specialization section has questions from the discipline in which the candidate has completed the degree for eligibility e.g. Electrical, Mechanical etc.

ISRO SCIENTISTS EXAM FOR IT

ISRO (Indian Space Research Organization)

Scientist/Engineers Recruitment

Sample Paper for Computer Science (IT)

This Sample Paper is based on the expected syllabus for ISRO Scientist/Engineer Recruitment Exam. Candidates may get an idea about what to read for the Computer Science / IT Stream Examination. We wish all of you a good luck for the paper. This question paper has been adapted from GJ Tutorial’s IT Study material based on the vast experience in teaching for various similar recruitment and admission exams.

1. Which of the following features usually applies to data in a data warehouse?

(a) Data are often deleted

(b) Most applications consists of transactions

(c) Data are rarely deleted

(d) Relatively few records are processed by applications

(e) None of these

2. Which of the following is a transaction?

(a) A group of SQL statements consisting of one read and one write operation

(b) A group of SQL statements consisting only of ready operations.

(c) A group of SQL statements defining a user-oriented task

(d) A group of SQL statements consisting only of write operations.

(e) None of these

3. There are several security devices used to stop individuals from exploiting your system. Which of the following is used in conjunction with a firewall?

(a) Proxy server

(b) Intrusion- detection system

(c) Terminal server

(d) Web server

(e) None of these

4. The effect of the ROLLBACK command in a transaction is the following……

(a) Undo all changes to the data- base resulting from the execution of the transaction

(b) Undo the effects of the last UPDATE command

(c) Restore the content of the database to its state at the end of the previous day

(d) Make sure that all changes to the database are in effect

(e) None of these

5. A client / server network ……….

(a) has clients that provide functions such as application control and shared computation.

(b) uses client computers to provide copies of software to the server to allow server processing.

(c) provides a company with the capability to downsize from lager computer systems and move away from legacy systems.

(d) has server computers that perform all processing, clients are’ dumb’ input/ output devices only.

(e) None of these.

6. An applet is ……. Document application program.

(a) a static

(b) a dynamic

(c) an active

(d) a passive

(e) None of these

7. The local antenna for satellite connections is called a ……..

(a) modem

(b) terminal

(c) VSAT

(d) DTA

(e) None of these

8. What are the four basis connecting hardware devices?

(a) Repeater, bridge, router and gateway

(b) Repeater, bridge, router and dell

(c) Repeater, connector, router and gateway

(d) Amplifier, bridge, router and gateway

(e) None of these

9. Which type of processing speed measurement is used primarily with supercomputers?

(a) Flops

(b) Fractions of second

(c) Gigahertz

(d) MIPS

(e) None of these

10. This type of software is designed for users who want to customize the programs they use.

(a) Shareware

(b) Open-source software

(c) Freeware

(d) Macros

(e) None of these

11. What is the term associated with the second part of an e-mail address?

(a) Local address

(b) Eight characters long

(c) User name

(d) Domain name

(e) None of these

12. A port that allows 8 bits at a time to be transmitted simultaneously is a (n) …..

(a) dedicated port

(b) parallel port

(c) SCSI port

(d) USB port

(e) None of these

13. In order for computers to communicate across a network, they must be connected through a(n)…..

(a) TCP/IP

(b) Topology

(c) Ethernet

(d) Thin client

(e) None of these

(e) C. Rangarajan

14. What is a specialized software program that allows input and output devices to communicate with the rest of the computer system?

(a) Utility driver

(b) Utility program

(c) Data compression utility

(d) Device driver

(e) None of these

15. Single party disk relying on the disk controller for finding out which disk has failed is used by-

(a) RAID level 5

(b) RAID level 2

(c) RAID level 4

(d) RAID level 3

(e) RAID level 1

16. Which of these terms refers to the feature of an OS that allows a single computer to process the tasks of several users at different stations, in round-robin fashion?

(a) Multiprocessing

(b) Multiprogramming

(c) Multitasking

(d) Time processing

(e) Time-sharing

17. Which of the following statements is not true about two-tier client-server database architecture?

(a) SQL statements are processed on the server

(b) SQL statements may be processed on some of the clients

(c) Business logic is mostly processed on clients

(d) Business logic may be processed on the server

(e) None of these

18. A Relational operator that yields all values from selected attributes is known as a -

(a) difference

(b) product

(c) select

(d) project

(e) join

19. Normalization is:

(a) the process of creating small stable data structures from complex groups of data when designing a relational database

(b) a methodology for documenting database illustrating the relationship between various entities in the database

(c) an approach to data management that stores both data and the procedures acting on the data as object that can be automatically retrieved and shared

(d) a representation of data as they would appear to an application programmer or user

(e) a representation of data as they actually would be organized on physical storage media

20. The process of building a model that demonstrate the features of a proposed product, service or system is called a -

(a) JAD

(b) RAD

(c) templating

(d) prototyping

(e) TAD

21. Which of the following is mandatory component of a URL?

(a) Resource Path

(b) Protocol

(c) Port Number

(d) Domain Name

(e) None of these

22. DBMS allows you to extrapolate information from your data by using a-

(a) query language

(b) table generator

(c) report generator

(d) wizard

(e) None of these

23. A subschema is -

(a) a description of the physical and logical structure of data and the relationship among the data

(b) a file that identifies the subset of data that a group of users can access

(c) a detailed description of all data contained in the database

(d) a description of the types of modifications that users can make to a database

(e) Either (c) or (d)

24. Which of the following is not a type of hub?

(a) Passive hub

(b) Inactive hub

(c) Switching hub

(d) Intelligent hub

(e) None of these

25. The ……….. lists the location of files on the disk

(a) FAT

(b) boot sector

(c) root folder

(d) data area

(e) None of these

Answers:

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)
6. (b) 7. (e) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (d)
16. (e) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (e) 22. (a) 23. (e) 24. (b) 25. (a)

BSNL Junior Accounts Officers (JAO) Sample Model Paper

BSNL Junior Accounts Officers (JAO) Sample Model Paper


1. What is Double Entry Book Keeping System?

2. What is the purpose of preparation of Final Accounts?

3. Journalise the following transaction :
(a) Depreciation on machinery Rs. 5,000.
(b) Salary paid to employees Rs. 6,000.

