1. Canary islands are dependencies of ?
(a) Spain
(b) Portugal
(c) Germany
(d) U.K.
Ans : a
2. The Strait which separates Asia from North America is
(a) The Bering Strait
(b) The Palk Strait
(c) The Strait of Gibraltar
(d) The Strait of Malacca
Ans : a
3. Long treeless grassy palms are characteristics of
(a) Campos
(B) Llanos
(c) Pampas
(d) Prairies
Ans : d
4. Which of the following is not a desert?
(a) Gobi
(b) Kalahari
(c) Sahara
(d) Cotopaxi
Ans : d
5. The highest waterfall of the world is ?
(a) Niagara Falls
(b) Boyomar Falls
(c) Salto Angel Falls
(d) Khone Falls
Ans : c
6. Amongst the following, which is the largest island?
(a) England
(b) Japan
(c) Borneo
(d) New Guinea
Ans : d
7. Which is the world’s largest desert?
(a) Sahara
(b) Gobi
(c)Thar
(d)Takala Makan
Ans : a
8. Which of the following is the largest river in the
world?
(a) Nile
(b) Congo
(c) Ganges
(d) Amazon
Ans : d
9. Which of the following is the highest plateau in the word?
(a) Colorado Plateau
(b) Pamir Plateau
(c) Patagonia Plateau
(d) Potwar Plateau
Ans : b
10. Niagara Falls are in ?
(a) Australia
(b) U.K.
(c) South Africa
(d) USA
Ans : d
11. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a)Algeria -Niger
(b) Brazil -Amazon
(c) Iraq -Tigris
(d) Myanmar –Irrawady
Ans : a
12. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is ?
(a) 2Km
(b) 3Km
(c) 4Km
(d) 5Km
13. Which one of the following countries has the longest international boundary with India?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Bhutan
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Ans : c
14. Adam’s bridge connects
(a) Amman and Damascus
(b) Dhanushkodi (Ramesvararn) and Talaimannar
(c) Israel and Jerusalem
(d) Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
Ans : b
15 Hawaiian Islands are located in
(a) South Pacific Ocean
(b) North Pacific Ocean
(c) South Atlantic Ocean
(d) North Atlantic Ocean
Ans : b
16 The Ocean between America and Europe is called
(a) Pacific
(b) Arctic
(c) Atlantic
(d) Southern
Ans : c
17. Ljublajana is a part of
(a)Yugoslavia
(b) Portugal
(c)Romania
(d) Russia
Ans : a
18. Fiji islands are a part of
(a)Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(c)Polynes
(d) Australasia
Ans : a
19. The Strait connecting Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal is
(a) Bering strait
(b) Dover Strait
(c) Palk Strait
(d) Vermosa Strait
Ans : a c
20. Myanmar is a new name of
(a) Burma
(b) Philippines
(c) Thailand
(d) Vietnam
Ans : a
21. Of the following, the country which is not in Oceania is
(a)Fiji
(b) Barbados
(c)New Zealand
(d) Papua New Guinea
Ans : c
22. Which of the following is the deepest lake?
(a)Lake Victoria
(b)Caspian Sea
(c)Lake Superior
(d) Lake Baikal
Ans : d
23. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Baghdad -Tigris
(b) Cairo -Rhine
(c)London -Thames
(d)New York –Hudson
Ans : b
24. The Hawaii islands are the top of submerged
(a) block mountains
(b) folded mountains
(c) volcanic mountains
(d) dome mountains
Ans : c
25. Which is the largest Gulf in the world?
(a) The Gulf of Cambay
(b) The Persian Gulf
(c) The Gulf of Mexico
(d )None of these
Ans : c
26. The Great Barrier Reef is
(a) Conglomeration of corals in Australian waters
(b) Mountain range in Utah, U.S.A.
(c) Salt hills of Afghanistan
(d) Sub -Oceanic mountain in South China Sea
Ans : a
27. The hottest place in the world is
(a)Teheran,Iran
(b) Jaisalmer, India
(c)Dallol, Ethiopia
(d) Azizia,Libya
Ans : c
28. The country that has the greatest length of the day during summer is
(a) Australia
(b) Mexico
(c) Nigeria
(d) Norway
Ans : c
29. The climate of a place depends upon
(a) its distance from the equator
(b) its height above sea level
(c) Both the above
(d) Neither of the above
Ans : c
30. The maximum temperature in Thar desert during the month of May is between (in Degree centigrade)
(a) 35-37
(b) 37-39
(c) 40-43
(d) 43- 45
Ans : c
31. The Greeks classified the world climates into
1. Torrid zone or tropical climate
2. Temperate zone or moderate climate
3. Frigid zone or cold climate
Which of the following factors formed the basis of this classification ?
(a) Temperature
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Precipitation
(d) Wind direction
Ans : a
32. A place having an average temperature of 27 C and an annual rainfall of over 200 cm,
it could be ?
(a)Tehran
(b) Singapore
(c)Nagpur
(d) Moscow
Ans : b
33. Assertion (A) :Vegetation is the Index of climate
Reason (R) :Rainfall and temperature predominantly affect the type of vegetation.In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans : a
34. Extensive subsistence agriculture is
(a) Farming on the slopes of Western Ghats
(b) Farming in the thickly populated areas
(c) Farming in the thinly populated areas
(d) Farming in the forests of equatorial region
Ans : c
35.If there is high rainfall, abundant sunshine, gently sloping land and well drained soil, for which crop are the conditions most suitable?
(a) Jute
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Tea
Ans : d
36. Which of the following soils is very hard to cultivate?
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Sandy
Ans : a
37. Sucrose content in sugarcane decreases
(a) if frost occurs during the process of ripening
(b) if high rainfall occurs during the period of growth of the plant
(a) if there is high temperature during the time of ripening
(d) if there is fluctuation in temperature during the period of growth of the plant
Ans : b
38. The important feature of shifting cultivation is
(a) Cultivation by transplantation
(b) Cultivation of Leguminous crops
(a) Change of Cultivation site
(d) Rotating of crops
Ans : c
39. Fertility of soil can be improved by
(a) Adding living earthworms
(b) Adding dead earthworms
(c) Removing dead earthworms
(d) Removing living earthworms and adding dead earthworms
Ans : a
40. The crop associated with retting process is
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Jute
(d) Cotton
Ans : c
41. In which of the following regions plantation agriculture is largely practised?
(a)Subtropical
(b) Semi-arid
(c)Tropical
(d) Temperate
Ans : c
42. World’s largest producer of jute is
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Burma
(c) India
(d) Pakistan
Ans : c
43. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term transhumance?
(a) Economy that solely depends upon animals
(b) Farming in which only one crop is cultivated by clearing hill slopes
(c) Practice of growing crops on higher hill slopes in summer and foothills in winter
(d) Seasonal migration of people with their animals up and down the mountains
Ans : d
44. The barriers that can prevent small farmers in many nations from participating in the green revolution include
(a) money for investment
(b) education
(c) small size of farms
(d) all the above
Ans : d
45. Which of the following refers to ‘Green Manure’?
(a) Adding NPK fertilizers to the soil
(b) Growing leguminous crops and ploughing it
(c) Adding farmyard manure
(d) Applying slurry manure obtained from Gobar gas plants
Ans : b
46. Which of the following is not a cash crop
(a) Cotton
(b) Groundnut
(c) Jowar
(d) Jute
Ans : c
47. Which of the following types of soils have a marked capacity to retain water?
(a) Desert soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Red soil
(d) Regur soil
Ans : d
48. The ideal climatic conditions for the cultivation of rice are
(a) Rainfall above 100cm, temperature above 25’ C
(b) Cool and moist climate for the entire crop period
(c) Rainfall below 100cm, temperature below 25’ C
(d) Warn and dry climate during the entire crop period
Ans : a
49. Which crop is generally sown to restore and maintain soil fertility?
(a) Barley
(b) Jowar
(c) Maize
(d) Pulses
Ans : d
50. Which of the following countries consumes more fish than any other country in the world?
(a) Japan
(b) Great Britain
(c) France
(d) China
Ans : a
WAY TO YOUR'S CAREER
Tuesday, September 28, 2010
SAIL EXAM PATTERN
TOTAL MARKS : 200
TIME:3:00 hrs
NEGATIVE-MARK : 0.25
ENGG.STREAM: 100 MARKS
APTITUDE: 25 MARKS
ANALYTICAL: 25 MARKS
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE: 25 MARKS
VERBAL :25 MARKS
SAIL paper on 10th January at Ahmedabad
1.) Terminal colours of Rainbow?
a: Violet&Red
2.)First lady in INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS?
a: Indira gandhi
b: sarogini naidu etc
3.)First Nuclear plant in INDIA is situated in
a :trombay
b: nellore etc
4.)2 capacitances are in parallel gives 6 micro farad & in series gives 25 what will be the value of indivisual capacitance.
5.)Who invented THERMOMETER?
6.)Electrostatic potential is a Scalar Quantity or Vector Quantity?
7.) Among values 1 to100 Probability of occurance of numbers ending with 9 is?
a:1/10
b:9/10
c:1
d:0
8.)Si,Ge lie in ……..block of periodic table
a: III
b: V
c: IVA(ANS)
D: IV B
9.)some eqn was given x=20 sin 157t then calculate frequency
10.)Which Filter is used for passing ONLY HIGH frequency
a: LADDER
B. crystal
11.)In Zener breakdown is proportional to
12.)If water is heated from 0degree to 10 degree effect on volume
a: increase steadily
b: remain same
c: decrease steadily
13.)if we dig EARTH FROM North to South pole and a stone is dropped in it then efffect on its velocity
a :increase continously
b: First increase and become Zero in center
c. It Will Start Oscillate
14.)Dandi march was related t0 ……..
a: Salt
b: sugar etc
15.)Radiation pattern of loop antenna
a: cardioid
b. semicircular
c. circle
d. none
16.)DENMARK lie in which continent
17.)Cooks island is situated in which continent?
