BSNL MANAGEMENT TRAINEE EXAM SYLLABUS

Scheme of examination and syllabus for Assessment Process:

All candidates will undergo a common multiple- choice type examination consisting of the following three sections with negative marking. :

Components	Marks	Duration
Section-I - Management Aptitude	150	1 hour
Section -II - Cognitive Ability	150	1 hour
Section-III - Technical knowledge	150	1 hour
Total	450	3 hours

The proposed syllabus for each of the three sections has been detailed below:

Section I- Management Aptitude

This section should gauge the ability of candidates on key management subjects such as economics, finance knowledge, operations, HR science etc. The syllabus for this section is as follows:

1. General Management

2. Management Information Systems

3. Managerial economics

4. Marketing

5. Accounting and Finance

6. Human Resources Management

7. Organizational Behavior

8. Strategic Management

9. Operations Management

10. Telecom knowledge

11. Current events of national and international importance

Section II – Cognitive Ability

This section should gauge overall cognitive ability of the candidate on parameters such as logical reasoning, verbal reasoning, reading & analysis etc. The syllabus for this section is as follows:

1. Quantitative ability & data sufficiency

2. Reasoning (e.g. analytical, logical, critical reasoning)

3. Verbal ability, reading comprehension and analysis

Section III- Technical knowledge

The syllabus for this section will be different for the different streams of recruitment i.e Telecom Operations & Telecom Finance

Syllabus for Telecom Operations stream:

1. Materials and Components	2. Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs
3. Signals and Systems	4. Network theory
5. Electromagnetic Theory	6.Electronic Measurements and Instrumentation
7. Analog Electronic Circuits	8. Digital Electronic Circuits
9. Control Systems	10. Communication Systems
11. Microwave Engineering	12. Computer Engineering
13. Power Electronics.

Syllabus for Telecom Finance stream:

1. Financial Management (an overview)	2. Cost Accounting
3. Financial Management in Public Sector Enterprises	4. Advanced Accounting
5. Principles of Taxation (Tax Laws)	6. Financial Statements
7. Companies Act 1956 (with amendments)	8. Auditing
9. Bare Acts

BSNL TTA EXAM PAPER

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BSNL TTA Exam

BSNL TTA Exam

Paper - II (Basic Engineering) BSNL TTA Exam

1. X² - 4X - 2Y + Y² = 4 represents a circle with

(a) radius = 3

(b) radius = 4

(c) radius = 2

(d) radius = 5

2. Which of these represent two parallel lines:

(a) Y - 4X - 4 = 0

(b) Y + AX - 4 = 0

(c) Y - 4X - 1 =0

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i) and (iii)

(c) (ii) and (iii)

(d) None of these.

3. The conjugate of complex numbers 3 + 2j is

(a) 3 - 2j

(b) 2 + 3j

(c) 2 - 3j

(d) 3 + 4j

4. A Square matrix each of whose diagonal element is 1 and each of the non-diagonal element is zero is called

(a) Null matrix

(b) Unit matrix

(c) Diagonal matrix

(d) Orthogonal matrix

5. The determinant of matrix is

(a) 1

(b) 9

(c) 15

(d) 21

6. The charge of an electron is equal to

(a) 1.6 x 10^-16 C

(b) -1.6 x 10^-16 C

(c) 1.6 x 10¹⁹ C

(d) -1.6 x 1019 C

7. The potential energy of a charged conductor is

(a) 1/2 CV²

(b) 1/2 QV

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

8. Capacitors are mainly used in

(a) Electrical instruments

(b) Storage of electrical energy

(c) Overcoming voltage fluctuations

(d) All the above

9. Two capacities of 4 µF and 12 µF are joined in parallel. The total capacitance is

(a) 8 µF

(b) 16 µF

(c) 3 µF

(f) 2 µF

10. What is the total resistance between points 'A' and 'B' in the given circuit

(a) 12/7 O

(b) 15 O

(c) 7 O

(d) 7/12 O

11. A current of 12 A is passing through a pure resistive circuit when the potential difference of 60 volts is applied across it, if the potential difference applied is reduced to 12 V, the current would be

(a) 12/5 A

(b) 60 A

(c) 12 A

(d) 2 A

12. Which of these normally used household electrical bulbs will be having maximum resistance.

(a) 100 Watt bulb

(b) 50 Watt bulb

(c) 200 Watt bulb

(d) 25 Watt bulb

13.The distance of point P (4, 3) from the origin will be

(a) 7

(b) 1

(c) 5

(d) 9

14. The slope of the line passing from points (7, 3) and (5, 1) is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

15. A line perpendicular to line 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 can be

(a) 4x + 3y + 4 = 0

(b) 4x - 3y + 3 = 0

(c) 3x - 4y + 5 = 0

(d) 3x - 4y + 2 = 0.

