Thursday, October 28, 2010

BHEL ENGINEER TRAINEE EXAM 2009

EXAM HELD ON : 10-08-2009 AT SECUNDERABAD

Details of the written test:

It comprises of 2 sections technical (120) and aptitude (120), total 240(Test duration 150 minutes).
Paper is easy and many are direct questions, only factor concerned is the time.

SECTION-I----TECHNICAL
1. Critical load acting axially on a long column
Ans: (pi)2*E*I/L2

2. Relation between moment of area and radius of gyration
Ans: I=AK2

3. Cup shaped components are produced using which operation
Ans: drawing

4. A sheet of Al alloy having 2mm thickness is welded using which process
Ans: TIG

5. Two gears having teeth 18 and 40 and center distance 56.what is the module?

6. In thick cylinders, which of the following is true[*S stands for sigma*] (a) St>Sr (b) St=Sr (c)St

7. In a plane stress condition, if the centre of Mohrs circle coincides with the origin then which is true .the relation between Sx and Sy is asked

8. Lames theorem.F1/sinA=F2/sinB=F3/sinC

9. Youngs modulus value for steel=200Gpa

10. Thermal conductivity of silver=400w/m0K

11. Fouling factor formula F.F =1/Udirty-1/Uclean

12. Relation between notch sensitivity factor and theoretical stress concentration factor

13. Effectiveness of heat exchanger definition

14. Reynolds number formula

15. Clinical thermometer is which order system .0,1,2, or 3

16. Piezometric transducer is used to find which signals static or dynamic

17. Peclet number formula=Re*Pr

18. Radiation energy emitted, Eemitted=S*A*T4

19. Which of the following is not related to CI engine
(a) Fuel pump (b) carburetor (c).. (d) none

20. Two connected in series having stiffness K1, K2
Kequivalent=K1*K2/K1+ K2

21. Magnification factor at resonance, MF=1/2zeta

22. Coroilis component value, =2vw

23. Hooks law holds good upto
(a)elastic point (b)UYP(c)LYP(d)Failure

24. Meshing of two gears fail if
(a)materials are different(b)
25. A beam whose one end is fixed and other is free is
(a)cantilever (b)ss(c)Udl(d)none

26. Deflection at the free end of cantilever =PL3/3EI

27. Shear stress, twisting moment given ,find diamaeter.

28. Formula for polar moment of inertia of a hollow shaft

29. Formula for logarithmic decrement

30. A problem based on the above formula

31. Two question on transmissibility(W/Wn ratio )

32. Question from vibration mass,k given cal frequency

33. Two more questions, one each from riveted joints and cotterjoint

34. 1BHN=N/m2

35. Temperature limits, given to find Carnots efficiency

36. Metacentric height is the distance between Metacentre and --------
Ans: Centre of gravity

37. Force and displacement vector given to find out the work done

38. Rota meter is used to find
(a)flow(b)velocity(c)pressure(d)density

In addition, 10-12 were asked from electrical basics.

SECTION-II------- APTITUDE

VERBAL

Antonyms (5)-Facetious, Benign

Synonyms (5)-very easy

Fill in the blanks (5):-a bit tough

2 Comprehension passages

Correction of sentences-(5)

Reasoning (5)

BHEL ENGINEER TRAINEE EXAM 2009

EXAM HELD ON : 11-02-2009 AT TRICHY

NOTE: One Mark for correct answer, 1/5th for wrong answer. Five choices were given

1)Unit of Entropy (J/kg K or kJ/kg K)
2)A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1 m and penetrates the sand into for 1 m. What is the resistance force given by sand.
3)Ratio of specific heats of air. (1.41)
4)A body weighs 3 kg in air. If it is submerged in a liquid, it weighs 2.5 kg. What is the specific gravity of the liquid.
5)Two cars travell in same direction at 40 km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in a opposite direction in 60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between them?
6)A simple problem involing in hoops stress. For sphere: M= [3/2]*p*V*[density of pressure vessel material/Maximum working stress it can tolerate] For Thin walled pressure walls: Hoops stress or stress in the radial direction =p*r/2t
7)A problem in force calculation in a body moving in a inclined surface.
8)Composition of bronze. (Copper+zinc)
9)Compostion of stainless steel.(iron+chromium+nickel+carbon)
10)CI is manifactured in which process. (cupola process)
11)What percentage of carbon is preset in pig iron. (4.5 to 6%)
12)Water is available at 10m height. What is the pressure available? (pressure=density*g*height; p=1000*9.81*10; p=98100N/m2)
13)What will happen if the speed of the centrifugal pump doubles.
14)The unit eV is widely used in ? (Nuclear and atomic physics)
15)What will happen to the resistance, when the diameter of the conductor is doubled?
16)The power comsumed by a electrical device is 1000W at 250V, What is the resistance in the device?
(Power= Voltage*current; Current=Power/Voltage, Current,I=1000/250=4
amps. V=IR, Therefore R=250/4=62.5 ohms)
17)Why DC current is not used in transformer.
18)On what principle the sonar/ radar( I dont remember) works?
19)Bending moment diagram for the UDL is in what shape?
20)Function of the distributor in petrol vehicles? (Spark timing)
21)Which is not present in CI engines? (carburrettor)
22)What will happen if one cylinder recieves more amount of fuel spray from injectors than other injectors?
23)Purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines? (The purpose of a draft tube is toconvert some of the kinetic energy of the flow from the runner (the rotating part of the turbine) intopressure energy and thereby increase the efficiency ofthe hydro power turbine. )
24)What is the effect or reheater in the gas turbine? (The advantage of reheater is significantly increased thrust; the disadvantage is it has very high fuel consumption and inefficiency)
25)Problems in involving with fricition coefficient.
26)Factor of safety = Yeild stress/Working stress.
27)Which is the example of non parallel power transmission (Universal coupling)
28)For perpendicular shafts worm gear is used.
29)A planet gear with 25 teeth is meshed with a sun gear of 100 teeth. Both are connected using a arm. How many rotations are needed for planet gear to complete one rotation around the sun gear?
30)What is equivalent spring constant for spring in parallel?
31) Some questions was asked related to boundry layer and vortex flow.
32) 5 questions were asked in PERT, Process planning, Product planning, Break even analysis.
33)How are tungsten and sintered composite materials are machined? (Electro Discharge Machining, EDM)

General Apptitude:
All the sections were very easy. Basic knowledge is sufficient to attend all the questions. But Keep time factor in mind and increase your speed. There are 120 questions like this!!
English:
--- Detect the words with wrong spellings (5 questions)
---Fill in the blanks with appropriate words(5 questions)
--- Two reading comprehensions were given(10 questions)
---Find the error in the sentence (8 questions)
Reasoning:
--- Seating arrangement problems
--- Find the relation between them
Quantitative ability:
All the questions were very easy.
---50% of the questions are from basic geometry.

JINDAL STEEL EXAM PAPER 2008

EXAM HELD ON: 17-02-2008 AT KOLKATA


Verbal (20 ques):

1. 10 ques based on two RC passages,dealing with computer languages.

2. remaining ques on articles, prepositions and word meanings.


Numerical (20 ques):
1. all ques based on simple but lengthy calculations involving %ages, profit and loss, ratio-proportion,etc.


Attention to detail(15 ques):
1. ques based on pattern recognition, logical reasoning and types like if + is -, - is *, etc.