18.)Range of AM Signal?
19.)In an Electrolyte if rod is immersed then mass on rod will be proportional to
a: current passed in it
20.)largest unit in energy
21.)spelling check of SATELLITE
22.)plural of “DIBIYA”IN HINDI
23.)Sarvnam chatiye
24.)RADDISH is a
a: modified root
b: bulb
c; stem
25.)X Rays are …….Rays
Ans emw
26.)ass:bray::sheep BLEAT
27IN HINDI PEHLE JANMA(AGRAJ,ARGAJA/AAGRAJETC)
28.)LORD SHANKAR IS RELATED TO originaetor of ………..river
29;)………is also called JALDHAR
30) fsk is used in
a: telegraphy
b: telephony
c :radio transmission etc
SAIL PLACEMENT PAPER 2009
what is the main different between distribution transformer and power transformer ?
where manning formula used
what is the differance between item category amd material type ?
When a square wave is applied to primary of a transformer then what will be output
wave form of secondary ?
what are the warehouse reserch? and pocess of warehouse research?
What is the rating of HT SUBSTATION and LT SUBSTATION?
which of the following rivers does not form any delta T ITS MOUTH? Cauvery,
Mahanadi, Godawari, Tapti
How much is the minimum marks for CIVIL judge interview in MPPSC. where i can
get rules in this regard documented?
what are the uses of graphite electrode in various field.
what is the use of "fg" command ?
what are %TYPE and %ROWTYPE? what is the difference?
1.where does a body have least weight?
a) at the equator
b) at the poles
c) at earth's center
d) none of these
2. what is the millman's theorem?
3. what happens if a dc motor is fed an ac signal?
4. calculate electron mobility.
5. power MOSFET is voltage controlled or current controlled?
6. if u want a 640 k RAM, what specification should u specify in the drive?
7. max efficiency of a class a amplifier?
8.what r resistors in IC made of?
9. 6 girls and 6 bos sitting randomly in a line. what probability of girls being
together?
10.what is the prob. of two friends having birthdays in same month?
11. (D^2 + 4)y= kx what if PI?
12. lim x-infinity sinx/x
13. express x/(x+1) as taylor's series
14.principle of jet engine
15. why hydraulic systems used ina aircrafts instead of electrical?
16. steel + ? = corrosion-resistant material?
17. what happens to speed of em wave as frequency increases?
18. which char. of em wave does not change when it travels from one mdium to
another?
19. circuit given. find attenuation in db.
20. circuit given. how much feedback?
21. (s-1)/(s+1) is high pass filter/ low pass filter?
22. fastest logic family among rtl, dtl, ttl?
23. in common emitter config. change in iC on changing vBE?
24. what happens if gate voltage of an ON scr is decreased?
25. fermi level change with temperature in n type semiconductor?
26. mosfet has threshold voltage 1v when n+ polysilicon is used in gate. what is
threshold voltage when polysilicon used is of n+ type?
27. simple ckts using zener diode.
28. what is the p+ substrate in an isolated pn junction ic connected to?
29. opamp circuit given. open loop gain=100. closed loop gain=?
30. which type of parameters( h/y/z) suitable in particular application?
31. given parallel LC ckt. find angle between currents in branches at resonance.
32. what is Q of series RLC ckt? (voltage gain/ admttance etc.)
33. resonant freq of parallel RLC ckt. ?
34. thin metal foil inserted between capacitor plates. foil connected to one plate.
change in capacitance?
35. ques on reflection of em wave at air= dielectric interface. dlc const=9
36. what is brewster's angle?
37. why microwave freq not used for ionospheric propagation?
38. uhf range?
39. freq range used in satellite comunication?
40. which ionospheric bands used for commercial purposes?
41. question on transmission line impedance matching?
42. flip- flop d, t 43. convert 32 k pulses to 1 hz pulses using decade counters etc
Thursday, September 16, 2010
ECIL Exam Paper 2007
1. When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms-
a.) Resistance
b.) Reactance
c.) Impedance
d.) None
2.Oscillator crystal are made of –
a.) Silicon
b.) Germanium
c.) Quartz
d.) None
3.For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-
a. )Air
b. )Ferrite
c.) Powdered ion
d.) Steel
4.If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area ‘A’ and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –
a.)
b.) C
c.) 2C
d.) 4C
5.A superconductor is a –
a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
6.When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
a) 8.05 pF
b) 10.05pF
c.) 16.01pF
d.) 20.01pF
7.Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –
a.) Inductance
b.) Capacitance
c.) Resistance
d.) None
8.Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –
a.) Resistance in the line
b.) Capacitor in series with contacts
c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts
d.) None
9.RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
a.) Class ‘A’
b.) Class ‘b’
c.) Class ‘C’
d.) None
10.The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
a.) High positive
b.) High negative
c.) Low positive
d.) Zero
11.The input gate current of a FET is –
a.) a few microamperes
b.) negligibly small
c.) a few milliamperes
d.) a few amperes
12.In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –
a.) 25 mA
b.) 40 mA
c.) 25/16 mA
d.) 10 mA
13.A step recovery diode –
a.) has on extremely short recovery time
b.) conducts equally well in both directions
c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator
d.) is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals
14.In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with VCC 10V, the value of VCE (Q) should be approximately-
a.) 0.1V
b.) 5V
c.) 10V
d) V
15.In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –
a.) source
b.) drain
c.) gate
d.) none
16.The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –
a.) Triac
b.) UJT
c.) Diac
d.) SCR
17.A typical optical fibre has –
a.) High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding
b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
c.) Both a and b
d.) None
18.In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –
a.) 9
b.) 11
c.) 10
d.) 21
19.When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be –
a.) 3 – j1
b.) 3 + j9
c.) 7.5 + j 2.5
d.) 7.5 – j 2.5
20.In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load –
a.) 5
b.) 6.5
c.) 8
d.) 9
21.For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z0 is the characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-
a.) Z0 cot h Öl
b.) Z0 cot Öl
c.) Z0 tan h.Ö l
d.) Z0 tan Öl
22.The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –
a.) l
b.) l/4
c.) l/2
d.) l/8
23.A relatively permanent information is stored in
a. ) ROM
b.) RAM
c.) PROM
d.) Volatile memory
24.The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to –
b.) RC
c.) 2RC
d.) 4RC
25.If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch ‘s’ and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be –
a.) cos50tA
b.) 2A
c.) 2cos100tA
d.) 2sin50tA
26.When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be respectively –
a) 9W, 6W and 6W
b.) 6W, 6W and 9W
c.) 9W, 6W and 9W
d.) 6W, 9W and 6W
27.When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –
d.) indeterminate
28.Joule/coulomb is the unit of -
a.) Electric field potential
b.) Potential
c .) Charge
d.) None of the above
29.The electric field line and equipotential lines-
a.) Are parallel to each other
b.)Are one and same
c.) Cut each other orthogonally
d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle
30. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z0 is the characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line
31.When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-
a.) In the +x direction
b.) In the –x direction
c. ) In the +y direction
d.) In the –y direction
32.The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-
a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation
b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation
c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
d. ) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
33.The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-
a.) TM01
b.)TE10
c.) TM112
d.)TE11
34.When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –
35.When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be
a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value
b.)Remain the same
c. )Increase
d.)Decrease to zero
36.When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.)An inductance at the load
c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.)none of the above
37.As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –
a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.
38.When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter
39.Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?
a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.
b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5.
c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero
d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
40.When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –
a.) 11.1
b.) 44.2
c.) 52.3
d.) 66.3
41.The Q of a radio coil –
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
42.When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75
43.The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)
44.Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
a.) -2000C to 5000C
b.) 00C to 5000C
c.) 5000C to 12000C
d.) 12000C to 25000C
45.In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –
a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
b.) Silicon (Si)
c.) Copper (Cu)
d.) Germanium (Ge)
46.When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –
a.) 1
b.) 2
c.) 3
d.) 4
47.The circuit symbol for a GTO is
48.In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters
a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction
c.) step up device
d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device
49.In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.
S is closed at t = 0 the
maximum value of current and the
time at which it reaches this value are respectively.
a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS
b.) 50 A, 30 mS
c.) 100 A, 62.828 mS
d.) 400 A, 31.414 mS
50. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be-
a.) 200 A
b.) 170.7 A
c.) 141.4 A
d.) 70.7 A
51.The transfer function of an amplifier is given by
The high 3-db frequency of the amplifier will approximately
a.) 5850 KHZ
b.)585 KHZ
c.) 5850 HZ
d.)585HZ
52.In comparison to full wave rectifier with two diodes the four divide bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of -
a). Higher current carrying
b.)Lower ripple factor
c.) Higher efficiency
d.)Lower peak increase voltage require
53.Power output increase in a class-c amplifier-
a.) If the conduction angle decrease
b).If the conduction angle increase
c.) Are not governed by the conduction angle
d.)None of the above
54.A transistor with hie = 1.5 k and hfe = 75 is used in an emitter follower circuit where R1 and R2 are used for normal biasing . Approximate value of it’s current amplification is-
a.)75
b.)76
c.)75/76
d.)-75
55.Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off
56.The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.)Transformer coupling
57.In the circuit shown in the given figure Rf provides
a.) Current series feedback
b.)Current shunt feedback
c.) Voltage series feedback
d.)Voltage shunt feedback
58.