4. Find net profit ratio from the following :
Gross profit : Rs.1,50,000
Salaries paid : Rs.10,000
Tax paid : Rs. 10,000
Dividend paid : Rs. 20,000
Depreciation : Rs. 10,000
Sales for the year : Rs. 2,00,000

5. From the following balance sheets, prepare a schedule of changes in working capital.

Balance Sheets

Liabilities 2007 2008 Assets 2007 2008
Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs.
Share capital 1,00,000 1,50,000 Fixed Assets 75,000 1,50,000
Reserves & Surplus 50,000 60,000 Stock 25,000 40,000
Current Liabilities 20,000 40,000 Debtors 50,000 50,000
Other liabilities 10,000 5,000 Cash in hand 10,000 10,000
- - Cash at bank 20,000 5,000
Total 1,80,000 2,55,000 Total 1,80,000 2,55,000

6. What is Budget? Explain the types of budget.

7. Write short notes on :
(a) Error of Principle.
(b) Error of Omission.
(c) Error of Commission.

8. The summarized balance sheets of ABC Limited as on 31.12.2007 and 31.12.2008 are given below :

Balance Sheets (Rs. in thousands)

Liabilities 2007 2008 Assets 2007 2008
Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs.
Share capital 400 400 Fixed Assets 400 320
Reserves 300 310 Investment 100 80
P & L a/c 60 66 Stock 300 200
Creditors 100 66 Debtors 100 400
Provision for taxation 75 10 Investment 100 80
Bank Loan 148 Bank 35
Total 935 1,000 Total 935 1,000

Additional Information :
(a) Provision for tax made during the year was Rs. 9,000 p.a.
(b) Dividend paid during the year was Rs. 4,000 p.a.
Prepare Funds Flow Statement.

9. From the following particulars, find
(a) P/V Ratio.
(b) BEP Sales (in rupees).
(c) Margin of Safety.
Rs.
Sales 1,00,000
(—) Variable cost 60,000
Contribution 40,000
(—) Fixed cost 20,000
Profit 20,000

10. From the data given below compute the value of current asset, current liability and liquid ratio.
Working capital – Rs. 60,000.
Working capital ratio = 3.5.
Current ratio = 4.5.
Stock – Rs. 10,000.

11. Prepare trading account of Archana for the year ending 31.12.96 from the following information :
Opening stock : Rs. 80,000
Purchases : Rs. 8,60,000
Freight inward : Rs. 52,000
Wages : Rs. 24,000
Credit sales : Rs. 14,40,000
Purchase returns : Rs.10,000
Sales returns : Rs. 3,16,000
Closing stock : Rs. 1,00,000

Adjustments :
(a) Outstanding wages Rs. 1,000.
(b) Unrecorded cash sales amounted to Rs. 6,000.

12. Compute working capital turnover ratio :
Current Assets : Rs.
Stock 60,000
Debtors 40,000
B/R 1,00,000
Cash in hand 40,000
Cash at bank 20,000
Interest accrued 10,000
Prepaid insurance 30,000
Current Liabilities : Rs.
B/P 40,000
Outstanding expenses 20,000
Creditors 40,000
Sales for the year 4,00,000
Sales return 40,000

BSNL JTO EXAM 2005/06 PAPER

BSNL JTO EXAM 2005/06 PAPER

1. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c) It’s value for all substances is less than one
d) None

2. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel

4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2

5. A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET

7. The location of lightning arrestor is -
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b

9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps

10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias

11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6

12. When biased correctly, a zener diode –
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats

13. The current amplification factor adc is given by –
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC

14. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none

15. The source-drain channel of JFET is -
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b

16. diac is equivalent to a -
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width

17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´ 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be –
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3

18. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero’ represents -
a) Kirchhoff’s law
b) Norton’s theorem
c) Thevenin’s theorem
d) Superposition theorem

19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is –
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode

20. A two-port network is symmetrical if –
a) z11z22 – z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
c) AD – BC = 1
d) y11y22 – y12y21 = 1

21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position

22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network

23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements –
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C

24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to –
a) B
b) Z12
c) —
d) h12

25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
a) 250 –300 MHz
b) 150 – 200 MHz
c) 90 – 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz

27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding

28. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W

30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be –
a) 25W
b) 50W
c) 100W
d) 150W

31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ‘f’ in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m
c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m
d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f

32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -
a) 0.4456 0
b) 1.44560
c) 2.44560
d) 3.44560

33. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -
a) Polystyrene
b) Glass of low refractive index
c) Paraboloid surfaces
d) Dielectric media having large refractive index

34. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -
a) Electrodynamometer
b) PMMC
c) Electrostatic
d) Moving iron

35. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?
a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A
b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A
c) A dc ammeter will read 10A
d) A dc ammeter will read zero

36. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -
a) power factor of the circuit is high
b) impedance of the circuit is high
c) bandwidth is large
d) none of these

37. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) the maximum number of input channels
b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) it’s internal clock period
d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

38. A memoryless system is –
a) causal
b) not causal
c) nothing can be said
d) none

39. An air capacitor is a –
a) time variant
b) active device
c) time invariant
d) time invariant and passive device

40. Thermistors are made of -
a) pure metals
b) pure insulators
c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides
d) pure semiconductor

41. Pirani gauge is used to measure –
a) very low pressures
b) high pressures
c) pressures in the region of 1 atm
d) fluid flow

42. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion –
a) AC voltage controllers
b) Cyclo converters
c) Phase controlled rectifiers
d) Inverters

43. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from –
a) off state to on state
b) on state to off state
c) on state to on state
d) off state to off state

44. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -
a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage
b) peak working off state forward voltage
c) peak working off state reverse voltage
d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage

45. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-
a) is a straight line passing through origin
b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg
c) is a curve between Vg and Ig
d) has a spread between two curves of Vg – Ig

46. A four quadrant operation requires-
a) two full converters in series
b) two full converters connected back to back
c) two full converters connected in parallel
d) two semi converters connected back to back

47. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are –
a) Vs, P
b) Vs/2, P
c) 2Vs, 2P
d) 2Vs, P

48. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has –
a) only an ohmic region
b) only a saturation region
c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages
d)an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages

49. The energy gap in a semiconductor -
a) increases with temperature
b) remains constant
c) slightly increase with temperature
d) decrease with temperature

50. In an electronic circuit matching means -
a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance
b) selection of components which are compatible
c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.
d) RC coupled stages

51. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because
a) They have higher input impedance
b) They have high switching time
c) They consume less power
d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes

52. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -
a) Increase in ICEO
b) Increase in ac current gain
c) Decrease in ac current gain
d) Increase in output resistance

53. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is -
a) 13. 3 KHz
b) 30KHz
c) 10KHz
d) 40KHz

54. The output of a class B amplifier -
a) is distortion free
b) consists of positive half cycles only
c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier
d) comprises short duration current pulses

55. An amplifier with negative feedback -
a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency
b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency
c) increases its bandwidth
d) all of the above

56. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -
a) Block becomes redundant
b) A FM detector would be required
c) A high frequency signal generator
1d) An additional local oscillator will be needed

57. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-
a) greater speed
b) slower speed
c) average speed
d) none of the above

58. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by –
a) Dt = N ´ Fc
b) Dt = N ´ 1/Fc
c) Dt = 1/N ´ Fc
d) Dt = N ¸ 1/Fc

59. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be –
(y denotes don’t care)
a) y and 0
b) y and 1
c) 0 and y
d) 1 and y

60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of –
a) a flip flop
b) a transistor acting as a capacitor
c) a transistor
d) a capacitance

61. The 2’s complement of 10002 is –
a) 0111
b) 0101
c) 1000
d) 0001

62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of –
a) two flip flops connected in series
b) two flip flops connected in parallel
c) a debouncer circuit
d) a-D- latch

63. Number of nybbles making one byte is –
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

64. The intrinsic impedance of free space-
a) is independent of frequency
b) decreases with increase of frequency
c) increases with increase of frequency
d) varies as square root of frequency

65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -
a) –200 dB/decade
b) –240 dB/decade
c) –230 dB/decade
d) –320 dB/decade

66. Considering the conditions-
1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing 3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin
System stability requirements would include?

a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides –
a) 24 hour orbit
b) stationary satellite
c) global communication
d) zero-gravity environs

68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of –
a) space multiplexing
b) time multiplexing
c) frequency multiplexing
d) none of the above

69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a –
a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone
b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF
c) A differentiator followed by a LPF
d) A clipper circuit by a LPF

70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using –
a) AND gates
b) Band pass
c) differentiation
d) Integration

71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-
a) frequency shift keying
b) two – tone modulation
c) pulse code modulation
d) single tone modulation

72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-
a) FM generation only
b) 100AM generation only
c) PM generation only
d) both PM and AM generation

73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-
a) reduce x-ray emission
b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots
c) increase screen brightness
d) provide degaussing for the screen

74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-
a) the keyed AGC amplifar
b) a clipper
c) an integrator
d) a sawtooth current

75. Band width of microwaves is-
a) 1GHz -103 GHz
b) 1GHz –100 GHz
c) 1 GHz –10 GHz
d) 1 GHz – 106 GHz

76. In transverse Magnetic mode-
a) no electric line is in direction of propagation
b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation
c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation
d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation

77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to –
a) Reforction of wave
b) Reflection of wave
c) Pierus through Inosphere
d) None

78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be –
a) 600
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600

79. The transmission does not have -
a) Partition noise
b) Flicker noise
c) resistance
d) Short noise

80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -
a) capacitance
b) Inductance
c) Resistance
d) Is a linear device

81. Noise figure is calculated as –
a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio
b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio
c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100
d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by –
a) Nicholas chart
b) Nyquist plot
c) Bode plot
d) Root locus.

83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-
a) –5, 1
b) –2.5, 1
c) –5,0-5
d) –5, 2

84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by
The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-
a) zero and 1
b) zero and 10
c) 10 and zero
d) 70 and 80

85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to –
a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal
c) minimize free-space losses
d) maximize antenna gain

86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-
a) EIRP
b) Antenna size
c) Coverage area
d) Antenna gain

87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-
a) horizontal blanking
b) vertical blanking
c) the serrations
d) the horizontal retrace

88. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-
a) washed
b) inherited
c) admired
d) attempt

89. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-
a) water
b) stone
c) air
d) hills

90. What is a collection of sheep called ?
a) bunch
b) flock
c) herd
d) comet

91. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :
You can buy a book. You can read it.
a) and
b) nor
c) either
d) neither

92. What is the opposite of Asperity –
a) gentility
b) superiority
c) kindness
d) clarity

93. The Election Commission functions under-
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Law
c) Prime Minister’s Secretariat
d) None of these

94. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-
a) President’s Rule is to be imposed
b) Emergency is declared
c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry
d) A political party of national level is to be banned

95. Radio-activity was first discovered by-
a) Becquerel
b) Madam Curie
c) Rutherford
d) Jenner

96. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-
a) 1995-2000
b) 1996-2001
c) 1997-2002
d) 1998-2003

97. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?
a) 5,000 MW
b) 10,000 MW
c) 15,000 MW
d) 20,000 MW

98. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?
a) 1769
b) 1789
c) 1889
d) 1869

99. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?
a) 1/10th of total membership
b) 1/6th of total membership
c) 1/4th of total membership
d) 1/5th of total membership

100. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10

101. The International Date Line is represented by-
a) 1000 meridian
b) 00 meridian
c) 1800 meridian
d) 900 meridian

102. India’s first satellite was launched from-
a) Sriharikota
b) Cape Kennedy
c) Bangalore
d) A Soviet cosmodrome

103. Name the author of the famous book “Politics”-
a) Aristotle
b) Socrates
c) Plato
d) None of them

104. “Guernica” is Picasso’s painting on-
a) The Spanish Civil War
b) The American Civil War
c) The French Revolution
d) The Russian Revolution

105. The object of the Supreme Court’s Keshvanand Bharati ruling is -
a) To put a limit on Parliament’s amendatory powers
b) To give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution
c) To give precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
d) None of these

106. Which country in July ‘99 officially announced mastering of indigenously developed neutron bomb technology?
a) N. Korea
b) France
c) India
d) China

107. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Maharashtra
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Nagaland

BSNL JTO EXAM 2005 PAPER

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination
Question and Answers


1. Reactive current through the capacitive load produces -
Answer is :- b) Electric field
2. One of the following which gives piero-electric effect is -
Answer is :- b) PVDF
3. PZT piezo- electric materials have -
Answer is :-b) Lower curie temperature
4. The residual resistivity of a binary alloy at OK is -
Answer is :-d) Dependent on the concentration of the minor component in the alloy
5. In active filter circuits, inductances are avoided mainly because they -
Answer is :-b)Are bulky and unsuitable for miniaturisation
6. The depletion layer across a p-n junction lies -
Answer is :-b) mostly in the n-region
7. The voltage induced in a loop of wire rotating in a strong and steady magnetic field is -
Answer is :-d) ac
8. One of the following types of capacitor which is polarized is -
Answer is :-a) Electrolytic
9. Electric shock is-
Answer is :-c) Sometimes fatal
10. A typical value of filter capacitor for 50 Hz ripple is -
Answer is :-a) 16mF
11. A telephone relay armature is made of material with -
Answer is :-c) Negligible conductivity
12. Larger the value of filter capacitor -
Answer is :-d) Smaller is the dc voltage across the load
13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by -
Answer is :-b) Diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
14. The polarity of VGS for E-only MOSFET is -
Answer is :-d) depends on P or N channel
15. The following which will serve as a donor impurity in silicon -
Answer is :-d) Antimony
16. When bias applied to a vari-cap diode is increased, its capacitance -
Answer is :-a) is decreased
17. In case of a bipolar transistor a is -
Answer is :-d) negative and less than 1
18. A BJT is -
Answer is :-b) very sensitive to radiations.
19. An SCR may be considered to be -
Answer is :-b) 3 diodes
20. For a BJT, under the saturation condition -
Answer is :-d) IC < bIB
21. In modern MOSFET’s the material used for the gate is -
Answer is :-c) Heavily doped polycrystalline silicon28. An attenuator drops a 10V signal to 50mv in an experiment. The loss in decibels is -
Answer is :-b) –6dB
29. When the network has 10 nodes and 17 branches then the number of different node pair voltages would be -
Answer is :-b) 9
30. The circuit shown in the following fig. will act as an ideal current source with respect to terminals A and B when frequency is -
Answer is :-c) 4rad/s
31. When a short vertical grounded antenna is required to radiate at 1MHz and the effective height of the antenna is 30 m then the calculated value of the radiation resistance is -
Answer is :-c) 15.8 W
32. Shannon’s law relates -
Answer is :-d) information carrying capacity to S/N ratio
33. One of the following modes which has the characteristic of attenceation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at microwave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is -
Answer is :-c) TE01 mode
34. For a transmission line, the propogation constant, for a TEM wave travelling in it is given by (Where the symbols have the usual meanings ) -
Answer is :-b) [ R+jwL) (G+jwc)] ½
35. The advantages of wave guides over co-axial lines would include which of the following features-
1. Easier to use 2. lower power losses
3. Higher operating frequencies possible
Answer is :-c) 2 and 3
36. When a 75 ohm transmission line is to be terminated in two resistive loads R1 and R2 such that the standing pattern in the two cases have the same SWR , then the values of R1 and R2 (in ohms) should be -
Answer is :-b) 225 and 25 respectively
37. The degenerate modes in a wave guide are characterized by -
Answer is :-a) Same cut off frequencies but different field distribution
38. A TEM wave impinges obliquely on a dielectric-dielectric boundary with Er1=2 and Er2=1, the angle of incidence for total reflection is -
Answer is :-a) 30 0
39. The radiation pattern of Hertzian dipole in the plane perpendicular to the dipole is a -
Answer is :-c) Figure of eight
40. Permeance is the -
Answer is :-c) reciprocal of the reluctance
41. One of the following which is an active transducer is -
Answer is :-d) Photo emission
42. The wein bridge uses only -
Answer is :-d) Capacitors and Resistors.
43. The greater the value of Q -
Answer is :-b) smaller will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.
44. The most serious source of error in a) c) bridge measurement is -
Answer is :-d) stray fields.
45. Moving iron instruments -
Answer is :-b) do not have a linear scale
46. If accuracy is the main consideration, which one of the following voltmeters should one select -
Answer is :-d) 10,000 v ; 10 mA
47. In dc tacho generators used for measurement of speed of a shaft, frequent calibration has to be done because -
Answer is :-c) the armature current produces heating effect
48. Ideal transformer cannot be described by -
Answer is :-c) G parameters
49. Consider the following statements -
A3- phase balanced supply system is connected to a 3 phase unbalanced load) Power supplied to this load can be measured using
1. Two wattmeters
2. One wattmeter
3. Three wattmeters
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Answer is :-b) 1 and 3
50. The function of the reference electrode in a pH meter is to -
Answer is :-a) Produce a constant voltage
51. Match the column A (Devices) with column B (Characteristics) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the column -
Column A Column B
A) BJT 1. Voltage controlled negative resistance
B) MOSFET 2. High current gain
C) Tunnel diode 3. Voltage regulation
D) Zener diode 4. High input impedance
Codes :
A B C D
Answer is :-b) 2 4 1 3
52. A thyristor during forward blocking state is associated with.-
Answer is :-b) low current , large voltage.
53. In controlled rectifiers, the nature of load current i.e. whether load current is continuous or discontinuous -
Answer is :-b) depends both on the type of load and firing angle delay
54. A single phase voltage controller feeds power to a resistance of 10 W . The source voltage is 200 V rms. For a firing angle of 900 , the rms value of thyristor current in amperes is -
Answer is :-c) 10
55. In the performance of single phase and three phase full converters the effect of source inductance is to
Answer is :-c) reduce the output voltage
56. The cycloconverters (CCs) require natural or forced commutation as under -
Answer is :-c) forced commutation in step up CCs
57. Power transistors are more commonly of -
Answer is :-a) silicon npn type.
58. C is a -
Answer is :-b) High level language
59. What will be output of program
main ( )
{ int i ;
print f (”Enter value of i”);
scant (”%d”, & i);
if ( i = 5 )
print f (”you entered 5″);
else
print f (”you entered %d”, i ); }
if user entered 100 then
Answer is :-a) 5
60. (7F)16 + (BA)16 = (?)16-
Answer is :-b) 139
61. Two’s complement of 3 bit nonzero linory number is some or original number is all bits accepts-
Answer is :-a) MSB are zeros