16. The centre of the circle x² + 6x - 4y + y² + 12 = 0 will be at

(a) (-3, 2)

(b) (3, -2)

(c) (-2, 3)

(d) (2, -3)

17. The product of (3 + 4j) and its conjugate is

(a) 7

(b) 25

(c) 12

(d) 21

18. During charging of a lead acid cell, the specific gravity of electrolyte will

(a) Increase

(b) Decrease

(c) Remain constant

(d) Increase then Decrease

19. The decimal number '12' is represented in binary system as

(a) 1100

(b) 0110

(c) 1010

(d) 1110

20. What is the value of current that will flow when a p. d. 200 V is applied across a circuit of 50 O resistance?

(a) 4 A

(b) 0.4 A

(c) 10 A

(d) 1 A

21. If both the inputs to a Nand Gate are '1', the output would be

(a) 1

(b) 0

22. If input 'A' is 1 and input 'B' is 0, then output X will be

(a) 0

(b) 1

23. The truth-table of a Nand Gate is

(a)

A	B	X
0	0	1
0	1	1
1	0	1
1	1	0

(b)

A	B	X
0	0	0
0	1	0
1	0	0
1	1	1

(c)

A	B	X
0	0	0
0	1	1
1	0	0
1	1	1

(d) None of these

24. IC chip is usually made of

(a) Lead

(b) Silicon

(c) Chromium.

(d) None of these.

25. Below given network is connected to a 16 V battery with internal resistance of 1 O. What will be current drawn from the battery?

(a) 2 A

(b) 3 A

(c) 12/7 A

(d) 7/12 A

26.Determine the equivalent resistance of the following network:

(a) 6 O

(b) 12 O

(c) 3 O

(d) 9 O.

27. A Zener diode is

(a) Forward biased heavily doped silicon p-n junction

(b) Reversed biased heavily doped silicon p-n junction

(c) Forward biased diode operating at breakdown point

(d) Is used as rectifying device

28. Crystal oscillator is used when frequency required is

(a) High

(b) Low

(c) Constant

(d) Varying.

29. What is the energy in a quantum of radiation having a wave length of 5000 A?

(a) 3.98 x 10^-19 J

(b) 3.98 x 10-⁹ J

(c) 2.9 x 10^-19 J

(d) 7.9 x 10^-19 J.

30. Which of these cannot store energy?

(a) Capacitor

(b) Inductor

(c) Resistance

(d) LC circuit.

31. A short bar of magnet placed with its axis at 30⁰ with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.16 T experiences a torque of magnitude 0.032 J. What is the magnetic moment of the magnet?

(a) 0.40 JT^-1

(b) 4.0 JT^-1

(c) 0.04 JT^-1

(d) 0.2 JT^-1

32. The total force on a charge 'q' with velocity "V" in an electric field 'E' and magnetic field 'B' will be

(a) q (E + V x B)

(b) q(E + V.B)

(c) qE + VxB

(d) q(B + V x E)

33. The magnetic field B at the centre of a circular current loop of radius 'a' is given by

(a) B =µ₀ I/2a

(b) B = µ₀ I/a

(c) B = 2µ₀ I/a

(d)B = µ₀ a/2I

34. If f = x² + 4xy + y² + 9, then which of the following is not true:

(a) ?f/?x = 2x + 4y

(b) ?f/?y = 4x + 2y

(c) ?²f/?x² = 2

(d) ?²f/?x?y = 4

35. A hollow metal ball 8 cm in diameter is given a charge of - 4 x 10^-8 C. The potential on the surface of the ball is

(a) - 9000 V

(b) - 900 V

(c) - 90 V

(d) Zero.

36. The effective capacitance between X and Y is

(a) 8/3 µF

(b) 7/6 µF

(c) 5/6 µF

(d) 2 µF.

37. The amount of work done is joules in carrying a charge + Q alongwith path ABCD and back to A between two oppositely charged plates is:

(a) Q

(b) 4Q

(c)Q/2

(d) Zero.