Technical (60 ques-INSTRUMENTATION):

I remember 51 ques. They are:

  1. what does ‘value’ mean in value engg.
  2. what is value engg used for
  3. two ques on statement of nyquist-shannon theorem
  4. i/p and o/p impedance of instrumentation amplifier
  5. given open loop TF for unity f/b calc damping ratio
  6. given G(s)H(s) calc type of system
  7. thru which signal does µP communicate with memory
  8. 12 address lines address how much of memory
  9. no of timers of 8051
  10. prog device used with 8051
  11. µcontrollers used widely in which industry
  12. ques on what is LPP
  13. which technique used for optimization in OR
  14. which of these deals with reducing waiting time(ans: queuing theory)
  15. given BW and SNR of a communication channel calc its maxm transmission rate in kbps when affected by white Gaussian noise
  16. what is a µcontroller
  17. no of components in VLSI
  18. what is done in VLSI
  19. what are the procedures for sampling of a signal
  20. which is the most commonly used non-impulse type of pump
  21. how do you go from time domain to freq domain(both fourier and laplace were in the options)
  22. what is thyristor
  23. what is triac
  24. diff betw triac and SCR
  25. why is equalizing ckt used in series with SCR
  26. what freq crystal should be used betw pin 1 n 2 of a µP
  27. if for a resistive load in an SCR ckt the current is ripple free and equal to 20 A what will it be when 20 mH inductor connected to the load
  28. if load current in an SCR is I, what is the average thyristor current for a 1-φ converter
  29. maxm efficiency of AM power
  30. given signal freq and intermediate freq calc image freq
  31. when are equalizing pulses applied in TV
  32. what is a spirometer
  33. what is used to measure heart sounds
  34. minm duration of firing pulses for a thyristor
  35. which of these transforms is also called tustin ’s method( or something like that)
  36. why is RC snubber ckt used
  37. what type of waveform produced by RC oscillator
  38. diff betw inverter and oscillator output
  39. for a 6 phase 60 Hz half wave rectifier what is the triple freq of the output
  40. which of the following modulation is digital: PCM/ PAM/ PWM/ PTM
  41. which method of ctrl removes offset
  42. eqn of PID
  43. what filter used for extracting SSB output
  44. CMRR is expressed commonly in
  45. integrated value of step fn.
  46. differentiated value of const fn.
  47. what is the kidney dialysis method(artificial) called
  48. quantity analogous to current in pneumatics
  49. quantity analogous to mass in rotational motion
  50. which of these theorems not used in filters( ans: norton’s theorem)
  51. which of these is UHF(1.68MHz,16.8Mhz,168Mhz,1680MHz

Friday, October 22, 2010

AIR and DD Engineering Assistants 2010 Model Paper


1. Which one of the following physical quantities, is not defined in the terms of force per unit area:
(a) pressure
(b) strain
(c) stress
(d) Young’s modulus

Ans:b
2. The distance moved by a moving body is equal to:
(a) area between the distance-time graph and distance axis
(b) area between the speed-time graph and time axis
(c) area between the distance-time graph and time axis
(d) area between the speed-time graph and distance axis.
Ans:b
3. A beaker containing water weighs 100 gm. It is placed on the pan of a balance and a piece of metal weighing 70 gm. and having a volume of 10cc. is placed inside the water in the beaker. The weight of the beaker and the metal would be :
(a) 170gm.
(c) 100gm.
(b)160gm.
(d)30gm.
Ans:a
4. For the same kinetic energy, the momentum shall be maximum for:
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) deuteron
(d) alpha particle
Ans:d
5. The common balance works on the principle of equality of:
(a) forces
(b) moments of forces
(c) masses
(d) masses of pans
Ans:b
6. A particle moves in a circle of radius R with a constant speed under a centripetal force F. The work done in completing a full circle is:
(a) 2RF
(b) ?R2F
(c) 2?RF
(d)Zero
Ans:d
7. When two quantities are plotted on the graph paper against each other and the result so obtained is a st. line, then
(a) Both the quantities are equal
(b) The quantities are inversely proportional to each other
(c) Sum of both is zero
(d) The quantities are proportional to each other
Ans:d
8. What is the order of magnitude of 260°?
(a)103
(b) 104
(c)102
(d) 10
Ans:c
9. The maximum value of g is:
(a) At the poles
(b) At the top of the Mount Everest
(c) At the equator
(d) Below the sea level
Ans:a
10. A fixed volume of gas at 27°C exerts a pressure of 750 mm. If the gas is heated to a pressure of 1500mm., temperature must be:
(a) 600°C
(b) 327°C
(c) 54°C
(d) 13.5°C
Ans:b
11. A body of mass 2 kg acted upon by a constant force, travels a distance of 3 metres in the first second and a further distance of meter in the next second. The force acting on the body is?
(a) 12 Newtons
(b) 8 Newtons
(c) 4 Newtons
(d) 1 Newton
Ans:c
12. Two forces each equal to P acting at a point have no resultant. The angle between the two forces must be equal to:
(a)180°
(b) 90°
(c)0°
(d) 120°
Ans:a
13. A jet engine works on the principle of:
(a) conservation of energy
(b) conservation of momentum
(c) conservation of mass
(d) conservation of temperature
Ans:b
14. A sharp knife cuts much better than a blunt one because?
(a) Area of sharp knife is much less than the area of the blunt one
(b) sharp knife is brighter
(c) sharp knife is colder
(d) sharp knife is costly
Ans:a
15. A man carries a heavy box on his head on a horizontal plane from one place to another.
In this he does?
(a) maximum work
(b) no work
(c) negative work
(d) minimum work
Ans:b
16. The bob of a second’s pendulum is replaced by another bob of double mass. The new time period will be:
(a) 4 sec.
(c) 2 sec.
(b) 1 sec
(d) 3 sec.
Ans:c
17.A device for measuring temperatures at a distance is
(a) gas thermometer
(b) mercury thermometer
(c) radiation
(d) maximum-minimum thermometer
Ans:c
18. A piece of ice is floating in a concentrated solution of common salt (in water) in a pot. When ice melts completely, the level of solution will:
(a) go up
(b) remain the same
(c) go down
(d) first go up then go down
Ans:a
19. A radioactive source has a half-life of 30 days. During a period of 90 days the fraction of atoms that have decayed would be
(a)100%
(b) 87.5%
(c)64%
(d) 50%
Ans:b
20. A black body emits:
(a) radiations of all wavelengths
(b) no radiations
(c) radiations of only one wavelength
(d) radiations of selected wavelengths
Ans:a
21. A near sighted person cannot see distinctly beyond 50 cm. from his eye. The power in diopter of spectacle lenses which will enable him to see distant objects clearly is
(a) +50
(b) —50
(c) +2
(d) —2
Ans:c
22. Size of a nucleus is of the order of?
(a)10-18m
(b) 10-14m
(c)10-10m
(d) 10-6m
Ans:b
23. The freezing point on a thermometer is marked as 20° and the boiling point as 150°C. A temperature of 60°C on this thermometer will be read as:
(a)40°
(b) 65°
(c)98°
(d) 110°
Ans:c
24. In isothermal expansion of an ideal gas:
(a) heat content remains constant
(b) temperature remains constant
(c) both heat content and temperature remain constant
(d) pressure and temperature of the gas remain constant
Ans:b
25. A man standing between two cliffs hears the first echo of a sound after 2 sec. and the second echo 3 sec. after the initial sound. If the speed of sound be 330 m/sec. the distance between the two cliffs should be
(a)1650 m.
(b)990 m.
(c)825 m
(d) 660 m.
Ans:c
26. In a resonance tube experiment the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm. of air column and the second for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is equal to?
(a)0.5 cm
(b)1.0 cm
(c)1.5 cm
(d) 2 cm
Ans:b
27. The ratio of the specific heat of air at constant pressure to its specific heat at constant volume is?
(a) zero
(b) greater than one
(c) less than one
(d) equal to one
Ans:b
28. A convex lens has a focal length of 10 cm. When it is immersed in water it will behave
as?
(a) a convex tens of 10 cm. focal length
(b) a concave lens of 10 cm. focal length
(c) a convex lens of focal length greater than 10cm.
(d) a convex lens of focal length less than 10 cm.
Ans:c
29. Two particles having charges q1 and q2 when kept at a certain distance exert a force F on each other. If the distance between the two particles is reduced to half and the charge on each particle is doubled the force between the particles would be ?
(a)2F
(b)4F
(c)8F
(d)16F
Ans:d
30. A small magnet is placed perpendicular to a constant magnetic field. The forces acting on the magnet will result in?
(a) rotation
(b) translation
(c) no motion at all
(d) rotation as well as translation
Ans:a
31. A hollow metallic sphere is charged. Inside the sphere?
(a) the potential is zero but the electric field is finite
(b) the electric field is zero but the potential is finite
(c) both the electric field and the potential are finite
(d) both the electric field and the potential are zero
Ans:b
32. Two electric lamps each of 100 watts 220 V are connected in series to a supply of 220 volts. The power consumed would be:
(a)100 Watts
(b) 200 Watts
(c)25 Watts
(d) 50 Watts
Ans:d
33. A transformer is:
(a) a device for stepping up D.C.
(b) a generator of current
(c) device for converting direct current into alternating current
(d) a device for stepping up or down the voltage of A.C. supply
Ans:d
34. Transistor act as a?
(a) conductor
(b) semi-conductor
(c) insulator
(d) thermionic valve
Ans:d
35. The sky is blue because:
(a) there is more blue light in the sunlight
(b) of scattering of sunlight by air molecules in the atmosphere
(c) of scattering of sunlight by dust particles in the atmosphere
(d) other colours are absorbed by heavenly bodies
Ans:b
36. A cyclonic storm is indicated by a change in the atmospheric pressure. In atmospheric
pressure there is a:
(a)sudden rise
(b) gradual rise
(c)sudden fall
(d) gradual fall
Ans:c
37. The electric field inside a hollow conducting sphere will ?
(a) increases towards the centre
(b) decreases towards the centre
(c) is finite and constant throughout
(d) is zero
Ans:d
38. Imperfect gases are those:
(a) which contain impurities
(b) which do not obey Charle’s and Boyle’s laws
(c) whose molecules are not spherical
(d) whose molecules cannot be regarded as point masses
Ans:b
39. Sonar is a device for:
(a) location and ranging of aircraft’s
(b) location and ranging submarines
(c) producing a musical note of high quality
(d) measuring frequency of musical notes
Ans:b
40. Cyclotron is a device to produce:
(a) atomic energy
(b) high energy electrons
(c) high energy photons
(d) high energy protons
Ans:d
41. Which one of the following is not a vector?
(a) Velocity
(b) Acceleration
(c) Force
(d) Energy
Ans:d
42. Two steel balls of mass 1 kg. and 2kg. and a lead ball of 10kg. are released together from the top of tower 30 metres high. Assuming the path to be in vacuum
(a) the lead ball reaches the ground earlier
(b) the 1 kg. steel bail reaches the ground earlier
(c) all the balls reach the ground simultaneously
(d) the 2 kg. steel ball reaches the ground earlier
Ans:c
43. After a watch has been wound, it?
(a) has great energy stored in it
(b) possesses mechanical potential energy stored in it
(c) has eletrical energy stored in it
(d) has no energy in it
Ans:b
44. Two plane mirrors are set at right angles and a flower is placed in any position in between the mirrors. The number of images of the flower which will be seen is?
(b) two
(d) four
(a) one
(c) three
Ans:c
45. In which of the following cases total internal reflection cannot be obtained?
(a) ray going from water to glass
(b) a ray going from glass to water
(c) a ray going from glass to air
(d) a ray going from water to air.
Ans:a
46. When white light passes through a glass prism, we get a spectrum on the other side of the prism. In the emergent beam the ray which is deviated least is
(a) the violet ray
(b) the red ray
(c) the green ray
(d) the yellow ray
Ans:b
47. Magnetic storms are due to
(a) the rotation of the earth
(b) the revolution of the earth
(c) the rainy season
(d) the appearance off Sun spots
Ans:d
48. For dynamo which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) It converts the electrical energy into light energy
(b) It converts the kinetic energy into heat energy
(c) It converts the mechanical energy into electrical energy
(d) Jt converts the electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Ans:c
49. In a transformer the immediate cause of the induced A. C. in the secondary coil is?
(a) a varying electric field
(b) a varying magnetic field
(e) a motion of the secondary coil
(d) efficiency of the operator
Ans:b
50.A dynamo actually acts as a?
(a) converter of energy
(b) source of electric charge
(c) source of magnetic charge
(d) source of energy
Ans:a