63. . Transistors with high frequency have -
Answer is :-a) Thick base
64. Telephone traffic is specified in terms of -
Answer is :-d) Erlangs
65. In a Hartley oscillator -
Answer is :-a) Necessary phase relation is obtained by connecting grid and plate electrodes to the opposite ends of the tuned circuit.
66. The condenser C is charged in a bootstrap sweep generator -
Answer is :-a) Linearly but the discharge is non linear
67. In an audio amplifier audio signals become garbled and hence difficult to understand when an ac input current is large enough to drive the output to -
Answer is :-c) Either saturation or cut off
68. Five 1 bit registers are referred as -
Answer is :-a) Flags
69. Next binary number after 0,1, 10, 11 is -
Answer is :-c) 100

72. . If an inverter is placed at the input to an SR flip flop, the result is -
Answer is :-b) D flip flop

74. For the transfer function G(S)H(S) = the phase cross over frequency is -
Answer is :-b) 0.707 rad/sec

78. Angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is -
Answer is :-a) 17.340
79. For data transmission phase modulation is commonly used because -
Answer is :-b) It is resistant to the effects of noise.
80. Several channels are interleaved and then transmitted together is known as –
Answer is :-a) Frequency division multiplex
81. Identify the wrong statement-
The radar cross section of a target -
Answer is :-d) Is equal to the actual cross-sectional area for small targets.
82. Considering following parameters -
1. Loss in the media) 2. Permeability of the media) 3. Frequency of the wave 4. Velocity of the wave. Which of these parameters are responsible for the change of phase of a propagating electromagnetic wave?
Answer is :-b) 2, 3 and 4
83. In super heterodyne receivers double spotting is caused by -
Answer is :-a) poor front-end rejection
84. The number of lines per field in the United States TV system is -
Answer is :-a) 262 1/2
85. In a TV receiver the color killer -
Answer is :-a) cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome receivers.
86. The nominal capacitance of a coaxial RF cable is of 40 pF/m and the characteristic impedance of 50W. The inductance of the cable is-
Answer is :-c) 0.1 mH/m
87. Transmission of wave through Dominant mode is -
Answer is :-a) distortion less transmission
88. Lower the standing wave ratio (SWR) -
Your Answer is –
Answer is :-b) Lower mismatch error
89. In klyrtron oscillator for getting wide range of oscillations resonators should be -
Answer is :-c) Over coupled
90. The critical frequency is always -
Answer is :-a) Lower than maximum usable frequency
91. The PIN diode based on -
Answer is :-c) Negative resistance
92. Which antenna having circular polarization -
Answer is :-c) Helical antenna
93. The i/p S/N ratio of system is 50 and the o/p S/N ratio is 5 the noise figure is -
Answer is :-c) 10
94. In the 8085 mP, the RST 6 instruction transfers the program execution to the following location -
Answer is :-a) 30 H
95. In instruction cycle first operation is -
Answer is :-c) Opcode fetch
96. CMP instruction comes under group -
Your Answer is –
Answer is :-d) Logical operations.
97. In which logic operation does not effect any flags -
Answer is :-d) CMA
98. What happen when CALL instruction executed -
Answer is :-c) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock
99. The mark status of mark able interrupts is defined according to content of -
Answer is :-d) Accumulator
100. The decoder is a logic ckt that -
Answer is :-b) Identifies each combination of the signals present at i/p
101. The young man was quickly promoted when his employers how ————— he was -
Answer is :-c) assiduous
102. As letter is alphabet so zodiac is -
Answer is :-c) sign
103. What is the correct meaning of prudish.?
Answer is :-a) careful
104. Pick out the odd matching with reference to number -
Answer is :-b) hair – hairs
105. Choose the phrase that is most nearly similiar in meaning to the word given below-
Abut is
Answer is :-d) Adjoin
106. The highest mountain peak in Indian Territory is -
Answer is :-b) Kanchenjunga
107. German silver is an alloy comprising -
Answer is :-a) Copper, Nickel and Zinc
108. Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar’s mausoleum is in -
Answer is :-c) Yangon
109. On which date the World Trade Centre in New York and Pentagon in Washington d)C was attacked by terrorist -
Answer is :-b) 11 September 2001
110. India defeats South Africa in the finals of the inaugural champions challenge Hockey Tournament in Kualalumpur by -
Answer is :-d) 2-1
111. Which planets in the solar system are known as ‘Inferior Planets’ -
Answer is :-d) Mercury and Venus.
112. The largest Stupa in Southern India is at -
Answer is :-b) Amravati
113. The new chairman and Managing Director of Industrial Finance Corporaton of India (IFCI) is -
Answer is :-a) Mr. Vishwanath Prasad Singh
114. Which one is the latest among rock-cut temples?
Answer is :-c) Elephanta
115. Number of organisations government ban in Jammu and Kashmir and the North East under the new ordinance ‘POTO’ is -
Answer is :-d) 23
116. In bed of which river does Badrinath shrine stand?
Answer is :-c) Alakananda
117. The nerve endings for the sense of sight are located in the part of the eye called the -
Answer is :-d) Retina
118. Fundamental duties were introduced in the constitution by the -
Answer is :-b) 42nd Amendment
119. The Khalsa Panth was founded by -
Answer is :-d) Guru Govind singh
120. Number of countries involved in international fleet review hosted by India is -
Answer is :-c) 29