38. How many electrons are contained in 1C?

(a) 6.25 x 10¹⁸

(b) 6.25 x 10¹⁹

(c) 6.25 x 10²⁰

(d) 6.25 x 10²¹

39. The phase angle between voltage and current in an a. c. circuit through a pure capacitance is

(a) 180°

(b) 90°

(c) 60°

(d) 0°

40. The permeability of a material is 0.998. It is:

(a) Diamagnetic

(b) Paramagnetic

(c) Ferromagnetic

(d) Anti ferromagnetic.

41. The ratio of the specific charge of an electron to that of a positron is

(a) 1:1

(b) 1:2

(c) 2:1

(d) 4:1.

42. With increase in temperature, the electrical conductivity of intrinsic semiconductor

(a) Increases

(b) Decreases

(c) First increases then decreases

(d) First decreases then increases.

43. In a common collector circuit, input resistance is:

(a) Very high

(b) Very low

(c) Zero

(d) Moderate.

44. A electron jumps from the 4th orbit to the 2nd orbit of hydrogen atom. If R = 10⁷/m, the frequency of emitted radiations will be

(a) 3/16 x 10⁵ Hz

(b) 3/16 x 10¹⁵ Hz

(c) 9/16 x 10¹⁵ Hz

(d) 3/4 x 10¹⁵ Hz.

45. I amu. equals

(a) 1.67 x 10^-27 g

(b) 1.67 x 10^-28 g

(c) 1.67 x 10^-29 g

(d) 1.67 x 10^-27 kg

46. A tuning fork produces 4 beats/sec both with 50 and 40 cms of a stretched wire of a sonometer. The frequency of the tuning fork is

(a) 36 Hz

(b) 50 Hz

(c) 90Hz

(d) 110 Hz

47. A particle is executing SHM with an amplitude 4 cm. At what displacement its energy is half kinetic and half potential

(a) 2v2cm

(b) v2 cm

(c) 2 cm

(d) 1 cm.

48. An electron moves with a constant velocity V parallel to the direction of uniform magnetic field 'B'. The force experienced by the electron is

(a) BeV

(b) eV/B

(c)B/eV

(d) Zero.

49.A charged particle is moving along the axis of X. If an electric field is applied along the axis of Y, the motion of the particle in Y-Y plane will be

(a) Elliptical

(b) Parabolic

(c) Circular

(d) Linear

50. An electric or magnetic field cannot accelerate

(a) Electrons

(b) Protons

(c) Neutrons

(d) Alpha particles

BSNL TTA SAMPLE PAPER

BSNL TTA SAMPLE PAPER

1. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -

a) It is dimensionless

b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum

c)) It?s value for all substances is less than one

d)) None

2. Pure metals generally have-

a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient

b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient

c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient

d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is

a) Air

b) Ferrite

c) Powdered ion

d) Steel

4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-

a) C a V1/3

b) C a V-1/3

c) C a V1/2

d) C a V-1/2

5. A superconductor is a-

a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature

b) A conductor having zero resistance

c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility

d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of ?2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-

a) Thermistor

b) Forward biased pn junction diode

c) Reverse biased pn junction diode

d) FET

7. The location of lightning arrestor is -

a) Near the transformer

b) Near the circuit breaker

c) Away from the transformer

d) None

8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -

a) Increased

b) Decreased

c) Neither a nor b

d) Both a and b
9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -

a) Are available locally

b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from

c) Have more electrons than holes

d) Have zero energy gaps

10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -

a) Channel resistance

b) Size of depletion regions

c) Voltage drop across channel

d) Gate reverse bias
11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -

a) 1010

b) 105

c) 10-4

d) 10-6

12. When biased correctly, a zener diode ?

a) acts as a fixed resistance

b) has a constant voltage across it

c) has a constant current passing through it

d) never overheats
13. The current amplification factor adc is given by ?

a) IC/IE

b) IC/IB

c) IB/IC

d) IB/IC

14. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-

a) high input impedance

b) low input impedance

c) same input impedance

d) none

15. The source-drain channel of JFET is -

a) ohmic

b) bilateral

c) unilateral

d) both a and b

16. diac is equivalent to a -

a) Pair of SCRs

b) Pair of four layer SCRs

c) Diode and two resistors

d) Triac width
17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ? 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ? 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be ?