Saturday, October 16, 2010

BSNL JTO 2008 YEAR SOLVED PAPER


1.Which Vitamin is found in Oranges and Lemons?
Ans: vitamin C in oranges.
2.Shimla Agreement was done between India and_________

  1. China,
  2. Nepal,
  3. Pakistan,
  4. Bangladesh.

Ans: Pakistan

3.Who is known as Iron man of India?
Ans: Saradar Vallabhai
4.Which is oldest IIT (Indian Institute of Technology)?
Ans: IIT Karagpur
5.With which Indian state does the International border of Myanmar does not touch?
Assam, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Manipur,Mizoram etc.. (These are Choices.)
Ans: Mizoram

6.Fill in the blanks with preposition- I agree ______this proposal.
Ans: I agree with the proposal.

7.What is the antonym of Obsolete.
Ans: Current.

8.A map was given with West Bengal and Kerala was shaded. Question was- what is the main product of the shaded places?

Ans: Major Tea Producing States In [shal]India[/shal]

  • North India – Assam, West Bengal, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland & Himachal Pradesh
  • South India – Tamilnadu, Kerala & Karnataka

9.Four sentences were given and a grammatically correct sentence was to be founded.
Ans: French live in France.

10.What is Hinyan? Its Hinayana Buddhism

11.What is Kalpana-2 Satellite meant for?
Ans: Kalpana is tracking monsoons.I think there is only Kalpana-1.
You see satellite images of Kalpana-1 tracking the onset of Monsoon and depressions in Bay of Bengal.

12.Where was the First Round Table Conference Held?
Ans: London

13.Who is the writer of the book-‘My Country My Life?’
Ans: LK Advani.

14.Who Got First Woman Grandslam?
Ans: Its not Grandslam. Grandmaster. The answer is S. Vijayalakshmi.

15.When is Telecommunications Day?
Ans: Telecommunications Day was celebrated last month. The date is 17th May. BSNL celebrates it.

16.Which Gas is responsible for Green House Effect? Carbon Dioxide ???
Ans: CO2 ( Carbon dioxide )
17.A group of Islands is known as__________
Ans: A large group of islands is know as archipelago

From Section – 1 and 2 mixed
1.What device is used to measure very low [shal]resistance[/shal]?
Ans: Kelvin Double Bridge
2.L and C given and Characteristic impedance was to be found . Formula is sqrt(L/C). Though exact values of L & C is Can’t Re-Call
Ans: answer was 60 Ohm.
3.ZL and Z0 was given and SWR was to be calculated.
4.After what wavelength all the properties of Tx lines repeats itself?
5.As compared to twisted pair lines , the repeater spacing requirement in Optical fiber is more or less or same?
6.How much is the minimum HDD partition size for FAT32 Format?
Ans: 512 MB or larger. (FAT 32 Supports 512 MB or larger size of partition)
7.What is the value of ‘a ‘ after execution of this program? Ans 16
8.A RAM has 32 address lines and 16 Output lines. What is memory size?
Ans: it is 8GB because 32 address lines means 2^32 i.e. 4*1024*1024*1024 address locations available and each location has 2bytes(16 output lines). So total memory is 2*4*1024*1024*1024=8GB

9.A question was there that a C program can be complied with C++
compiler or C++ program with C Compiler or Fortran Compiler. C can be compiled in c++

10.Which interrupt of Microprocessor is edge triggered…?
Ans: RST.65

11.Which programmable interface of microprocessor is bit set reset mode?
Ans: Ans: I think 8255 Bit Set/Reset (BSR) (Please Confirm)

12. An EX NOR gate was given . One input is T and other input is grounded.
What is its output? [ Think what it is? ]
13. What is binary equivalent of 74H and what is its 2’s compliment ?
0×74 = 0b1110100,

14. A Figure was given….which part is snubber circuit?
Snubber Circuit

A Similar Ckt Not Exactly the Same Still Identify Where the Snubber ckt is?