BSNL JTO Exam – 2005

BSNL JTO Exam – 2005

1. When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through
it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms-

a.) Resistance
b.) Reactance
c.) Impedance
d.) None

2. Oscillator crystal are made of –
a.) Silicon
b.) Germanium
c.) Quartz
d.) None

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-
a. ) Air
b. ) Ferrite
c.) Powdered ion
d.) Steel

4. If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area ‘A’ and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –


a.) c/2
b.) C
c.) 2C
d.) 4C

5. A superconductor is a –
a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

6. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
a) 8.05 pF
b) 10.05pF
c.) 16.01pF
d.) 20.01pF

7. Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –
a.) Inductance
b.) Capacitance
c.) Resistance
d.) None

8. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –
a.) Resistance in the line
b.) Capacitor in series with contacts
c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts
d.) None

9. RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
a.) Class ‘A’
b.) Class ‘b’
c.) Class ‘C’
d.) None

10. The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
a.) High positive
b.) High negative
c.) Low positive
d.) Zero

11. The input gate current of a FET is –
a.) a few microamperes
b.) negligibly small
c.) a few milliamperes
d.) a few amperes

12. In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –

a.) 25 mA
b.) 40 mA
c.) 25/16 mA
d.) 10 mA

13. A step recovery diode –
a.) has on extremely short recovery time
b.) conducts equally well in both directions
c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator
d.) is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals

14. In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with VCC 10V, the value of VCE (Q) should be approximately-
a.) 0.1V
b.) 5V
c.) 10V
d) V

15. In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –
a.) source
b.) drain
c.) gate
d.) none

16.The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –
a.) Triac
b.) UJT
c.) Diac
d.) SCR

17. A typical optical fibre has –
a.) High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding
b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
c.) Both a and b
d.) None

18. In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –

a.) 9
b.) 11
c.) 10
d.) 21

19. When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be –

a.) 3 – j1
b.) 3 + j9
c.) 7.5 + j 2.5
d.) 7.5 – j 2.5

20. In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load –

a.) 5
b.) 6.5
c.) 8
d.) 9

21. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z0 is the characteristic impedance,  is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-
a.) Z0 cot h?l
b.) Z0 cot l
c.) Z0 tan h. l
d.) Z0 tan l
22. The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –
a.) 
b.) /4
c.) /2
d.) /8
23.A relatively permanent information is stored in
a. ) ROM
b.) RAM
c.) PROM
d.) Volatile memory

24.The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to –


b.) RC
c.) 2RC
d.) 4RC

25.If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch ’s’ and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be –

a.) cos50tA
b.) 2A
c.) 2cos100tA
d.) 2sin50tA

26. When the  network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be respectively –

a) 9, 6 and 6
b.) 6, 6 and 9
c.) 9, 6 and 9
d.) 6, 9 and 6

27.When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –




d.) indeterminate

28.Joule/coulomb is the unit of -
a.) Electric field potential
b.) Potential
c .) Charge
d.) None of the above

29. The electric field line and equipotential lines-
a.) Are parallel to each other
b.) Are one and same
c.) Cut each other orthogonally
d.) Can be inclined to each other at any angle

30. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z0 is the characteristic impendence  is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line






31. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-
a.) In the +x direction
b.) In the –x direction
c. ) In the +y direction
d.) In the –y direction

32. The directions of vector E and vector H in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-
a.) Both E and H are transverse to the direction of propagation
b.) E is and H are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation
c.) H is entirely transverse and E has a component in the direction of propagation
d. ) H is entirely transverse and E has a component in the direction of propagation

33. The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-
a.) TM01
b.) TE10
c.) TM112
d.) TE11

34.When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –






35.. When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be
a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value
b.) Remain the same
c. ) Increase
d.) Decrease to zero

36. When a (75 – j40) load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75  at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.) An inductance at the load
c. ) A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.) none of the above

37. As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –
a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.

38. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter

39. Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?
a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.
b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5.
c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero
d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –

40. When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –
a.) 11.1
b.) 44.2
c.) 52.3
d.) 66.3

41.The Q of a radio coil –
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency

42. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75
43.The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)

44. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
a.) -2000C to 5000C
b.) 00C to 5000C
c.) 5000C to 12000C
d.) 12000C to 25000C

45. In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –

a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
b.) Silicon (Si)
c.) Copper (Cu)
d.) Germanium (Ge)
46.When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –
a.) 1
b.) 2
c.) 3
d.) 4
47. The circuit symbol for a GTO is
a. b.
c. d.

48. In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters

a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction
c.) step up device
d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device

49) In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.