Mark the correct relation for the junction transistor
59.Data in the serial form can be converted into parallel form by using –
a.) PISO shift register
b.) SOIP shift register
c.) SIPO shift register
d.) POIS shift register
60.PROMs are used to store-
a.) bulk information
b.) information to be accessed rarely
c.) sequence information
d.) relatively permanent information
61.The horizontal axis in a 3 bit unipolar D/A converter represents-
a.) Output bit combination
b.) analog output voltage
c.) input bit combination
d.) none of the above
62.‘Not allowed’ condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –
a.) s = 0, R = 0
b.) s = 1, R = 1
c.) s = 0, R = 1
d.) s = 1, R = 0
63.Name the fastest logic family-
a) TTL
b.) RTL
c.) DCTL
d.) ECL
64.Equation corresponding to De Morgan’s theorem in Boolean Algebra is –
a.) (A+B) (A+B) = AA + AB + BA + BB
c.) A + AB = A
d.) None of the above
65.In the given fig find radix of the system –
a.) 2
b.) 4
c.) 6
d.) 8
66.Modems are used for data transmission telephone lines to –
a.) increase the transmission capacity
b) improve noice performance
c.) incorporate error control coding
d.) eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal
67.The figure of a control system is shown. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is-
a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5
68.Identify the example of open-loop system-
a.) A windscreen wiper
b.) Aqualung
c.) Respiratory system of an animal
d.) A system for controlling Anti-rocket missiles.
69.Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-
1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)
70.Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-
a.) 1&3
b.) 1&4
c.) 2&4
d.) 1&4
70.A system is described by
To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method the following V functions are considered.
Mark the most suitable V-function in this case-
a.) Only V1
b.) Only V2
c.) Both V1 and V2
d.) Neither V1 nor v2
71.The scattering matrix of a magic –tee shown in the given figure is-
73.Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4
74.For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)
The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a.) 150 samples per second
b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second
d.) 350 samples per second
75.In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
a.) 34 and 106
b.) 52. And 88
c.) 106 and 142
d.) 34 and 142
76.Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a.) Pulse radar
b.) Tracking radar
c.) MTI radar
d.) Mono pulse radar
77.The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing
78.Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
79.In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
a.) reflection from the ionosphere
b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground
d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.
80.Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b). increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
81.In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.
82.Circuit in the given figure represents. –
a.) an astable multivibrator
b.) A monostable multivibrator
c.) Voltage controlled oscillator
d.) Ramp generator
83. . . D = r is-
a.) Maxwell’s 1st equation
b.) Maxwell’s II equation
c.) Maxwell’s III equation
d.) Maxwell’s IV equation
84.In a rectangular wave-guide which TM mode exists-
a.) TM00
b.) TM01
c.) Tm10
d.) TM11
85.In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.
a). port 4
b). port 3
c.) port 2.
d.) port 3 & 4.
86.For high power i.e. 10 w to 50 kw measurement –
a.) Barometer are used
b.) Thermisters are used
c.) Calorimetric technique
d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used
87.The difference between TWT & klystron is –
a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time
c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact
d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact
88.Which one is most suitable for transmission through wave guide-
a.) Hown antennas
b.) Bioconical antennas
c.) helical antenna
d. )Discone
89.The skip distance of microwave is given by –
a.)
b. )
c.)
d.)
90.How many general purpose registers 8085mp-
a.) 4
b.) 6
c.) 8
c.) 10
91.8085 mP has no. of addressing modes-
a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5
92.What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction
a.) z = 0, cy = 0
b.) z = 0, cy = 1
c.) z = 1, cy = 0
d.) z = 1, cy = 1
93.Microprocessor accept interrupt only if.
a.) interrupt flip flop disabled.
b.) when INTA signal is low.
c. ) interrupt flip flop enabled.
d.) none of above.
94. Microprogramming is a technique
a.) for programming the microprocessor
b.) for writing small programs efficiently
c.) for programming the control steps of computer
d.) for programming o/p / i/p
95.High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help of
a.) interpreter
b.) compiler
c.) operating
d.) system
96.(10110011)2 = (?)8
a.) 253
b.) 263
c.) 273
d.) 283
97.A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into-
a.) NAND
b.) NOR
c.) AND
d.) NOPE.
98.The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be-
a.) AND
b.) OR
c.) NAND
d.) X-OR
99.A symbol of JK flip flop is-
100.A demultiplener-
a.) has multiple i/p and single o/p
b.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
d.) has single i/p and single o/p
101. Which of the following best describes the authour`s attitude toward fairy tales ?
a.) fascination
b.) open approval.
c.) Indulgent tolerance.
d.) Scornful.
102.What type of sentence is this ?
Hurray! We won the match
a.) Exclamatory
b.) assertive
c.) Negative
d.) Affirmative
103.Before which of the following word will you put ‘a’
a.) hour
b.) M. A.
c.) Umbrella
d.) Man
104.The noun form of ‘fresh’ is –
a.) freshly
b.) freshen
c.) fresheners
d.) fresh itself
105.The word ‘clang’ is an example of –
a.) Simile
b.) inversion
c.) onomatopoeia
d.) irony
106.The Forbes magazine acclaimed Azim Premji as richest India’s is the chairman of-
a.) Pentafour software
b) Infosys
c.) IBM
d.) Wipro
107.Bharat Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to-
a.) Lata Mangeshkar and Zakeer Hussain
b.) Zakeer Hussain and Bismillah Khan
c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar
d.) Lata Mangeshkar and Ustad Amzad Ali Khan
108. Mr. George W-Bush takes over as —— President of the united states of America succeeding Mr. Bill Clinton-
a.) 42nd
b.) 43rd
c.) 40th
d.) 45th
109.New Chief Minister of Pondicherry is-
a.) T. Venkat Naidu
b.) K. Hari Harh
c.) N. Rengaswany
d.) M. Mudliar
110. No court has the jurisdiction to interfere with the election process once set in motion by the Election commission. This is enshrined in Article-
a.) 311
b.) 329
c.) 356
d.) 365
111. Ostrich is a-
a.) Running bird
b.) Flying bird
c) Swimming bird
d.) Migratory bird
112.The main atmospheric gas responsible for green house is-
a.) Oxygen
b.) Nitrogen
c.) Ozone
d.) Carbon-dioxide
113.Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop-
a.) Rice
b.) groundnut
c.) Sugarcane
d.) gram
114.The function of World Bank is to-
a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economy
b.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates
c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments
d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade
115.Speed of sound is maximum in-
a. )Water
b.) Air
c.) Steel
d.) Vacuum
116.“Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these-
a.) Subhash Chandra Bose
b.) Jawaharlal Nehru
c.) Lajpat Rai
d.) Bhagat Singh
117.Durand cup is associated with-
a.) Hockey
b.) Tennis
c.) Football
d.) Badminton
118.Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.
a.) 1908
b.) 1910
c.) 1913
d.) 1914
119.India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on-
a.) May 18, 1975
b.) May 20, 1974
c) May 17, 1974
d.) May 17, 1974
120. An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-
a.) Asian development Bank
b.) World Bank
c.) Swiss Bank
d.) Reserve Bank of IndiaECIL EXAM CSE PREVIOUS PAPER
1. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is –
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c)) It?s value for all substances is less than one
d)) None
2. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel
4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2
5. A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of ?2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET
7. The location of lightning arrestor is –
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None
8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is –
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which –
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps
10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by –
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias
11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of –
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6
12. When biased correctly, a zener diode ?
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats
13. The current amplification factor adc is given by ?
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC
14. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none
15. The source-drain channel of JFET is –
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b
16. diac is equivalent to a –
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width
17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ? 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ? 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be ?
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3
18. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero? represents –
a) Kirchhoff’s law
b) Norton’s theorem
c) Thevenin’s theorem
d) Superposition theorem
19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is ?
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode
20. A two-port network is symmetrical if ?
a) z11z22 ? z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 ? h12h21 = 1
c) AD ? BC = 1
d) y11y22 ? y12y21 = 1
21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position
22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised –
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network
23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements ?
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C
24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to ?
a) B
b) Z12
d) h12
25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.
26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly –
a) 250 ?300 MHz
b) 150 ? 200 MHz
c) 90 ? 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz
27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using –
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding
28. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is –
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W
29. One of the following statements which is not true for a strip line compared to a waveguide is ?
a) It can be directly connected to semiconductor microwave devices
b) It is much smaller in size
c) It has a smaller bandwidth
d) Losses are less
ECIL EXAM Paper
1. Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-
1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)
2. Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include- 1&3
Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4
3. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)
The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a.) 150 samples per second
b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second
d.) 350 samples per second
4. In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
a.) 34 and 106
b.) 52. And 88
c.) 106 and 142
d.) 34 and 142
5. Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is
a.) Pulse radar
b.) Tracking radar
c.) MTI radar
d.) Mono pulse radar
6. The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing
7. Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal( placementpapers.fresherjobs4u.com)
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
8. In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
a.) reflection from the ionosphere
b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground
d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.
9. Case grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b). increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
10. In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.
11. When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.)An inductance at the load
c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.)none of the above
12. As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are -
a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.
13. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter
14. Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because -
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off
15. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.)Transformer coupling
16. A superconductor is a –
a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance(placementpapers.fresherjobs4u.com)
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
17. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
a) 8.05 pF
b) 10.05pF
c.) 16.01pF
d.) 20.01pF
18. The Q of a radio coil –
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
19. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75
20. The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)
21. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
a.) -2000C to 5000C
b.) 00C to 5000C
c.) 5000C to 12000C
d.) 12000C to 25000C
22. RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
a.) Class ‘A’
b.) Class ‘b’
c.) Class ‘C’
d.) None
23. The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
a.) High positive
b.) High negative
c.) Low positive
d.) Zero
NBPPL TECHNICAL EXECUTIVES EXAM QUESTIONS
1. The chemical name of the Aspirin used as pain reliever is
(a) Acetyl salicylate
(b) Acetyl salicylic acid
(c) Methyl salicylate
(d) Methyl salicylic acid
Ans.b
2. The milk looks white because it
(a) absorbs light
(b) contains proteins
(c) contains sugars
(d) reflects the incident light
Ans.d
3. Which one of the following was the result of the third Buddhist Council in ancient India
(a) Adoption of Vinaya Pitaka
(b) Compilation of Abhidhamma Pitaka
(c) Permanent split of Buddhist Church into Sthaviras and Mahasanghikas
(d) Composition of commentaries known as Vibhashas
Ans.c
5. When a thin film of oil is spread over water at rest, coloured bands are observed. This is the result of the phenomenon of
(a) dispersion
(b) interference
(c) polarization
(d) scattering
Ans.b
6. Who of the following ladies were Chief Ministers ‘?
(a) Janaki Ramachandran
(b) Nandini Satpaty
(c) Rujinder Kaur Bhattal
(d) Syeda Anwara Taimur
Select the correct answer using the following codes :
Codes
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1and3
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
Ans.d
7. Which one of the following statements relating to 1ndia’s external debt during the decade of 90s is not correct
(a) Total external debt as at proportion of
GDP has been on decline
(b) Short term debt (with an original
maturity of upto one year) as propor-
tion of total debt has been on decline
(c) The concessional debt as proportion of
total debt has been on increase
(d) The debt service payments as a
proportion of current receipts have been \
on decline during the decade
Ans.c
8. Which one of the following is a fresh water fish
(a) Pomfret
(b) Rohn
(c) Sardine
(d) Salmon
Ans.c
9. Match List I with List Il and select the
correct answer using the codes given below
the lists
List I List II
(Name of the Governor (Year in which
General of India) appointed)
A. Lord Cornwallis 1. 1786
B. Lord Dalhousie 2. 1798
C. Lord Mornington (Wellesley) 3. 1828
D. Lord William Bentinck 4. 1848
Codes :
(a) A B C D
3 4 2 l
(b) A B C D
1 2 4 3
(c) A B C D
3 2 4 l
(d) A B C D
1 4 2 3
Ans.d
10. The new alluvial deposits found in the Gangetic plain are known as
(a) Bhabar
(b) Bhangar
(c) Khadar
(d) Terai
Ans.b
11. The lirst state to have electronic voting machines for its Assembly Elections is
(a) Goa
(b) Punjab
(c) Delhi
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans.a
12. Who among the following won the 30th National Chess Championship
Organized recently by the Koya Chess Academy
(a) Beenish Bhatia
(b) K. Ratnakaran
(c) MR. Venkatesh
(d) Magesh Chandrun
Ans.b
13. Which one of the following books was written by Jayadeva ?
(a) Atma Bodha
(b) Buddha Charita
(c) Gita-Govinda
(d) Rajatarangini
Ans.c
14. Consider the following statements regarding human blood :
1. Red blood cells are nucleated but white
blood cells have no nucleus.
2. Eosinophils are phagocytic.
3. Lymphocytes enter damaged tissues
and release histamines.
4. Platelets contain enzymes.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.b
15. The famous Hoysalesvara temple is located at
(a) Tanjore
(b) Mysore
(c) Madurai
(d) Halebid
Ans.d
16. Which of the following is the largest island
(a) Sumatra
(b) Madagascar
(c) Honshu
(d) Cuba
Ans.b
17. Core of a transformer is made up of
(a) Soft iron
(b) Steel
(c) Copper
(d) Aluminum
Ans.a
18. Which one of the following vitamins contains cobalt
(a) Vitamin B1
(b) Vitamin B2
(c) Vitamin B6
(d) Vitamin B12
Ans.d
19. Which one of the following states is the largest producer of coffee
(a) Kamataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Assam
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans.a
20. Saffron is dried
(a) flower buds
(b) Styles
(c) perianth
(d) stigmas
Ans.b
22. Which 0nc of the following plants is
useful in treating hypertension 7
(a) Cinchona
(b) Ocimum
(c) Rauwolfia
(d) Vinca
Ans.c
23. Who among the following Chula kings
reigned as Kulottung Chola
(a) Vikramadityal
(b) Vikramaditya II
(c) Rajaraja Narendra I
(d) Rajendra Ill
Ans.d
Directions : The following items consist of two statements, one labelled `as ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled as ‘Reason R'. You are t0 examine these two statements carefully and decide if the
Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and of so, whether the Reason R is the correct explanation for the given Assertion A. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Codes :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but
R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
24. Assertion (A) .‘
Electron beam undergoes diffraction
on crystal surfaces.
Reason ( R ) :
Electron has dual properties and
behaves both as a particle and a wave,
Ans.a
25. Assertion (A) .•
Wine making is an important activity
in the regions with Mediterranean
climate.
Reason (R) J '
Inhabitants of these regions provide
a ready market for the wine so
produced.
Ans.b
26. Assertion (A) :
In a chemical reaction, a catalyst
increases the rate of a reaction.
Reason (R) :
Catalyst possesses high activation
energy.
Ans.c
28. Assertion (A) :
Molybdenum is used as a target
element for production of X—rays.
Region {R)
Molybdenum can easily deflect
electrons.
Ans.c
29. Assertion (A) :
Nature of vegetation over peninsular
India shows variation in east—west
direction.
Reason (R) :
There are variations in relief of the
area.
Ans.a
30. Assertion (A) :
Congo basin in Africa has enormous
potential for hydel power generation.
Reason (R) :
The region receives rainfall
throughout thc year and the rivers
flow to the Atlantieocean through
several waterfalls
Ans.a
(a) Acetyl salicylate
(b) Acetyl salicylic acid
(c) Methyl salicylate
(d) Methyl salicylic acid
Ans.b
2. The milk looks white because it
(a) absorbs light
(b) contains proteins
(c) contains sugars
(d) reflects the incident light
Ans.d
3. Which one of the following was the result of the third Buddhist Council in ancient India
(a) Adoption of Vinaya Pitaka
(b) Compilation of Abhidhamma Pitaka
(c) Permanent split of Buddhist Church into Sthaviras and Mahasanghikas
(d) Composition of commentaries known as Vibhashas
Ans.c
5. When a thin film of oil is spread over water at rest, coloured bands are observed. This is the result of the phenomenon of
(a) dispersion
(b) interference
(c) polarization
(d) scattering
Ans.b
6. Who of the following ladies were Chief Ministers ‘?
(a) Janaki Ramachandran
(b) Nandini Satpaty
(c) Rujinder Kaur Bhattal
(d) Syeda Anwara Taimur
Select the correct answer using the following codes :
Codes
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1and3
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
Ans.d
7. Which one of the following statements relating to 1ndia’s external debt during the decade of 90s is not correct
(a) Total external debt as at proportion of
GDP has been on decline
(b) Short term debt (with an original
maturity of upto one year) as propor-
tion of total debt has been on decline
(c) The concessional debt as proportion of
total debt has been on increase
(d) The debt service payments as a
proportion of current receipts have been \
on decline during the decade
Ans.c
8. Which one of the following is a fresh water fish
(a) Pomfret
(b) Rohn
(c) Sardine
(d) Salmon
Ans.c
9. Match List I with List Il and select the
correct answer using the codes given below
the lists
List I List II
(Name of the Governor (Year in which
General of India) appointed)
A. Lord Cornwallis 1. 1786
B. Lord Dalhousie 2. 1798
C. Lord Mornington (Wellesley) 3. 1828
D. Lord William Bentinck 4. 1848
Codes :
(a) A B C D
3 4 2 l
(b) A B C D
1 2 4 3
(c) A B C D
3 2 4 l
(d) A B C D
1 4 2 3
Ans.d
10. The new alluvial deposits found in the Gangetic plain are known as
(a) Bhabar
(b) Bhangar
(c) Khadar
(d) Terai
Ans.b
11. The lirst state to have electronic voting machines for its Assembly Elections is
(a) Goa
(b) Punjab
(c) Delhi
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans.a
12. Who among the following won the 30th National Chess Championship
Organized recently by the Koya Chess Academy
(a) Beenish Bhatia
(b) K. Ratnakaran
(c) MR. Venkatesh
(d) Magesh Chandrun
Ans.b
13. Which one of the following books was written by Jayadeva ?
(a) Atma Bodha
(b) Buddha Charita
(c) Gita-Govinda
(d) Rajatarangini
Ans.c
14. Consider the following statements regarding human blood :
1. Red blood cells are nucleated but white
blood cells have no nucleus.
2. Eosinophils are phagocytic.
3. Lymphocytes enter damaged tissues
and release histamines.
4. Platelets contain enzymes.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.b
15. The famous Hoysalesvara temple is located at
(a) Tanjore
(b) Mysore
(c) Madurai
(d) Halebid
Ans.d
16. Which of the following is the largest island
(a) Sumatra
(b) Madagascar
(c) Honshu
(d) Cuba
Ans.b
17. Core of a transformer is made up of
(a) Soft iron
(b) Steel
(c) Copper
(d) Aluminum
Ans.a
18. Which one of the following vitamins contains cobalt
(a) Vitamin B1
(b) Vitamin B2
(c) Vitamin B6
(d) Vitamin B12
Ans.d
19. Which one of the following states is the largest producer of coffee
(a) Kamataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Assam
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans.a
20. Saffron is dried
(a) flower buds
(b) Styles
(c) perianth
(d) stigmas
Ans.b
22. Which 0nc of the following plants is
useful in treating hypertension 7
(a) Cinchona
(b) Ocimum
(c) Rauwolfia
(d) Vinca
Ans.c
23. Who among the following Chula kings
reigned as Kulottung Chola
(a) Vikramadityal
(b) Vikramaditya II
(c) Rajaraja Narendra I
(d) Rajendra Ill
Ans.d
Directions : The following items consist of two statements, one labelled `as ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled as ‘Reason R'. You are t0 examine these two statements carefully and decide if the
Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and of so, whether the Reason R is the correct explanation for the given Assertion A. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Codes :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but
R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
24. Assertion (A) .‘
Electron beam undergoes diffraction
on crystal surfaces.