15. Which of the antenna is non resonant?

Ans: Rhombic Antenna

16. An instrument gives 1% error for 500 V full scale measurement? What is %age error for measuring 250 V?

17. For A 5 varibale K map Minterms was given and SOP expression was to
be found?

18. An assembly language program was given and T states for all instructions were given. Total frequency was to be calculated.

19. If O/P resistance is more and I/p Resistance is less…which feedback configuration is used?

20.The S matrix of lossless network?

21. In a micro strip line what exists? TE or TM or TEM or Quasi TEM?

22. Which is preferred for TE and TM? Coaxial cable or Stripline or Dielectric filled waveguide?

23.A RC series cct with R= 3k and C=2 micro F was given . Switch was initially open and closed at t=0. The ratio of voltage across C at t=0 and t= 6ms. Calculate?

24. A 10 V sorce with internal r= 250 and Load R=500 is there. A voltmeter with r= 500 is connected across R. the % change in voltage wrt true voltage without taking the r of voltmeter.

25.If distance between 2 plates of capacitor is reduced by 10% how much is %age change in capacitance?

26. Specific resistance for Cu and Al is given. Diameter of Cu is given. For same resistance per unit length what is radius of Al in mm.

27. Conductance of a metallic wire is directly/inversely proportional to length and directly/inversely proportional to area.

28. A Memory was there.with input lines A0- A11and Chip Select Low Line was through NAND gate having input and A14 –A15. What is address range?

29. In order to measure the volatage of thermocouple the amplifier should have …………..greater slew rate or lesser input offset current or——— or ——–“?

30. MASER RF Amplifier is not used for_________?
Ans: Radio Astronomy

BSNL JTO 2005 YEAR SOLVED PAPER



When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of -
a) Each of them increases
b) Each of them decreases
c) Copper increases and germanium decreases
d) Copper decreases and germanium increases
Answer: d)
When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instrument can be used -
a) VTVM
b) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c) Moving iron voltmeter
d) Digital multimeter
Answer: b)

When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at room temperature then –
a) Both will have equal value of resistivity
b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity
c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon
d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium
Answer: d)

When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = 0; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4
Answer: b)

For the n-type semiconductor with n = Np and p = , the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes –
a) drop back to acceptor impurity states
b) drop to donor impurity states
c) Virtually leave the crystal
d) recombine with the electrons
Answer: d)

The location of lighting arrestor is –
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is –
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
Answer: a)

Telemetering is a method of –
a) Counting pulses sent over long distances
b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None
Answer: c)

When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1´ 106 kg/cm2 and R is 100 ohms then the value of DR will be -
a) 2W
b) 3W
c) 4W
d) 1W
Answer: d)

As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –
a) Becomes zero
b) Abruptly decreases
c) Abruptly increases
d) Remains constant
Answer: d)

11. One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is –
a) Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric pick up
c) Photo-Voltaic cell
d) LCD
Answer: d)

When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is –

a) Common base
b) Common collector
c) Common emitter
d) Emitter follower
Answer: a)

In a JFET gates are always –
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) unbiased
d) none
Answer: c)

The main factor which differentiate a DE MOSFET from an E only MOSFET is the absence of –
a) insulated gate
b) electrons
c) channel
d) P-N junction

An SCR conducts appreciable current when –
a) Anode and gate are both negative with respect to cathode
b) Anode and gate are both positive with respect to cathode
c) Anode is negative and gate is positive with respect to cathode
d) Gate is negative and anode is positive with respect to cathode

Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is -
a) An indirect band gap semiconductor
b) A direct band gap semiconductor
c) A wide band gap semiconductor
d) A narrow band gap semiconductor

An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be –
a) 111V
b) 100V
c) 90.09V
d) 70.7V
Answer: b)

When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is –
BSNL Four Terminal T Network
a) 5W
b) 10 W
c) 15 W
d) 20 W
Answer: a)

In the ac bridge shown in the given figure, the value of Rx and Cx at balance will be
 AC Bridge BSNL Paper
Answer: BSNL AC Bridge Answer Figure

Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –
a) Z11 = Z22
b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22
c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21
d) Z12 = Z21
Answer: d)

BSNL GE-JTO Exam QuestionsPrevious



1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency parallel circuit is -
a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Resistive
d) None

2. Which of the following are piezo-electric substances-
a) Barium titanate
b) Lead titanate
c) Lead zirconate
d) All the above

3. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) The maximum number of input channels
b) The minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) The internal clock period
d) The minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

4. In a P-type semiconductor, the conductivity due to holes (=sp) is equal to (e=charge of hole, mp = hole mobility, P = hole concentration)-
a)
b)
c) P.e. mp
d)

5. When a small amount of Cu is added to a Ni conductor, then the –
a) Resistivity of Ni will decrease at all temperatures because Cu is better conductor than Ni
b) Residual resistivity of Ni at low temperatures will increase as Cu atoms acts as defect centers
c) Resistivity of Ni will increase at all temperatures as Cu destroys the periodicity of Ni and acts as defects
d) Resistivity of Ni remains unaltered as Cu atoms give the same numbers of free electrons as Ni atoms

6. A coil would behave as -
a) An inductor at high frequencies
b) A capacitor at very low frequencies
c) A capacitor at very high frequencies
d) A resonator at high frequencies

7. The law that induced emf and current always oppose the cause producing them was discovered by -
a) Maxwell
b) Faraday
c) Lenz
d) Fleming

8. A ‘trimmer’ capacitor is a variable capacitor used for -
a) ‘Tunning up’ a radio for best sensitivity
b) Tunning a radio to different stations
c) Changing the original capacitance by several hundred Pico farads
d) Eliminating whistling in a transistor radio

9. In panel wiring, solid wire is preferred to standard wire because it -
a) Can carry more current
b) Can be shaped better
c) Uses less chopper
d) Has better insulation

10. FET’s have similar properties to –
a) PNP transistors
b) NPN transistors
c) Thermionic valves
d) Unijunction transistors

11. The semiconductor strain gauge has gauge factor -
a) 2
b) 10
c) 100
d) 1000

12. AE 139 is a-
a) Tunnel diode
b) Germanium power transistor
c) Photoconductive cell
d) Silicon diode

13. When a zener diode is used in a power supply its function is to maintain a constant -
a) Output voltage
b) Input voltage
c) Output current irrespective of the load resistance
d) supply current

14. The value of g for a transistor in saturation is -
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) very near unity
d) 0.25

15. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a) channel
b) gate
c) P-N junction
d) substrate

16. The gating pulse is removed after firing an SCR than the current in the SCR will –
a) Remain the same
b) Immediately fall to zero
c) Rise up
d) Rise a little and then fall to zero

17. In the fabrication of an integrated circuit, the advantages of ion implantation over diffusion doping are that –
a) Point imperfections are not produced
b) Shallow doping is not possible
c) It is a low temperature process
d) Previous steps in fabrication are affected

18. The alternate mode of a dual trace oscilloscope can be used for displaying –
a) Any two waveforms
b) Two waveforms of relatively high frequency
c) Two waveforms of relatively low frequency
d) One low frequency and one high frequency waveform

19. Attenuator is a –
a) pure resistance network producing a constant attenuation
b) pure resistance network producing a variable attenuation at variable frequencies
c) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at all frequencies
d) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at low frequencies

20. The equivalent circuit of the following circuit is –
21. For the lattice type attenuator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance R is –

22. Thevenin’s equivalent circuit of the network shown in the given figure, between terminals T1 and T2 is –

23. One of the following combinations of open circuit voltage and Thevenins equivalent resistance which represents the Thevenins equivalent of the circuit shown in the given fig. is –
a) 1V, 10W
b) 1V, 1kW
c) 1mV, 1kW
d) 1mV, 10W