S is closed at t = 0 the
maximum value of current and the
time at which it reaches this value are respectively.

a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS
b.) 50 A, 30 mS
c.) 100 A, 62.828 mS
d.) 400 A, 31.414 mS

50.50. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be-

a.) 200 A
b.) 170.7 A
c.) 141.4 A
d.) 70.7 A

51.The transfer function of an amplifier is given by

The high 3-db frequency of the amplifier will approximately
a.) 5850 KHZ
b.) 585 KHZ
c.) 5850 HZ
d.) 585HZ

52. In comparison to full wave rectifier with two diodes the four divide bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of -
a) . Higher current carrying
b.) Lower ripple factor
c.) Higher efficiency
d.) Lower peak increase voltage require

53. Power output increase in a class-c amplifier-
a.) If the conduction angle decrease
b) .If the conduction angle increase
c.) Are not governed by the conduction angle
d.) None of the above

54. A transistor with hie = 1.5 k and hfe = 75 is used in an emitter follower circuit where R1 and R2 are used for normal biasing . Approximate value of it’s current amplification is-
a.) 75
b.) 76
c.) 75/76
d.) -75

55. Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.) Its quiescent current is low
c.) It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.) It is biased well below cut off

56. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.) Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.) Transformer coupling
57. In the circuit shown in the given figure Rf provides

a.) Current series feedback
b.) Current shunt feedback
c.) Voltage series feedback
d.) Voltage shunt feedback
58. Mark the correct relation for the junction transistor

59. Data in the serial form can be converted into parallel form by using –
a.) PISO shift register
b.) SOIP shift register
c.) SIPO shift register
d.) POIS shift register

60. PROMs are used to store-
a.) bulk information
b.) information to be accessed rarely
c.) sequence information
d.) relatively permanent information

61.The horizontal axis in a 3 bit unipolar D/A converter represents-
a.) Output bit combination
b.) analog output voltage
c.) input bit combination
d.) none of the above
62. ‘Not allowed’ condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –
a.) s = 0, R = 0
b.) s = 1, R = 1
c.) s = 0, R = 1
d.) s = 1, R = 0
63. Name the fastest logic family-
a) TTL
b.) RTL
c.) DCTL
d.) ECL
64. Equation corresponding to De Morgan’s theorem in Boolean Algebra is –
a.) (A+B) (A+B) = AA + AB + BA + BB

c.) A + AB = A
d.) None of the above
65. In the given fig find radix of the system –

a.) 2
b.) 4
c.) 6
d.) 8

66.Modems are used for data transmission telephone lines to –
a.) increase the transmission capacity
b) improve noice performance
c.) incorporate error control coding
d.) eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal
67.The figure of a control system is shown. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is-

a.)
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5
68. Identify the example of open-loop system-
a.) A windscreen wiper
b.) Aqualung
c.) Respiratory system of an animal
d.) A system for controlling Anti-rocket missiles.
69.Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-
1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . (t) + 4e-2t 4(t)
Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-
a.) 1&3
b.) 1&4
c.) 2&4
d.) 1&4

70.A system is described by

To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method the following V functions are considered.

Mark the most suitable V-function in this case-
a.) Only V1
b.) Only V2
c.) Both V1 and V2
d.) Neither V1 nor v2

71.Identity the polar plot of a typical type zero system with open loop transfer function

72. The scattering matrix of a magic –tee shown in the given figure is-

73. Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4
74. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)
The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a.) 150 samples per second
b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second
d.) 350 samples per second
75.In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
a.) 34 and 106
b.) 52. And 88
c.) 106 and 142
d.) 34 and 142
76.Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a.) Pulse radar
b.) Tracking radar
c.) MTI radar
d.) Mono pulse radar
77.The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing
78.Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
79. In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
a.) reflection from the ionosphere
b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground
d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.

80.Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b) . increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.

81. In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.

82.Circuit in the given figure represents. –

a.) an astable multivibrator
b.) A monostable multivibrator
c.) Voltage controlled oscillator
d.) Ramp generator

83.. . D = r is-
a.) Maxwell’s 1st equation
b.) Maxwell’s II equation
c.) Maxwell’s III equation
d.) Maxwell’s IV equation

84. In a rectangular wave-guide which TM mode exists-
a.) TM00
b.) TM01
c.) Tm10
d.) TM11

85. In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.
a) . port 4
b) . port 3
c.) port 2.
d.) port 3 & 4.

86. For high power i.e. 10 w to 50 kw measurement –
a.) Barometer are used
b.) Thermisters are used
c.) Calorimetric technique
d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used
87.The difference between TWT & klystron is –
a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time
c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact
d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact
88.Which one is most suitable for transmission through wave guide-
a.) Hown antennas
b.) Bioconical antennas
c.) helical antenna
d. ) Discone
89. The skip distance of microwave is given by –
a.)
b. )
c.)
d.)
90. How many general purpose registers 8085mp-
a.) 4
b.) 6
c.) 8
c.) 10
91. 8085 mP has no. of addressing modes-
a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5
92.What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction
a.) z = 0, cy = 0
b.) z = 0, cy = 1
c.) z = 1, cy = 0
d.) z = 1, cy = 1

93.Microprocessor accept interrupt only if.
a.) interrupt flip flop disabled.
b.) when INTA signal is low.
c. ) interrupt flip flop enabled.
d.) none of above.
94.Microprogramming is a technique
a.) for programming the microprocessor
b.) for writing small programs efficiently
c.) for programming the control steps of computer
d.) for programming o/p / i/p
95.High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help of
a.) interpreter
b.) compiler
c.) operating
d.) system
96. (10110011)2 = (?)8
a.) 253
b.) 263
c.) 273
d.) 283
97. A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into-
a.) NAND
b.) NOR
c.) AND
d.) NOPE.
98.The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be-
a.) AND
b.) OR
c.) NAND
d.) X-OR
99.A symbol of JK flip flop is-