Reason ( R ) :
Electron has dual properties and
behaves both as a particle and a wave,
Ans.a
25. Assertion (A) .•
Wine making is an important activity
in the regions with Mediterranean
climate.
Reason (R) J '
Inhabitants of these regions provide
a ready market for the wine so
produced.
Ans.b
26. Assertion (A) :
In a chemical reaction, a catalyst
increases the rate of a reaction.
Reason (R) :
Catalyst possesses high activation
energy.
Ans.c
28. Assertion (A) :
Molybdenum is used as a target
element for production of X—rays.
Region {R)
Molybdenum can easily deflect
electrons.
Ans.c
29. Assertion (A) :
Nature of vegetation over peninsular
India shows variation in east—west
direction.
Reason (R) :
There are variations in relief of the
area.
Ans.a
30. Assertion (A) :
Congo basin in Africa has enormous
potential for hydel power generation.
Reason (R) :
The region receives rainfall
throughout thc year and the rivers
flow to the Atlantieocean through
several waterfalls
Ans.a
Tuesday, September 14, 2010
DRDO SCIENTIST "B" RECRUITMENT PATTERN
The DRDO SET examination is of three hours duration. Each candidate appearing for the Test will
be given one Question Booklet containing objective type questions, in two separate sections.
Section ‘A’ will consists of 100 questions to test the candidate’s knowledge in the subject as per
syllabus.
Each question will have 4 choices of which one only will be correct. Each correct answer will fetch 4 marks. For each incorrect answer, 1 mark will be deducted. Section ‘B’ will consist of 50 questions to test the candidate’s aptitude relevant to Applied Research & Development. Each question will have 4 choices of which one only will be correct. Each correct answer will fetch 2 marks. For each incorrect answer, ½ mark will be deducted.
Section ‘B’ will test the candidate’s aptitude relevant to Applied Research & Development. The
distribution of 50 questions for Section ‘B’ is given below:
i. Logical Relations 10 Questions
ii. Spatial Reasoning 10 Questions
iii. Concept Formation 10 Questions
iv. Abstract Reasoning 10 Questions
v. Numerical Reasoning 10 Questions
50 Questions
The merit list will be prepared, based on the marks obtained by the candidates in Section ‘A’ and
Section ‘B’ and this list will be used for short listing the candidates to be called for interview purely
on merit basis limited to a reasonable number and subject to minimum qualifying criteria as decided
by RAC.
The final selection of the candidates will be based purely on merit of their performance in the
interview. In accordance with the subject-wise merit, the offer of appointment to the selected
candidates will be restricted to the number of vacancies.
DRDO EXAM - Objective Questions for Microprocessor
1. In Synchronous data Transfer type both Transmitter and Receiver will operate in
a) Same Clock pulse
b) Different Clock pulse
c) None of the above
2. The term PSW Program Status word refers
a) Accumulator & Flag register
b) H and L register
c) Accumulator & Instruction register
d) B and C register
3. In 8085 the MAR, or ….. register, latches the address from the program counter. A bit later the MAR applies this address to the ……, where a read operations performed
a) Memory address, ROM
b) Memory address, RAM
c) Memory address, PROM
d) Memory address EPROM
4. In micro – processors like 8080 and the 8085, the …..cycle may have from one to live machine cycle
a) micro – instruction
b) source program
c) instruction
d) fetch cycle
5. Repeated addition is one way to do multiplication, programmed multiplication is used in most microprocessors because
a) that ALU’s can only add and subtract
b) this saves on memory
c) a separate set of instructions is needed for the two
d) None of the above.
6. A —— is used to isolate a bit, it does this because that ANI sets all other bits to Zero
a) subroutine
b) flag
c) label
d) mask
7. Interaction between a CPU and a peripheral device that takes place during and imput output operation is known as
a) handshaking
b) flagging
c) relocating
d) sub–routine
8. Addressing in which the instructions contains the address of the data to the operated on is known as
a) immediate addressing
b) implied addressing
c) register addressing
d) direct addressing
9. Resart is a special type of CALL in which
a) the address is programmed but not built into the hardware
b) the address is programmed built into the hardware
c) the address is not programmed but built into the hardware
d) None of the above
10. 8085 has …… software restarts and ….. hardware restarts
a) 10, 5
b) 8,4
c) 7,5
d) 6,6
11. Serial input data of 8085 can be loaded into bit 7 of the accumulator by
a) executing a RIM instruction
b) executing RST1
c) using TRAP
c) None of the above
12. The address to which a software or hardware restart branches is known as
a) vector location
b) SID
c) SOD
d) TRAP
13. TRAP is …..whereas RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5 are….
a) maskable, non maskable
b) maskable, maskable
c) non - maskable, non – maskable
d) non - maskable, maskable
14. micro processor with a 16 – bit address bus is used in a linear memory selection configuration address bus lines are directly used as chip selects of memory chips with four memory chips. The maximum addressable memory space is
a) 64K
b) 16 K
c) 8K
d) 4K
15. How many outputs are there in the output of a 10-bit D/A converter?
a) 1000
b) 1023
c) 1024
d) 1224
16. The stack is a specialized temporary …… access memory during ….. and …… instructions
a) random, store, load
b) random, push, load
c) sequential, store, pop
d) sequential, push, pop
17. The memory address of the last location of a 1K byte memory chip is given as OFBFFH what will be the address of the first location ?
a) OF817H
b) OF818H
c) OF8OOH
d) OF801H
18. What is the direction of address bus ?
a) Uni – directional into microprocessors
b) Uni – directional out of microprocessors
c) Bi – directional
d) mixed direction is when lines into micro processor and some other out of micro
processes.
19. The No. of control lines are ——-
20. The length of A – register is ——- bits
21. The length of program counter is ——– bits
22. The length of stack pointer is ——– bits
23. The length of status word is ——- bits
24. The length of temporary register ——- bits
25. The length of Data buffer register ——- bits
26. The No. of flags are ——-
27. The No. of interrupts are ——-
28. The memory word addressing capability is —— K
29. The No. of input output ports can be accessed by direct method ——-
30. The No. of input output ports can be accessed by memory mapped method —— K
31. If instruction RST is written in a program the program will jump ——- location.
32. When TRAP interrupt is triggered program control is transferred to ——- location.
33. The RST 5.5 interrupt service routine start from ——– location.
34. What is the purpose of using ALE signal high ?
a) To latch low order address from bus to separate A0 – A7
b) To latch data Do – D 7 from bus go separate data bus
c) To disable data bus latch
35. What is the purpose of READY signal?
a) It is used to indicate to user that microprocessor is working and ready to use
b) It is used to provide for proper WAIT states when microprocessor is communicating with slow peripheral device.
c) It is used to provide for proper showing down of fast peripheral devices so as to communicate at micro processors speed.
36. What is the addressing mode used in instruction MOV M, C?
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Indexed
d) Immediate
37. In 8085 the direction of address business is
a)bidirectional
b)unidirectional out of MP
c)unidirectional int MP
d)none of the above
38. In 8085 the hardware interrupts are
a)TRAP,RST 6.5,RST 7.5, RST 5.5 and INTR
b)RST o, RST 1…..RST 7
c)both a b
d)none of the above
39. In the TRAP, RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5, which is having top priority
a)TRAP
b)RST 7.5
c)RST 6.5
d)RST 5.5
40.In 8085 the no . of software interrupts are
a) 8
b)7
c)5
d)4
41. In the following interrupts which is the non-vectored interrupt
a)TRAP
b)INTR
c)RST 7.5
d)RST 6.5
42. Vector address for the TRAP interrupt is
a)0024 H
b)003C H
c)0034 H
d)002C H
43. In the following interrupt which is non-maskable interrupt
(a) Rst7.5
b) Rst 6.5
c) TRAP
d) INTR
44. Vector location Address for RST O Instruction is inflex
(a) ooooH
b) ooo8H
c) oo1oH
d)oo18H
45. In 8085 the Interput Acknowledge is represended by _______
(a) INTA
b)INTA
c) INTR
d) none of the above
46. The maximum number of I\o devices can be interfaced with 8085 in the I\o mapped I\o technique are
a) 128
b) 256
c) 64
d) 1024
47. The maximum number of I\o devices which can be interfaced in the memory mapped I\o technique are
a) 256
b) 128
c) 65536
d) 32768
48. Shadow Address will exist in
a) absolute decoding
b) linear decoding
c) partical decoding
d) none of the above
49. The Instructions used for data transfer in I\o mapped I\O are
a) IN, OUT
b) IN, LDA add
c) STA add
d) None of the above
50. Number of Address lines required to interface 1KB of memory are
a) 10
b)11
c) 12
d) 13
DRDO TECHNICAL QUESTION PAPER
1. If 100ns is Memory Access Time & 125 microsec is 1frame period. The no. of line that can be supported in a Time Divison Switch is
a)125 Lines
b)625 Lines
c)525 Lines
d)465 Lines
2. The no. of edjes in disjoint Hamilton circuit in a complex graph with 17 edges is
a) 8
b) 9
c) 136
d) 17^2
3. 15 persons in a club sit every day ina dinner table such that every member has different neighbour. This arrangement will last for how many days.