24. In the following circuit, the effective resistance faced by the voltage source is –
a) 1W
b) 2W
c) 3W
d) 3.3W

25. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given fig. The resistor will be non-inductive if –

26. One of the following which is a cut set of the graph shown in fig. is –
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
c) 1, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

27. For which value of R the following circuit will deliver maximum to the terminals a and b is –

28. In a coaxial cable, braided copper is used as a -
a) Conductor
b) Shield
c) Dielectric
d) Jacket

29. When the transmission loss for a 3 GHz microwave system over a certain distance is 130 dB and if the frequency is now doubled then the transmission loss will be –
a) 136 dB
b) 133 dB
c) 127 dB
d) 139 dB
30. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed -
a) In the +x direction
b) In the –x direction
c) In the +y direction
d) In the –y direction

31. With reference to the given figure, the signal picked up by the receiving antenna can be increased by increasing-
a) he only
b) hr only
c) both he and hr
d) neither he nor hr

32. Which of the following antennas are frequency independent ?
1. Folded dipole
2. Half wave dipole
3. Parabolic reflector
4. Helical antenna
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 1,2 and 3

33. The reading of digital multimeter are –
a) very difficult
b) confusing
c) convenient
d) none

34. One of the following which does not have the same units as the others –
35. Shaft encoder is used for the measurement of –
a) angular position
b) linear position
c) linear velocity
d) linear acceleration.

36. The materials used in switches, brushes and relays for electrical contact must possess –
a) high thermal conductivity and high melting point.
b) low thermal conductivity and low melting point.
c) high thermal conductivity and low melting point.
d) low thermal conductivity and high melting point.

37. Capacitive transducer is superior to inductive type for the measurement of displacement because of –
a) absence of non-linearity
b) high frequency response
c) small size
d) high accuracy

38. When a RLC series circuit has R=1ohm, L=1H and C = 1F then the damping ratio on the circuit will be-
a) more than unity
b) unity
c) 0.5
d) zero

39. The sensitivity of an electromagnetic digital flow meter can be increased by increasing –
a) the circumferential width of rotor teeth
b) the radial depth of rotor teeth
c) the thickness of rotor teeth
d) the number of teeth

40. A moving iron instrument –
a) is an unpolarised meter
b) has not a fixed coil
c) both a and b
d) none

41. A linear displacement transducer of the digital type generally uses –
a) straight binary code
b) BCD
c) Gray code
d) hexadecimal code

42. The output open circuit voltage divided by the input current for a two port reciprocal network is equal to-
a) B
b) Z12
c) 1/y12
d) h12

43. The ac bridge shown in the given figure if balanced is Z1 = 100 Ð300 Z2 = 150Ð00, Z3 = 250 Ð 400 and Z4 is equal to –
a) 375Ð700
b) 375Ð-700
c) 150Ð00
d) 150 Ð200

44. The given figure represents the variation of electric field E –
a) Due to a spherical volume charge Q = Q1 + Q2
b) Due to two concentric shells of charge Q1 and Q2 uniformly distributed over spheres of radii R1 and R2
c) Due to two point charges Q1 and Q2 located at any two points ‘r’
d) In a single spherical shell of charges Q uniformly distributed Q = Q1 + Q2

45. In a SCR anode current flows over a narrow regain near the gate during-
a) delay time tr
b) rise time tr and spread time to
c) td and t0
d) td and tr

46. For a 3-phase six-pulse diode rectifier, the average output voltage in terms of maximum value of line voltage Vm is

47. In an inverter with fundamental ouctput frequency of 50 Hz, if third harmonic is eliminated, then frequencies of other components in the output voltage wave in Hz would be-
a) 250, 350, 450, high frequencies
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350, 550
d) 50, 100, 200, 250.

48. Number of SCRs in a 3 phase full converter working during overlap is-
a) 1 from positive group 1 from negative group
b) 2 from positive group 1 from negative group
c) 1 from positive group 2 from negative group
d) 2 from positive group 2 from negative group

49. For a 3 phase bridge inverter in 1800 conduction mode. In the given fig the sequence of SCR conduction in the first two steps beginning with the initiation of thyristor is-
a) 6, 1, 2, and 2, 3, 1
b) 2,3,1 and 3,4,5
c) 3,4,5 and 5,6,1
d) 5,6,1 and 6,1,2

50. For the lattice type atten uator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance Rv is-

51. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a) A resonant circuit is used as load)
b)The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive.
d)None of the above.

52. The low impedance of a dynamic loud speaker is a result of -
a) a large field magnet
b) the few turns of the voice coil
c) a large paper cone with big loud speakers
d) None of the above

53 The value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 na) The value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180 C would be-
a) 8mA
b) 160 nA
c) 1 mA
d) 7.84 mA

54. A certain percentage of negative feedback does not yield a fixed reduction in gain because it depends on-
a) Transistor configuration
b) Ambient temperature
c) Initial value of gain
d) Leakage current of the transistor

55. Crossover distortion occurs in — amplifiers-
a) Push pull
b) Class A
c) Class B
d) Class AB

56. The power gain of an amplifier is 80 db) The half power frequency f1 and f2 are the frequency where gain has fallen to —dB-
a) 40
b) 77
c) 0
d) 80/Ö2

57. In the given fig the overall voltage gain in the amplifier is -
a) Zero
b) 1
c) 1000
d) 100000

58. A two stage amplifier is required to have an upper cut off frequency of 2MHz and a lower cut off frequency 30Hz. The upper and lower cut off frequencies of individual stage are approximately-
a) 4MHz, 60Hz
b) 3MHz, 20Hz
c) 3MHz, 60Hz
d) 4MHz, 20Hz

59. Number of possible states in a circuit with n- FLIPFLOPS is-
a) Nn
b) 3n
c) 10n
d) 2n

60. In a digital voltmeter the largest number that can be read is –
a) 0999
b) 1999
c) 2999
d) 9999

61. The complement of the Boolean expression is-

62. The binary division 110002 ¸ 1002 gives –
a) 110
b) 1100
c) 11
d) 101

63. Time required by TTL circuit to switch from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0 is about –
a) 10 ms
b) 10 ns
c) 100 ms
d) 50 ns

64. Identify the wrong statement ?
a) 111002 – 100012 = 001012
b) 15E16 = 35010
c) 8110 = 1010012
d) 37.48 = 111 111.100

65. Type of radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a) Monopulse radar
b) MTl radar
c) Tracking radar
d) pulse radar

66. Asynchronous sequential circuits are seldom designed to operate in the pulse mode because –
a) the amplitude of input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
b) the duralion of the input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
c) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit is cheaper than pulse mode asynchronous circuit
d) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit has a higher speed of operation than the pulse mode asynchronous circuit.

67. Identity the transferred electron device-
a) BARITT diode
b) IMPATT diode
c) Gunn diode
d) Step recovery diode

68. In a closed loop system the loop transfer function is given by
The angle of departure of the root locus at S = -1+ J is-
a) Zero
b) 900
c) -900
d) -1800

69. The transfer function of a plant is
For a step input it is required that the response settles to within 2% of its final value. The plant setting time is –
a) 20 sec
b) 40 sec
c) 35 sec
d) 45 sec
BSNL GE JTO Recruitment Question paper previous years exam last. 2007 2008
70. The transfer function and states in a linear feedback system shown in given fig. are respectively –

a) strictly stable and not stable
b) strictly stable and stable
c) not strictly stable and stable
d) not stable and not stable.