100. A demultiplener-
a.) has multiple i/p and single o/p
b.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
d.) has single i/p and single o/p
101.. Which of the following best describes the authour`s attitude toward fairy tales ?
a.) fascination
b.) open approval.
c.) Indulgent tolerance.
d.) Scornful.
102. What type of sentence is this ?
Hurray! We won the match
a.) Exclamatory
b.) assertive
c.) Negative
d.) Affirmative
103. Before which of the following word will you put ‘a’
a.) hour
b.) M. A.
c.) Umbrella
d.) Man
104. The noun form of ‘fresh’ is –
a.) freshly
b.) freshen
c.) fresheners
d.) fresh itself
105. The word ‘clang’ is an example of –
a.) Simile
b.) inversion
c.) onomatopoeia
d.) irony
106.The Forbes magazine acclaimed Azim Premji as richest India’s is the chairman of-
a.) Pentafour software
b) Infosys
c.) IBM
d.) Wipro
107. Bharat Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to-
a.) Lata Mangeshkar and Zakeer Hussain
b.) Zakeer Hussain and Bismillah Khan
c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar
d.) Lata Mangeshkar and Ustad Amzad Ali Khan
108.Mr. George W-Bush takes over as —— President of the united states of America succeeding Mr. Bill Clinton-
a.) 42nd
b.) 43rd
c.) 40th
d.) 45th
109.New Chief Minister of Pondicherry is-
a.) T. Venkat Naidu
b.) K. Hari Harh
c.) N. Rengaswany
d.) M. Mudliar
110. No court has the jurisdiction to interfere with the election process once set in motion by the Election commission. This is enshrined in Article-
a.) 311
b.) 329
c.) 356
d.) 365
111. Ostrich is a-
a.) Running bird
b.) Flying bird
c) Swimming bird
d.) Migratory bird
112.The main atmospheric gas responsible for green house is-
a.) Oxygen
b.) Nitrogen
c.) Ozone
d.) Carbon-dioxide
113.Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop-
a.) Rice
b.) groundnut
c.) Sugarcane
d.) gram
114.The function of World Bank is to-
a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economy
b.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates
c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments
d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade
115.Speed of sound is maximum in-
a. ) Water
b.) Air
c.) Steel
d.) Vacuum
116.“Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these-
a.) Subhash Chandra Bose
b.) Jawaharlal Nehru
c.) Lajpat Rai
d.) Bhagat Singh
117. Durand cup is associated with-
a.) Hockey
b.) Tennis
c.) Football
d.) Badminton
118.Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.
a.) 1908
b.) 1910
c.) 1913
d.) 1914
119. India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on-
a.) May 18, 1975
b.) May 20, 1974
c) May 17, 1974
d.) May 17, 1974

120.An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-
a.) Asian development Bank
b.) World Bank
c.) Swiss Bank
d.) Reserve Bank of India

Answers
1. a.) Resistance
2. c.) Quartz
3. a. )Air
4. c.) 2C
5. a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
6. b) 10.05pF
7. a.) Inductance
8. c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts
9. c.) Class ‘C’
10. a.) High positive
11. b.) negligibly small
12. d.) 10 mA
13. c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator
14. b.) 5V
15. b.) drain
16. d.) SCR
17. b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
18. b.) 11
19. c.) 7.5 + j 2.5
20. b.) 6.5
21. c.) Z0 tan h.Ö l
22. b.) l/4
23. c.) PROM
24. c.) 2RC
25. b.) 2A
26. b.) 6W, 6W and 9W
27. b)
28. b.) Potential
29. c.) Cut each other orthogonally
30. c)
31. c)In the +y direction
32. a.)
33. d.)
34. d)
35. d.) Decrease to zero
36. b.) An inductance at the load
37. b.) more accurate
38. b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
39. d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
40. a.) 11.1
41. d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
42. b.) 1.5
43. c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
44. d.) 12000C to 25000C
45. a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
46. a.) 1
47. b.)
48. a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
49. a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS
50. b.) 170.7 A
51. a.) 5850 KHZ
52. d.)Lower peak increase voltage require
53. b).If the conduction angle increase
54. b.)76
55. b.)Its quiescent current is low
56. a.) Direct coupling
57. d.)Voltage shunt feedback
58. c)
59. c.) SIPO shift register
60. d.) relatively permanent information
61. c.) input bit combination
62. a.) s = 0, R = 0
63. d.) ECL
64. b)
65. a.) 2
66. a.) increase the transmission capacity
67. d.) 5
68. a.) A windscreen wiper
69. a.) 1&3
70. c.) Both V1 and V2
71. b)
72. a)
73. a.) 1 and 4
74. d.) 350 samples per second
75. b.) 52. And 88
76. c.) MTI radar
77. c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
78. d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
79. b.) line of sight mode
80. d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
81. c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
82. a.) an astable multivibrator
83. c.) Maxwell’s III equation
84. d.) TM11
85. a). port 4
86. d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used
87. a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
88. c.) helical antenna
89. b. )
90. b.) 6
91. c.) 4
92. c.) z = 1, cy = 0
93. c. ) interrupt flip flop enabled.
94. c.) for programming the control steps of computer
95. b.) compiler
96. b.) 263
97. a.) NAND
98. d.) X-OR
99. b)
100. b.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
101. b.) open approval.
102. a.) Exclamatory
103. d.) Man
104. c.) fresheners
105. c.) onomatopoeia
106. d.) Wipro
107. c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar
108. b.) 43rd
109. c.) N. Rengaswany
110. b.) 329
111. a.) Running bird
112. d.) Carbon-dioxide
113. d.) gram
114. a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economy
115. c.) Steel
116. b.) Jawaharlal Nehru
117. c.) Football
118. c.) 1913
119. a.) May 18, 1975
120. a.) Asian development Bank