Assume a system has 16MB cache mean Disk Access Time & cache Access time is 76.5 ns & 1.5 overall mean Access time us 465ms for each tripling the memory the miss rate is halved. The memory required to bring down the mean Access time to 24ns is
a) 16 MB
b) 24 MB
c) 32 MB
d) 48 MB
4.Average transfer speed of a i/p serial line is minimum 25,000 Bytes & maximum 60000 Bytes. Polling Strategy adopted takes 4microsec(whether there is any i/p byte or not). It is assured that byte that retrived from controller before next byte arrives are lost. Then the maximum safe polling interveal is
a) 12
b) 12.33
c) 12.67
d) 32
5. A harddisk has a rotation speed of 4500RPM. then the latency time is
a) .4
b) .6
c) .7
d) .9
6.Suppose all elements above the principal diagonal od n x n matix A are zero. If non zero elements of the lower triangular Matrix is stored in an array B with A[1][1] stored at B[1]. The addressing formula to the nonzero element in A[i][j]=?
a) A[i][j]
b) i(j-1)/2 +i
c) j(i-1)/2 +i
d) i(i-1)/2 +j
7.The minumum number of comparisons requied to find the second smallest element in a 1000 element array is
a) 1008
b) 1010
c) 1999
d) 2000
8.The internal path length of a Bonary Tree with 10nodes is 25. The external path length is
a) 25
b) 35
c) 40
d) 45
9.Average No. of Comparisons required to sort 3 elements is
a) 2
b) 2.33
c) 2.67
d) 3
10.In a switch the mean arrival rate of packets is 800 Packets/sec and the the mean service rate is 925 Packets/sec
a) .008 Sec
b) .08 sec
c) .8 sec
d) 1.1 sec
11. What is Interface Control Information?
12. The minumum no. of Multiplications needed to compute x^768 is
a) 9
b) 10
c) 425
d) 767
13. Find values for a,b,c,d
c 1 1 1
0 a 1 b
_______
1 0 d 0
(967)basex = 321base9
14. The area of red planet where the Mars Rover Landed? In Which Day world Telecom Day Celebrated? Laser is used for what?
a) Treatment of Cancer
b) Treatment of Eyes
c) Treatment of Heart
d) Treatment of Kidney
15.Which country is not a Member of SAARC
a) Bangladesh
b) Myanmar
c) Maldives
d) Nepal
The New Biotechnology Software intorduced by TCS is?
16.The New Biotechnology Software intorduced by TCS is? What is Wi Fi?
17.Which is the fastest Cruise Missile?
DRDO Exam Paper - EMT & Microprocessor
EMT and microprocessor:
Make sure that u know the fundas of microprocessors useful in interview also: see if u know these questions
1. Which type of architecture 8085 has?
2. How many memory locations can be addressed by a microprocessor with 14 address lines?
3. 8085 is how many bit microprocessor?
4. Why is data bus bi-directional?
5. What is the function of accumulator?
6. What is flag, bus?
7. What are tri-state devices and why they are essential in a bus oriented system?
8. Why are program counter and stack pointer 16-bit registers?
9. What does it mean by embedded system?
10. What are the different addressing modes in 8085?
11.What is the difference between MOV and MVI?
12. What are the functions of RIM, SIM, IN?
13. What is the immediate addressing mode?
14. What are the different flags in 8085?
15. What happens during DMA transfer?
16. What do you mean by wait state? What is its need?
17. What is PSW?
18. What is ALE? Explain the functions of ALE in 8085.
19. What is a program counter? What is its use?
20. What is an interrupt?
21. Which line will be activated when an output device require attention from CPU?
DRDO EXAMINATION QUESTION PAPER YEAR 2009
Section – A
1. The thermal conductivity k of a liquid metal is predicted via the
empirical equation k = Aexp(B/T), where k is in Js-1m-1K-1 and T is absolute
temperature in K. A and B are constants. The units of A and B are, respectively,
(A) Js-1m-1K-1 and K-1 (B) Js-1m-1K-1 and K
(C) J-1 smK and K-1 (D) J-1 smK and K
2. % Excess air for combustion process is defined as(O2 entering the
process-O2 required)
(A) % Excess air = ——————————————— x 100 O2 required (O2 required –
O2 entering the process)
(B) % Excess air =————————————————– x 100 O2 entering the
process O2 required
(C) % Excess air =———————————————- x 100 (O2 entering the process
– O2 required) O2 entering the process
(D) % Excess air =——————————————————– x 100 (O2 required – O2
entering the process)
3. To prepare a solution of 50% sulfuric acid, a dilute waste acid
containing 27% sulfuric acid is fortified with a fresh acid containing 96%
sulfuric acid. The amount of fresh acid required for each 100 kg of dilute waste
acid is
(A) 13.5 kg (B) 25 kg (C) 50 kg (D) 100
kg
4. A flue gas analysis gave 10% O2, 25% CO2 and 65% N2 at 160 °C and 760 mm
Hg. The ratio of partial pressures of CO2 to O2 is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 4
5. In the extraction of nicotine from a nicotine-water solution by
kerosene, the pressure and temperature are kept constant. The available degree(s)
of freedom is/are
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
6. The hydrostatic equation of pressure P with height h of an
incompressible fluid of density ρ and specific weight γ is
(A) P = ρ/h (B) P = γ / h
(C) P = ρ h (D) P = γ h
7. A gas is being compressed from an enthalpy of 489 kJ/kg to 509
kJ/kg in a steady state open process. The entry and exit velocities of the gas
are zero and 60 m/s, respectively. Assume that there is no heat loss or gain, no
reaction, and potential energy change is negligible. If the load is 100 kg/h of
gas, the work done on the gas is equal to
(A) 2000 kJ (B) 2180 kJ (C) 2500 kJ (D) 3000 kJ
8. The corresponding Maxwell relation for the Gibbsian equation dG =
-SdT +VdP is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 9 and 10:A system is taken from state A to state B along path ACB where 100 J of heat
flows into the system and the system does 40 J of work.
9. How much heat flows into the system along path AEB if the work
done by the system is 20 J?
(A) 20 J (B) 40 J (C) 60 J (D) 80 J
10. The system returns from B to A along path BDA. If the work done on
the system is 30 J, what will be the amount of heat liberated/generated?
(A) -90 J (B) 90 J (C) 30 J (D) -30 J
11. Acentric factor for Argon is
(A) >1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) <>
12. Wet steam at 270 °C enters a throttling calorimeter with enthalpies
of 1200 kJ/kg and 2800 kJ/kg in liquid and gas phase, respectively. It leaves as
supersaturated steam at 0.1 MPa and 120 °C with an enthalpy of 2700 kJ/kg. The
quality of steam is
(A) 14/16 (B) 13/16 (C) 15/16 (D) 27/40
13. Superheated steam at 3 MPa and 300°C having enthalpy of 3000 kJ/kg
enters a turbine at the rate of 1 kg/sec and leaves as dry saturated steam at 60
°C with an enthalpy of 2600 kJ/kg. placementpapers.net If kinetic and potential energy changes are
ignored, the power output of the turbine is
(A) 400 kW (B) 5600 kW (C) 3000 kW (D) 2600 kW
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 14 and 15: reversible heat engine absorbs 800 kJ as heat from a reservoir at 600 K and
rejects 100 kJ energy as heat to a reservoir at 300 K, as shown in the following
figure.
Q14. The heat interaction (Q) with reservoir at 400 K is
(A) – 600 kJ (B) 400 kJ (C) – 400 kJ (D) 600 kJ
15. The work done (W) by the engine is
(A) 500 kJ (B) 400 kJ (C) 350 kJ (D) 300 kJ
16. The partial volume of component A in a binary mixture (A – B) is 60
x 10-6 m3/mol. The mole% of A in the mixture is 60%. The density of the mixture
is 760 kg/m3. What will be the partial volume (m3/mol) of B in the mixture?
(placementpapers.netGiven: Molar mass of A is 50 x 10-3 kg/mol; molar mass of B is 20 x 10-3
kg/mol)
(A) 30 x 10-6 (B) 35 x 10-6 (C) 40 x 10-6 (D) 60 x 10-6
17. The enthalpy of vaporization of water at 100 °C is 2300 kJ/kg. The
isobaric heat capacities of liquid and vapor are, respectively, 4.0 kJ/kg-K and
2 kJ/kg-K. The enthalpy of vaporization at 150 °C will be
(A) 2400 kJ/kg (B) 2100 kJ/kg (C) 2500 kJ/kg
(D) 2200 kJ/kg
18. The following equations have been proposed for an isothermal binary
solution where the standard states are the pure components at the solution
temperature and pressure: γ1 = Ax1; γ2 = Bx2
What can be said about the above relation?
(A) It satisfies Gibbs-Duhem equation
(B) It does not satisfy Gibbs-Duhem equation
(C) It is thermodynamically consistent
(D) It satisfies both (A) and (C)
19. The enthalpy change of some reactions are given below:
CO (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) ΔH = -300 kJ
H2 (g) + O2 (g) → H2O (1) ΔH = -320 kJ
H2O(1) H2O(g) ΔH = 50 kJ
What will be the enthalpy change for the following reaction:
CO(g) + H2O(g) à CO2 (g) + H2 (g)
(A) -70 kJ (B) 30 kJ (C) -30 kJ (D) 70 kJ
20. The decrease in the Helmholtz Free Energy for system in a given
process for which initial and final temperatures are equal to the surrounding
temperature indicates.
(A) Maximum work obtained from the system
(B) Minimum work obtained from the system
(C) Minimum work which can be done on the system
(D) Both (A) and (C)
21. The vapor pressures of benzene and toluene at 70 °C are 4 and 6 atm,
respectively. A liquid feed of 0.6 moles of toluene at the same temperature is
vaporized. Assuming Raoult’s law, the vapor phase mole fraction of benzene at
equilibrium is approximately.