71. What is the steady state-error corresponding to a unit step input if the magnitude plot for a transfer function is shown in figure

72. Mark the correct effect in respect of addition of a pole to the system loop transfer function?
1. The root locus is pulled to the right.
2. The system response becomes slower.
3. The steady state error increases.
of these statements-
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct

73. In a feedback control system the polar plot of the open-loop transfer function intersects the real axis at – 2. The gain margin of the system is -
a) –5 dB
b) 0 dB
c) 6 dB
d) 40 dB

74. The unity feedback system for K is
the imaginary axis is-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 48

75. The constant M loci plot is symmetrical width respect to-
a) real axis and imaginary axis
b) M =1 straight line and the real axis
c) M =1 straight line and the imaginary axis
d) M = 1 straight line and the imaginary axis

76. Identify the wrong statement-
a) Attenuation of satellite signals gain and varies almost inversely with the angle of elevation.
b) At present4/6 GHz Geostationary satellites are being parked in Geosynchronous orbits at least 100 apart.
c) The distance between satellite and earth station varies slightly with angle of elevation.
d) The angle of elevation depends on latitude of the earth station and the difference in longitude between earth station and the satellite.

77 The Voltage Vo of the given circuit is-
a) 5V
b) 3.1 V
c) 2.5 V
d) Zero

78. An antenna has 40 antenna resistance and 60W radiation resistances. The efficiency of the antenna is -
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%

79. The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a) Carrier frequency
b) Pulse repetition frequency
c) Antenna rotation rate
d) Transmitted power

80. Interlacing used in television is for-
a) produce the illusion of motion.
b) ensures that all the lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones.
c) simplify the vertical sync pulse train
d) avoid flicker

81. The best system for accurate tracking if the target cross section is changing is-
a) lobe switching
b) sequential lobing
c) conical scanning
d) monopulse

82. In a single stage differential amplifier, the output effect voltage is basically dependent on the mismatch of-
a) VBE, IB and b
b) VBE and IB
c) IB and b
d) VBE and b

83. Antenna elevation angle at the ground station for satellite communication is always kept above 50 to-
a) Minimise the sky noise temperature
b) Reduce the effect of oxygen and water vapor absorption on the antenna noise temperature
c) Minimise the slant range
d) Increase the visibility of the satellite

84. In Hybrid wave-
a) Both electric and magnetic fields are purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
b) Only electric field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
c) Only magnetic field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
d) Neither electric nor magnetic fields are transverse to direction of propagation of the wave

85. Balometer technique is used to measure –
a) Frequency
b) Low power
c) Attenuation
d) Phase shift

86. In fast switching circuits we use –
a) Klystron tube
b) Tunnel diode
c) Magnetron tube
d) PIN diode

87. PIN diode is used as –
a) Low noise mixer
b) Microwave detector
c) Balance mixer
d) Phase shifter

88. A periodic fluctuation of current passing through n type GaAS specimen when applied voltage exceeds critical value-
a) Gauss’s law
b) Faraday’s law
c) GUNN effect
d) Doppler effect

89. LOS distance can be increased by –
a) Increasing height of transmitting antenna
b) Increasing height of receiving antenna
c) Increasing height of bath
d) LOS distance can not be increased

90. Which fading produces serious distortion of modulated signal-
a) Selective
b) Polorisation
c) Interference
d) Slow fading

91. 8085 mP is a processor of -
a) 8 bit
b) 10 bit
c) 32 bit
d) None

92. The Bit position of AC flog in flog register is-
a) D2
b) D4
c) D6
d) D7

93. In which arithmatic operation CY flog do not affect even if result is larger than 8 bit-
a) INR B
b) ADD A, B
c) SUB A, B
d) None

94. A stock means-
a) an 8 bit register in microprocessor
b) a 16 bit memory address in memory
c) a 16 bit register in microprocessor.
d) a set of memory location in memory reserved for storing information temporarily.

95. RIM instruction-
a) checks pending interupts
b) sets the interupt mask
c) resets the RST interupt
d) none of above

96. A signal generated by microprocessor to provide timing of various operation is transmited through-
a) address bus.
b) data bus
c) control bus
d) in buit signal no need to transmit

97. On execution of RAL-
a) Each bit is shifted right to the adjacent position bit Do becomes Dy
b) Each bit is shifted right to adjacent position bit Do becomes the carry bit and carry bit is shifted into DT
c) Each bit is shifted to adjacent left position. Bit DT becomes Do
d) Each bit is shifted to the adjacent left postion. Bit DT becomes the carry bit and the carry bit is shifted into Do

98. A frequency divider can be designed with help of-
a) Monostable
b) Bistable
c) Astable
d) Quasistable

99. The not allowed condition for NAND gate SR FF is-
a) S = 0 R = 0
b) S = 0 R = 1
c) S = 1 R = 0
d) S = 1 R = 1
BSNL Recruitment Question Paper for GE JTO free. BSNL Placement Examination Paper previous years 2006 2007 2008 2009 sample paper. solutions / answer keys coming soon!
100. In IC resistors are formed from p-type semiconductor are –
a) thin film
b) thick film
c) hybrid
d) monolithic

101. Give the tense of the following sentence-
He walked to the garden.
a) Present
b) Past
c) Future
d) None

102. You may go there if you want to. Here, the modal auxiliary ‘may’ indicates-
a) obligation
b) politeness
c) possibility
d) request

103. What type of a sentence is this?
His findings were imroved and built apon.
a) Simple
b) Comound
c) Complex
d) None of the above

104. The manager is usually strict but in Madhav’s case he decided to be-
a) direct
b) fair
c) excused
d) lenient

105. Find the word which is wrongly spelt-
a) possession
b) ocassion
c) profession
d) procession

106. “Dow Jones” is -
a) Name of the national museum in London
b) Bridge over River Thames
c) New York Stock Index
d) New Olympic champion in cycling

107. The term “Ashes” is associated with-
a) Hockey
b) Cricket
c) soccer
d) None of these

108. “Kathakali” dance is connected with-
a) Kerala
b) Rajasthan
c) Uttar Predesh
d) Tamil nadu

109. Among the following Miss India Universe 2001 is-
a) Ms Sara corner
b) Ms Maheshwari Thiagarajan
c) Ms Celina Jetley
d) None of the these

110. Maharashtra Bhusan Award for the year 2000 – 2001 by the state government goes to -
a) Sanjay Manjrekar
b) Vinod Kambli
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Praveen Sharma

111. Who was Sworn in as the chief Justice of India-
a) Mr. S. Krishnaswamy
b) Mr.A.K. Mehra
c) Mr. J.K. Naidu
d) Mr. S.P. Bharucha

112. Which one of the following tennis competitions is not included in GRAND SLAM?
a) Wimbeldon
b) U.S open
c) French open
d) Australian open

113. The first Korean to win the Japan open badminton tournament is -
a) Lee Hyun – II
b) Marleen Renders
c) Shang Pee
d) Emma Yan

114. India launched first satellite by the name-
a) Bhaskara
b) Aryabhatt
c) INSAT
d) APPLE

115. Which state in India is called the “garden of spices”?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Tamil Nadu

116. The new CEO and the president of the Infosys Technology is –
a) N. R. Narayan Murth
b) Nandan Nilekani
c) SD Shibulal
d) M. Subbarao

117. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabh-
a) 6 members
b) 9 members
c) 12 members
d) 15 members

118. King of Nepal is-
a) Prince Gyanendra
b) Prince Dipendra
c) Prince Birendra
d) Prince Devendra

119. The famous paper which gandhigi edited to propagate his ideas-
a) Khadi
b) Swadeshi
c) Harijan
d) Satyagraha

120. The length of the pitch in the cricket is-
a) 22 meters
b) 25 yards
c) 50 feet
d) 22 yards

Tuesday, October 12, 2010

NALCO GET/MT EXAM APTITUDE QUESTION PAPER



1. Canary islands are dependencies of ?
(a) Spain
(b) Portugal
(c) Germany
(d) U.K.
Ans : a

2. The Strait which separates Asia from North America is
(a) The Bering Strait
(b) The Palk Strait
(c) The Strait of Gibraltar
(d) The Strait of Malacca
Ans : a

3. Long treeless grassy palms are characteristics of
(a) Campos
(B) Llanos
(c) Pampas
(d) Prairies
Ans : d

4. Which of the following is not a desert?
(a) Gobi
(b) Kalahari
(c) Sahara
(d) Cotopaxi
Ans : d

5. The highest waterfall of the world is ?
(a) Niagara Falls
(b) Boyomar Falls
(c) Salto Angel Falls
(d) Khone Falls
Ans : c

6. Amongst the following, which is the largest island?
(a) England
(b) Japan
(c) Borneo
(d) New Guinea
Ans : d

7. Which is the world’s largest desert?
(a) Sahara
(b) Gobi
(c)Thar
(d)Takala Makan
Ans : a

8. Which of the following is the largest river in the
world?
(a) Nile
(b) Congo
(c) Ganges
(d) Amazon
Ans : d

9. Which of the following is the highest plateau in the word?
(a) Colorado Plateau
(b) Pamir Plateau
(c) Patagonia Plateau
(d) Potwar Plateau
Ans : b

10. Niagara Falls are in ?
(a) Australia
(b) U.K.
(c) South Africa
(d) USA
Ans : d

11. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a)Algeria -Niger
(b) Brazil -Amazon
(c) Iraq -Tigris
(d) Myanmar –Irrawady
Ans : a

12. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is ?
(a) 2Km
(b) 3Km
(c) 4Km
(d) 5Km

13. Which one of the following countries has the longest international boundary with India?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Bhutan
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Ans : c

14. Adam’s bridge connects
(a) Amman and Damascus
(b) Dhanushkodi (Ramesvararn) and Talaimannar
(c) Israel and Jerusalem
(d) Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
Ans : b

15 Hawaiian Islands are located in
(a) South Pacific Ocean
(b) North Pacific Ocean
(c) South Atlantic Ocean
(d) North Atlantic Ocean
Ans : b

16 The Ocean between America and Europe is called
(a) Pacific
(b) Arctic
(c) Atlantic
(d) Southern
Ans : c

17. Ljublajana is a part of
(a)Yugoslavia
(b) Portugal
(c)Romania
(d) Russia
Ans : a

18. Fiji islands are a part of
(a)Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(c)Polynes
(d) Australasia
Ans : a

19. The Strait connecting Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal is
(a) Bering strait
(b) Dover Strait
(c) Palk Strait
(d) Vermosa Strait
Ans : a c

20. Myanmar is a new name of
(a) Burma
(b) Philippines
(c) Thailand
(d) Vietnam
Ans : a

21. Of the following, the country which is not in Oceania is
(a)Fiji
(b) Barbados
(c)New Zealand
(d) Papua New Guinea
Ans : c

22. Which of the following is the deepest lake?
(a)Lake Victoria
(b)Caspian Sea
(c)Lake Superior
(d) Lake Baikal
Ans : d

23. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Baghdad -Tigris
(b) Cairo -Rhine
(c)London -Thames
(d)New York –Hudson
Ans : b

24. The Hawaii islands are the top of submerged
(a) block mountains
(b) folded mountains
(c) volcanic mountains
(d) dome mountains
Ans : c

25. Which is the largest Gulf in the world?
(a) The Gulf of Cambay
(b) The Persian Gulf
(c) The Gulf of Mexico
(d )None of these
Ans : c

26. The Great Barrier Reef is
(a) Conglomeration of corals in Australian waters
(b) Mountain range in Utah, U.S.A.
(c) Salt hills of Afghanistan
(d) Sub -Oceanic mountain in South China Sea
Ans : a

27. The hottest place in the world is
(a)Teheran,Iran
(b) Jaisalmer, India
(c)Dallol, Ethiopia
(d) Azizia,Libya
Ans : c

28. The country that has the greatest length of the day during summer is
(a) Australia
(b) Mexico
(c) Nigeria
(d) Norway
Ans : c

29. The climate of a place depends upon
(a) its distance from the equator
(b) its height above sea level
(c) Both the above
(d) Neither of the above
Ans : c

30. The maximum temperature in Thar desert during the month of May is between (in Degree centigrade)
(a) 35-37
(b) 37-39
(c) 40-43
(d) 43- 45
Ans : c

31. The Greeks classified the world climates into
1. Torrid zone or tropical climate
2. Temperate zone or moderate climate
3. Frigid zone or cold climate
Which of the following factors formed the basis of this classification ?
(a) Temperature
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Precipitation
(d) Wind direction
Ans : a

32. A place having an average temperature of 27 C and an annual rainfall of over 200 cm,
it could be ?
(a)Tehran
(b) Singapore
(c)Nagpur
(d) Moscow
Ans : b

33. Assertion (A) :Vegetation is the Index of climate
Reason (R) :Rainfall and temperature predominantly affect the type of vegetation.In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans : a

34. Extensive subsistence agriculture is
(a) Farming on the slopes of Western Ghats
(b) Farming in the thickly populated areas
(c) Farming in the thinly populated areas
(d) Farming in the forests of equatorial region
Ans : c

35.If there is high rainfall, abundant sunshine, gently sloping land and well drained soil, for which crop are the conditions most suitable?
(a) Jute
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Tea
Ans : d

36. Which of the following soils is very hard to cultivate?
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Sandy
Ans : a

37. Sucrose content in sugarcane decreases
(a) if frost occurs during the process of ripening
(b) if high rainfall occurs during the period of growth of the plant
(a) if there is high temperature during the time of ripening
(d) if there is fluctuation in temperature during the period of growth of the plant
Ans : b

38. The important feature of shifting cultivation is
(a) Cultivation by transplantation
(b) Cultivation of Leguminous crops
(a) Change of Cultivation site
(d) Rotating of crops
Ans : c

39. Fertility of soil can be improved by
(a) Adding living earthworms
(b) Adding dead earthworms
(c) Removing dead earthworms
(d) Removing living earthworms and adding dead earthworms
Ans : a

40. The crop associated with retting process is
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Jute
(d) Cotton
Ans : c

41. In which of the following regions plantation agriculture is largely practised?
(a)Subtropical
(b) Semi-arid
(c)Tropical
(d) Temperate
Ans : c

42. World’s largest producer of jute is
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Burma
(c) India
(d) Pakistan
Ans : c

43. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term transhumance?
(a) Economy that solely depends upon animals
(b) Farming in which only one crop is cultivated by clearing hill slopes
(c) Practice of growing crops on higher hill slopes in summer and foothills in winter
(d) Seasonal migration of people with their animals up and down the mountains
Ans : d

44. The barriers that can prevent small farmers in many nations from participating in the green revolution include
(a) money for investment
(b) education
(c) small size of farms
(d) all the above
Ans : d

45. Which of the following refers to ‘Green Manure’?
(a) Adding NPK fertilizers to the soil
(b) Growing leguminous crops and ploughing it
(c) Adding farmyard manure
(d) Applying slurry manure obtained from Gobar gas plants
Ans : b

46. Which of the following is not a cash crop
(a) Cotton
(b) Groundnut
(c) Jowar
(d) Jute
Ans : c

47. Which of the following types of soils have a marked capacity to retain water?
(a) Desert soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Red soil
(d) Regur soil
Ans : d

48. The ideal climatic conditions for the cultivation of rice are
(a) Rainfall above 100cm, temperature above 25’ C
(b) Cool and moist climate for the entire crop period
(c) Rainfall below 100cm, temperature below 25’ C
(d) Warn and dry climate during the entire crop period
Ans : a

49. Which crop is generally sown to restore and maintain soil fertility?
(a) Barley
(b) Jowar
(c) Maize
(d) Pulses
Ans : d

50. Which of the following countries consumes more fish than any other country in the world?
(a) Japan
(b) Great Britain
(c) France
(d) China
Ans : a

SAIL MANAGEMENT TRAINEE EXAM PAPER




1. How many cards of E type are inserted in brown envelopes?
* Nil
* One
* Answer is: Two
* Three
* Data inadequate

2. Which of the following combinations of the type of cards and the number of cards is definitely correct in respect of yellow-coloured envelopes?
* A-2, B-I, C-2
* B-I, C-2. D-2
* A-2, E-l, D-2
* Answer is: A-3, B-1 C-1
* None of these