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.40 (C) 0.50 (D) 0.60
22. An oil film of viscosity u and thickness h is sheared between a
solid stationary wall and a circular disc of radius R, where h < <>
23. A circular fire hose of inner cross-sectional area 100 cm2 is
connected to a nozzle whose exit cross-sectional area is 4 cm2. The horizontal
nozzle is discharging water at 0.6 m3/minute to the atmosphere. If a pressure
gauge is connected to the hose side just before the nozzle, what would be the
reading of the pressure gauge?(Density of water = 1000 kg/m3 )
(A) 312 kPa (B) 624 kPa (C) 89 kPa (D) 178 kPa
24. A reciprocating pump has a piston of cross-sectional area A and is
connected to a crank of radius r which is rotating with angular velocity ω. The
pump is connected to the suction and the delivery pipes whose
placementpapers.net internal
cross-sectional area is A1. The maximum velocity of the fluid element in the
suction or delivery pipe is
(A) (B) (C) ωr (D)
25. Assuming that the thrust T of a propeller depends upon the diameter
D, speed of advance V, angular velocity ω, dynamic viscosity μ, and density ρ,
which of the following dimensionless parameters can be derived by dimensionless
analysis?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
26. The velocity profile u in the boundary layer over a flat plate is
given by . where U is the free stream velocity, y is the vertical distance of
the velocity point from the flat plate and δ is the boundary layer thickness.
The displacement thickness of the boundary layer is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
27. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about thixotropic
fluids?
(A) Apparent viscosity depends on the time of shearing
(B) Thixotropy is an irreversible process
(C) Thixotropic fluid shows shear thinning behavior
(D) Thixotropic fluids are in general non-Newtonian fluids.
28. A small liquid droplet of radius 1 mm and density 900 kg/m3 is rising up
in a column of water. What is the terminal rise velocity of the drop if creeping
flow conditions are assumed?(Given: viscosity of water = 1 cp, Gravitational
constant g = 10 m/s2 )
(A) m/s (B) m/s (C) m/s (D) m/s
29. Which of the following is NOT RECOMMENDED to increase the
collection efficiency of a cyclone separator?
(A) Increase in particle density
(B) Decrease in gas temperature
(C) Increase in particle diameter
(D) Increase in gas flow rate
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 30 and 31: In a fluidized bed
operation, spherical particles of 1 mm diameter are packed to a height of 1.0
meter. The porosity of this bed is measured to be 0.4. At the minimum
placementpapers.net fluidization with air the bed height expands to 1.2 meter.
(Given: Particle density = 1200 kg/m3, Gravitational constant g = 10 m/s2 ).
30. The porosity of the bed at minimum fluidization is
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.6
31. The approximate value of pressure drop in the bed at minimum
fluidization will be
(A) 3600 N/m2 (B) 7200 N/m2 (C) 6000 N/m2 (D) 3000 N/m2
32. In a centrifugal filter the inside radius of the filter basket is
R2 and radius of the inner surface of liquid is R1. The centrifuge is rotating
with an angular speed ω. Which of the following is true about the pressure drop
ΔP from the centrifugal action?
(A) ΔP µ ω1/2 (B) ΔP µ (R22 + R12)
(C) ΔP µ (R22 – R12) (D) ΔP µ ω
33. In a dry crushing operation the mean diameter of the feed and
product particles are 100 mm and 1 mm, respectively. The sphericity of the feed
and product particles are 0.5 and 1.0, respectively. If the feed particles of
200 mm diameter with the same sphericity are handled at the same feed rate, what
will be the percentage increase in power requirement assuming that the product
remains the same?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34. Which of the following is INCORRECT about the boundary layer
development over flat infinite plate?
(A) The fluid velocity at solid-liquid interface is zero
(B) The shear rate inside the boundary layer is not zero
(C) The boundary layer thickness increases with distance from the leading
edge
(D) The flow in the boundary layer close to the leading edge is turbulent
35. Which of the following velocity field represents an irrotational
flow for x, y > 0, x ≠ y?
(A) V = 2 yi – 2x .j
(B) V = 2 xi – 3y,j
(C) V = xy i – xy j
(D) V = xy i + xy j
36. In a laminar flow between two parallel plates separated by a
distance H, the head loss varies
(A) directly as H (B) inversely as H2
(C) directly as H2 (D) inversely as H3
37. Two viscous liquids are to be blended by passing through a pipe.
Which of the following would be the most suitable condition for axial mixing?
(A) Creeping flow (B) Low Reynolds number
flow
(C) High Reynolds number flow (D) Plug flow
38. A U-tube manometer measures
(A) absolute pressure at a point
(B) local atmospheric pressure at a point
(C) difference in total energy between two points
(D) difference in pressure between two points
39. What will happen to the heat loss if foam insulation, with thermal
conductivity 0.09 W/m-K is added to a 5 cm outer diameter pipe carrying hot
water? (Heat transfer coefficient on the outer surface = 10 W/m2-K)
(A) Increases (B)
Decreases
(C) First increases then decreases (D) Remains
constant
40. Biot number (hL/k) is important for which mode of heat transfer?
(A) Natural convection (B) Forced convection
(C) Transient heat conduction (D) Radiation
41. The temperature distribution in a 0.25 m thick wall is given as
T (°C) = 250 + bx – cx2, where x (in meter) is the position of a point with
respect to the surface of the wall which is at higher temperature. The thermal
conductivity of the wall is 5.95 W/m-°C. What will be the value of b if the
surface at x = 0 is insulated?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) – 1 (D) 0.5
42. When momentum diffusivity is greater than the thermal diffusivity,
the velocity boundary layer
(A) develops faster than the thermal boundary layer
(B) develops slower than the thermal boundary layer
(C) grows together
(D) disappears
43. An aluminium ball of area 0.5 m2 and mass 10 kg is cooled in
ambient at 25 °C. When the temperature of the ball is 125 °C, it is found to
cool at the rate of 6 °C/min. What will be the surface heat transfer
coefficient? placementpapers.net(Given, Cp = 0.5 kJ/kg-°C)
(A) 0.5 W/m2-°C (B) 0.01 W/m2-°C
(C) 0.05 W/m2-°C (D) 0.l W/m2-°C
44. Water at 25 °C enters a pipe with internal diameter 2 cm having a
constant wall heat flux of 1 KW/m2. The flow is hydro dynamically and thermally
fully developed. What will be the difference between the local wall temperature
and the local mean (bulk) temperature? (Thermal conductivity of pipe = 0.4
W/m-°C; Nusselt Number = 5.0)
(A) 5 °C (B) 15 °C (C) 10 °C (D) 50 °C
45. When some liquid nitrogen spills on the floor of a laboratory, the
droplets move so briskly that they appear to be dancing before they disappear.
This phenomenon
(A) is related to pool boiling (B) is related
to film boiling
(C) is related to nucleate boiling (D) has nothing
to do with boiling
46. Consider sphere 1 enclosed by sphere 2 as shown in the following
figure. The area of sphere 2 is double the area of sphere 1. What are the
various view factors (F1I, F12, F21, F22)?
(A) 0, 0.5, 0.5, 1 (B)
0.5, 1, 1, 0.5
(C) 0.5, 0.5, 0, 1 (D) 0, 1,
0.5, 0.5
47. A triple-effect evaporator is concentrating a liquid that has no
appreciable elevation in boiling point. The temperature of the steam to the
first effect is 110 °C and the boiling point of the solution in the last effect
is 50 °C. The ratio of the heat transfer resistance of the first effect to that
of the overall heat transfer resistance is 0.2. At what temperature will the
liquid boil in the first effect?
(A) 95 °C (B) 98 °C (C) 90 °C (D) 92 °C
48. Gas A is being cracked on a catalyst as per the reaction, A→2B+C in
such a way that A diffuses to the cracking surface and B diffuses back, while C
is not diffusing. At steady state what will be the ratio of molar flux of A to
the total molar flux?
(A) 1/3 (B) –1 (C) 2 (D) 2/3
49. The eddy momentum diffusivity, the thermal diffusivity and the mass
diffusivity will be same for most of the gases when
(A) both Prandtl and Schmidt numbers are equal to 1.2
(B) both Prandtl and Schmidt numbers are equal to 10.0
(C) both Prandtl and Schmidt numbers are equal to 0.1
(D) both Prandtl and Schmidt numbers are equal to 1.0
50. According to surface renewal theory, the average mass transfer
coefficient is directly proportional to
(A) DAB (B) (C) (D)
51. For the flow of a fluid at right angles to a circular cylinder, the
average heat transfer coefficient around the periphery is given by Nu = a + b
Re”‘ Pr”, where, Nu is Nusselt Number, Sh is Sherwood Number, Pr is Prandtl
Number, Sc is Schmidt Number and a, b, m, n are constants. The analogous
expression for the mass transfer can be expressed as
(A) Sh = a + b Re”‘ Sc” (B) Sh = b + a Re”‘ Sc”
(C) Nu = m + n Re” Scb (D) Nu = n + m Re” Scv
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 52 and 53: A horizontal spray chamber with recirculated water is used for adiabatic
humidification and cooling of air. Air with humidity of 0.01 kg water per kg of
dry air is entering the unit with a flow rate of 2 kg/m2-s. The humidity of exit
stream is 0.02 kg water per kg of dry air. The active part of the chamber is 1.0
m long. placementpapers.net The humidity at the saturated condition is 0.03 kg water per kg of dry
air.
52. The volumetric gas phase mass transfer coefficient in kg/m3-s in
the operation is equal to
(A) ln 2 (B) ln 3 (C) ln 4 (D) ln 5
53. If a duplicate spray chamber operating in the same manner were to
be added in series with the existing chamber, the expected humidity of the
outlet air in kg water per kg of dry air is equal to
(A) 0.03 (B) 0.02 (C) 0.025 (D) 0.05
54. A saturated liquid mixture with 50% (mole basis) of more volatile
component is to be separated in a continuous distillation column. The mole% of
more volatile component in the distillate is 90. The constant relative
volatility of more volatile component is 1.5. Assuming McCabe-Thiele method, the
minimum reflux ratio for this operation is
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 1
55. In a perfectly mixed flow model, the ratio of the Murphree plate
efficiency to the point efficiency is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) <> 1
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 56 and 57: A waste stream of organic vapor in a gas from a process was adsorbed by solid
particles in packed bed of length 20 cm. The breakpoint concentration is set at
C/C0 = 0.10 and the breakpoint time is 4 hours.
56. What will be the time equivalent to the unusable capacity of the
bed up to the breakpoint time?
(A) 3 hours (B) 1.5 hours (C) 4 hours (D) 3.6
hours
57. The stoichiometric capacity of the bed is 7.2 hours. What will be
the length of unused bed for this operation?
(A) 7.2 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 4 cm
58. In liquid-liquid extraction, the solvent B is used to separate
solute C from a given solution of A and C. If A and B are completely insoluble
in one another, the selectivity of B will be
(A) ∞ (B) 0 (C) <>
59. A batch of wet solid is to be dried from 80% to 50% moisture (wet
basis). The drying surface is 1 m2/10 kg of dried solid. The drying takes place
within the constant rate period. The constant flux of drying is 0.3 x 10-3
kg/m2-s. The drying time is
(A) 102 s (B) 103 s (C) 104 s (D) 105 s
60. A gas with a flow rate of 25 mol/m2.s is scrubbed by a pure liquid
to remove a component in a counter-current packed bed column. The specific
interfacial area of the packing material is 1 m-1. The individual gas-film mass
transfer coefficient is 25 mol/m2.s. If the overall mass transfer resistance is
50% of the individual gas-film mass transfer resistance, the overall height of
gas phase transfer unit (HTU)og is
(A) 0.5 m (B) 1.0 m (C) 2.0 m (D) 2.5 m
61. If L is the liquid flow rate. G is the gas flow rate and m is the
slope of the equilibrium line, the absorption factor is
(A) mL / G (B) G / mL (C) L / mG (D) LG / m
62. A vessel dispersion number of zero indicates
(A) plug flow behavior (B) mixed flow behavior
(C) batch reactor behavior (D) both (B) and (C)
64. A first order reaction takes place in a single cylindrical pore
having strong diffusion resistance. For a particle size (R), the rate of the
reaction varies
(A) directly with R
(B) directly with √R
(C) inversely with √R
(D) inversely with R
65. The response curve for a step input signal from a reactor is called
C curve. The variance of C curve in a `tank in series model’ comprising of `n’
tanks is
(A) n (B) 1/n (C) n0.5 (D) n2
66. Calculate the weight of the catalyst required for the 75%
conversion of sample A (CAO = 8 mol/m3) in a mixed flow reactor at a flow rate
of 1000 mole/min.
(The weight time of the operation is 4.15 kg s/m3)
(A) 500 kg (B) 519 kg (C) 525 kg (D) 600 kg
67. In an endothermic reaction, for an increase in temperature, the
equilibrium conversion
(A) rises (B) falls
(C) remains constant (D) first increases then
decreases
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 68 and 69: placementpapers.net Aqueous phase decomposition of A is investigated in two mixed flow reactors
in series. The second reactor is having twice the volume of the first reactor.
At steady state with a feed of 1 mole/litre and mean residence time of 96
seconds in first reactor, the concentration of A in the first reactor is 0.5
mol/litre and in the second 0.25 mol/litre.
68. The order of the reaction is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3
69. The rate constant (lit/mol-min) is
(A) 1.5 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1.25
70. For a zero order reaction in a varying volume batch reactor, the
correct equation is
72. For a particular reaction where order of the reaction is less than
one, the CORRECT sequence of reactors for efficient use is
(A) Small MFR, Large MFR, PFR (B) Large MFR, Small MFR,
PFR
(C) PFR, Large MFR. Small MFR (D) PFR, Small MFR, Large
MFR
73. The half-life period of the reaction A → products is independent of
the initial concentration of the reactant A if the order of the reaction is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 1/2
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 74 and 75: Chemical A reacts to form R (k1 = 8 hr-1) and chemical R reacts to form S (k2
= 3 hr-1). In addition R slowly decomposes to form T (k3 = 1 hr-1). A solution
containing 1 mol/litre of A is introduced into a batch reactor.
74. What is the maximum concentration of R (mol/lit)?
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.75 (D) 1.0
75. How long will it take (in hours) for R to reach its maximum
concentration?
(A) ln 2 (B) ln 2 (C) ln 2 (D) 2 1n 2
76. Ordinary mercury-in-glass thermometer (without any covering or air
gap) is an example of
(A) zero-order system (B) first-order system
(C)second-order system (D) third-order system
77. The symbol of the type __________ denotes
(A) Pneumatic line (B) Fluid pressure line
(C) Electrical line (D) Software link
78. The Laplace transform of sin (kt) is
(A) k /(s2 + k2) (B) s /(s2 + k2)
(C) k /(s2 – k2) (D) s /(s2 – k2)
79. A control system is unstable if the open loop frequency response
exhibits an amplitude ratio exceeding unity at the cross-over frequency. This is
(A) Bode stability criteria (B) Routh stability criteria
(C) Nyquist criteria (D) Root-locus criteria
80. What will be the maximum value of K(such that a closed loop system
having the following characteristic equation is stable ?
s3 + 6s2 + 11s + 6 (1+KC) = 0
(A) KC <>
81. The transfer function of a proportional-integral-derivative (PID)
controller is
(A) = KC (1 + τD S + τD S) (B) = KC + τD + τD S
(C) = KC (D) =
82. For the block diagram shown below what will be the overall transfer
function for the change in set point (U = 0)?
(A) = (B) =
|(C) = (D) =
83. The amplitude ratio (AR) for the sinusoidal response of a
first-order system is always
(A) <1>1 (C) 1 (D) 0
84. Solenoid valve works like
(A) Proportional controller (B) PD controller
(C) PID controller (D) On-off controller
85. The final product from a chemical plant is composed of two
materials A and B with some of each being required. The total cost per unit of
the finished product is CT = Rupees/unit. If the amount of A is fixed, the
amount of B required for minimum total cost of product is
(A) (B) (C) A/36 (D) 720A
86. Which of the following is NOT a function of baffle in the
shell-and-tube heat exchanger?
(A) Direct the flow across the tube bundle
(B} Support the tube from sagging
(C) Arrest the vibration of the tubes
(D) Decrease the turbulence of the fluid
87. Match the following:
(1) Microfiltration (P) Solution/diffusion
(2) Reverse Osmosis (Q) Size exclusion
(3) Distillation (R) Vapor/liquid
equilibria
(4) Stripping (S) Absorption
(A) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R. 4-S (B) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R, 4-S
(C) 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q (D) 1-R, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-P
88. What is the cross-flow area in the case of a shell-and-tube heat
exchanger where inside diameter of the shell is 5 m, baffle spacing 0.5 m,
clearance between the tubes 5 cm, outside diameter of the tube 10 cm and pitch
of the tube 2 cm?
(A) 12.5 m2 (B) 6.25 m2 (C) 22.5 m2 (D) 10 m2
89. A chemical company has purchased leaf pressure filters with 100 ft2
for purifying an inorganic liquid stream at the cost of Rs. 15000. In a similar
application the company will need 900 ft2 leaf pressure filter.
placementpapers.net The size
exponent of this type of filter is 0.5. The purchased price of the 900 ft2
filter will be
(A) Rs.135000 (B) Rs. 67500 (C) Rs. 45000
(D) Rs. 90000
90. Which of the following results in book values greater than those
obtained with the straight line method?
(A) Declining balance method (B) Sum-of-the
years digit method
(C) Multiple straight line method (D) Sinking fund
method
91. The Darcy’s law is used to calculate
(A)heat transfer coefficient
(B)friction factor in pipe flow
(C)permeability of porous medium
(D) vapor pressure in azeotropic mixtures
92. `Total capital investment’ for a chemical process plant comprises
of the fixed capital investment and the
(A) working capital (B) indirect production costs
(C) direct production costs (D) overhead costs
93. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for the manufacture
of sulfuric acid by contact process?
(A) Yield is higher than the chamber process
(B) Catalyst used is vanadium pentoxide on a porous carrier
(C) Final scrubbing is done using concentrated sulfuric acid only
(D) Optimization of space velocity in catalyst chamber is a major
engineering problem.
94. Match the following:
(1) Paper (P) Zeigler
(2) Soda ash (Q) Sachsse
(3) Polyethylene (R) Kraft
(4) Acetylene (S) Solvay
(A) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S (B) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
(C) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P (D) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
95. Match the following:
(1) Maleic anhydride (P) Ag0
(2) DDT (Q) NH3
(3) Ethylene oxide (R) V205
(4) Soda ash (S) Oleum
(A) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q (B) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P
(C) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P (D) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
96. Match the following:
(1) Parathion (P) Lead oxide
(2) Margarine (Q) Pesticide
(3) Litharge (R) Enzyme
(4) Lipase (S) Fat
(A) 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R (B) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P
(C) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R (D) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
97. Cetane number of diesel is the measure of its
(A) smoke point (B) ignition delay
(C) viscosity (D) oxidation stability
98. Choose the CORRECT statement from the following:
(A) Aromatics have lowest octane number
(B) Paraffins are the hardest to crack
(C) Dearomatisation of kerosene increases its smoke point
(D) Aniline point is a property of LPG
99. Choose the INCORRECT statement from the following:
(A) SBR compared to natural rubber has poor tensile strength
(B) Silicone is an inorganic polymer
(C) Nylon-6 is a polyamide
(D) Neoprene is an elastomer
100. Match the following:
(1) Permanent hardness of water (P)Steam distillation
(2) Alkyl group of detergent(Q)Cation/anion
exchanger
(3) Rancidity of oil (R)Hydrogenation
(4) Essential oil(S)Hydrophobic
1-Q, 2-R, 3-S, 4-P
(C) 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S (D) 1-S, 2-P,
3-R, 4-Qd
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