3. Which of the following combinations of types of cards and the number of cards and colour of envelope is definitely correct?
* Answer is: C-2, D-1, E-2, Brown
* C-1,D-2,E-2,Brown
* B-2, D-2, A-I, Red
* A-2,B-2,C-1,Yellow
* None of these

4. Which of the following combinations of colour of the envelope and the number of cards is definitely correct in respect of E type cards?
* Red-2, Brown-l
* Red-1,Yellow-2
* Red-2, Yellow- 1
* Yellow-1,Brown-2
* Answer is: None of these

5. “Forty per cent of our products are sold in rural area, fifty-three per cent are sold in semi-urban area, sixty per cent of employees are from rural area.” Which of the following statements is definitely true?
* The company’s products are purchased only by its employees and their family.
* The company does not desire to recruit urban employees.
* The company’s products are required in big urban cities and metro areas.
* The company holds approximately 90% of the market share in its product line.
* Answer is: None of these

6. “We do not advertise, our product speaks for itself.”— Statement of manufacturer of two-wheeler ‘BJA’.
Which of the following, if true, would support and strengthen this statement?
(i) The prices of BJA two-wheelers are on higher side.
(ii) ‘BJA’ has won award for Quality Control Systems.
(iii) The BJA two-wheeler is sleek-looking and has good colours.
(iv) The salaries of BJA employees are better than government services.
* Only (i) and (ii)
* Answer is: Only (ii) and (iii)
* Only (iii) and (iv)
* Only (i), (ii) and (iiii)
* None of these

Directions (Q. 7-13): Read the following in formation carefully and answer the following questions:
Following are the criteria for organizing interview of such candidates as have been selected from the promotion to officer’s grade from assistant grade in the PRS Industrial Group Limited:
The candidate to be called for interview must:
(i) be a graduate with minimum 50% marks.
(ii) have minimum five years’ experience in the clerical cadre job.
(iii) have obtained at least ‘C’ ratings in performance (speed of work) and the quality of work each during the last three years. For this five ratings A, 8, C, D and E-have been created on the basis of ”Performance Appraisal Report” with the lowest ratings of A and the highest ratings of E.
(iv) have obtained at least ‘D’ ratings in the approach of work (dependability) and in the flexibility of work each for his/her works in the last three years. For this, seven ratings A, B,C, D, E, F and G have been formulated on the basis of “Performance Appraisal Report” with lowest ratings of A and the highest ratings of G.
However, in case of a candidate who fulfills all other criteria EXCEPT

(a)(i) above, but has passed Graduation Exam and has got ‘E’ ratings in the approach of work in the last three years, may be referred to the Assistant Manager (Personnel).
(b) (ii) above, but has experience of three years in clerical cadre job and has got at least ‘D’ ratings in the quality of work for his/her works in the last three years, may be referred to the Deputy Manager (Personnel).

Based on these criteria and information provided against each candidate, decide the course of action. You are not to assume anything. If the data provided are not adequate to decide the given course of action, your answer will be “Data inadequate”. All the candidates fulfill the criterion of age. V Give answer
(1) if data are inadequate (2) if not to be selected (3) if selected for the interview (4) if case is referred to the Assistant Manager (5) if case is referred to the Deputy Manager

7. Mohammed Sheikh is a brilliant post-graduate in Science and has secured 63% and5 marks in graduation and post graduation respectively. He has ‘E’ grade for dependability and flexibility inPerformance Appraisal Report for last four years. He has got ‘C’ rating for quality of work and speed of work. He joined the Bank four years ago.
* data are inadequate
* Answer is: not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

8. Kiran Bala is a young lady and laborious assistant who joined this organisation six years ago after passing B. Commerce Exam. The ratings being given to her for the last 4 years are ‘D’ and ‘C’ respectively for quality of work and speed of work. She is one of the leaders of the clerks. She has got ‘D’ ratings for flexibility of work for the last 5 years.
* Answer is: data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

9. Marks details missing Mandar Rhave has passed his Graduation in Science and Diploma in Business Management with 58% and 62% respectively. lie is good player of chess. His rating on PAR are ‘D’ for ‘dependability’ and ‘flexibility’ whereas he has ‘C’ rating for ‘quality of work’ and ‘D’ rating for ‘speed of work’ for the last 4 years.
* Answer is: data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

10. Joining Date missing Anubhav Rege is with the company for last seven years. For the last 4 years he has ‘D’ rating for ‘quality of work’, ‘C’ rating for ‘speed of work’, ‘F’ rating for ‘dependability’ and ‘D’ rating for ‘flexibility’. His marks in graduation and post-graduation are 46% and 50% respectively. He is very fond of cultural activities
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* Answer is: case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

12. Shivasundaram has got ‘D’ rating since he joined the bank three years ago on quality of work, speed of work, dependability and flexibility. He has passed his graduation and post graduation with 52% and 47% marks respectively. Shivasundaram is a popular employee because of his social activities.
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* Answer is: case is referred to the Deputy Manager

12. Seema Mukhi is working in the clerical cadre for last five-and-a-half years. She has got ‘D’ and ‘E’ ratings respectively on ‘flexibility’ and ‘dependability’ and ‘C’ rating for ‘quality of work’ and ‘speed of work’ for last four years. She has obtained 55% and 48% at SSC and graduation respectively.
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* Answer is: case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

13. Anthony Cruz is a sportsman and is Vice-Captain of cricket team of PRS Industries Ltd. He is working with the company for last seven years in theclerical cadre. The rating being given to him for the last 3 years is ‘C’ and ‘D’ grade for quality of work and speed of work respectively. Similarly, he has ‘D’ grade for dependability and flexibility in PAR. He is an Arts graduate with 54% of marks
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* Answer is: selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

Directions (Q. 14-18): In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3) (4) and (5) is the correct answer.

14. Statement: “A rare opportunity to be a professional while you are at home..— An advertisement for computer-literate housewives by a computer company
Assumptions: I. Some housewives simultaneously desire to become professional.
IL Computer industry is growing at a fast pace.
III. It is possible to be a professional as well as a housewife.
* Only I and II
* Only II and III
* Answer is: Only I and III
* Only II
* None of these

15. Statement: India’s economic growth has come at a terrible price of increased industrial and vehicular pollution.
Assumptions: I. Pollution is a part of industrial society.
II. Indian economic growth is based on only industrial growth.
Ill. A country desires economic growth with manageable side-effects.
* only I
* Only II
* Answer is: Only I and III
* Only III
* None of these

16. Statement: Efforts to develop technologies more appropriate to the needs of the poorest sections of society need to be further intensified. Assumptions: I: Nothing is impossible if proper efforts are made. II. Technology needs are different for different sections of society. III It is possible to develop appropriate technologies for various economic sections of the society.
* Only I
* Only III
* Only II
* Answer is: Both II and III
* None of these

17. Statement: “We have the distinction of being the only company in India as well as the second in the world to have won an ISO 9002 quality certification in our line of business”- Statement of company X’s Chairman. Assumptions: I. There were not many companies in the line of business of Company ‘X’. II Getting ISO 9002 in the line of business of Company “X’ is not easy. III. The company ‘X’ desires to expand its business.
* Only I
* Only II
* Only III
* Answer is: Only II and III
* None of these

18. Its Difficult to get and Chairman is highlighting this fact only to expand business Statement: Co-operative social relationships contribute to develop individual potentialities. Assumptions: I Every society desires to prosper. II. Individuals desire to develop their potential. III It is possible to create and maintain co-operative environment in a society.
* Answer is: Only II and III
* Only II and I
* Only I and III
* Only II
* None of these

19. In a school class there are 65 children boys outnumber the girls by 21. How many girls are in the class .
* 21
* Answer is: 22
* 26
* 28
* None of these

20. John had appointment in Delhi .He Reached there on Sunday. He found that he was three days earlier than the meeting day. If he had reached on the following Friday how many days late would he has been.

* one day
* Answer is: two days
* three days
* four days
* None of these