a) 106/cm3

b) 103/ cm3

c) 1010/ cm3

d) 1012/ cm3

18. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero? represents -

a) Kirchhoff’s law

b) Norton’s theorem

c) Thevenin’s theorem

d) Superposition theorem

19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is ?

a) TE1 mode

b) TM01 mode

c) TE01 mode

d) Higher order mode
20. A two-port network is symmetrical if ?

a) z11z22 ? z12z21 = 1

b) h11h22 ? h12h21 = 1

c) AD ? BC = 1

d) y11y22 ? y12y21 = 1

21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-

a) balun

b) broad band directional coupler

c) double stub

d) single stub of adjustable position

22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -

a) by an LC network

b) as an RC driving point impedance

c) as an RC driving point admittance

d) only by an RLC network

23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements ?

a) R and C

b) L and C

c) R and L

d) R, L and C

24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to ?

a) B

b) Z12

d) h12

25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-

a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.

b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.

c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.

d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -

a) 250 ?300 MHz

b) 150 ? 200 MHz

c) 90 ? 105 MHz

d) 30-70 MHz

27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -

a) Inductive loading

b) Resistive loading

c) Capacitive loading

d) Shielding

28. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -

a) 49 W

b) 60 W

c) 70 W

d) 140 W

30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be ?

a) 25W

b) 50W

c) 100W

d) 150W

31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ?f? in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-

a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m

b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m

c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m

d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f
32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -

a) 0.4456 0

b) 1.44560

c) 2.44560

d) 3.44560

33. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -

a) Polystyrene

b) Glass of low refractive index

c) Paraboloid surfaces

d) Dielectric media having large refractive index

34. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -

a) Electrodynamometer

b) PMMC

c) Electrostatic

d) Moving iron

35. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?

a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A

b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A

c) A dc ammeter will read 10A

d) A dc ammeter will read zero
36. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -

a) power factor of the circuit is high

b) impedance of the circuit is high

c) bandwidth is large

d) none of these

37. The resolution of a logic analyser is -

a) the maximum number of input channels

b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture

c) it’s internal clock period

d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display
38. A memoryless system is ?

a) causal

b) not causal

c) nothing can be said

d) none

39. An air capacitor is a ?

a) time variant

b) active device

c) time invariant

d) time invariant and passive device

40. Thermistors are made of -

a) pure metals

b) pure insulators

c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides

d) pure semiconductor

41. Pirani gauge is used to measure ?

a) very low pressures

b) high pressures

c) pressures in the region of 1 atm

d) fluid flow

42. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion ?

a) AC voltage controllers

b) Cyclo converters

c) Phase controlled rectifiers

d) Inverters

43. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from ?

a) off state to on state

b) on state to off state

c) on state to on state

d) off state to off state
44. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -

a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage

b) peak working off state forward voltage

c) peak working off state reverse voltage

d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage

45. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-

a) is a straight line passing through origin

b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg

c) is a curve between Vg and Ig

d) has a spread between two curves of Vg ? Ig

46. A four quadrant operation requires-

a) two full converters in series

b) two full converters connected back to back

c) two full converters connected in parallel

d) two semi converters connected back to back
47. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are ?

a) Vs, P

b) Vs/2, P

c) 2Vs, 2P

d) 2Vs, P

48. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has ?

a) only an ohmic region

b) only a saturation region

c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages

d)an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages

49. The energy gap in a semiconductor -

a) increases with temperature

b) remains constant

c) slightly increase with temperature

d) decrease with temperature
50. In an electronic circuit matching means -

a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance

b) selection of components which are compatible

c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.

d) RC coupled stages
51. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because

a) They have higher input impedance

b) They have high switching time

c) They consume less power

d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes

52. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -

a) Increase in ICEO

b) Increase in ac current gain

c) Decrease in ac current gain

d) Increase in output resistance

53. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is -

a) 13. 3 KHz

b) 30KHz

c) 10KHz

d) 40KHz

54. The output of a class B amplifier -

a) is distortion free

b) consists of positive half cycles only

c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier

d) comprises short duration current pulses
55. An amplifier with negative feedback -

a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency

b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency

c) increases its bandwidth

d) all of the above
56. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -

a) Block becomes redundant

b) A FM detector would be required

c) A high frequency signal generator

d) An additional local oscillator will be needed

57. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-

a) greater speed

b) slower speed

c) average speed

d) none of the above

58. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by ?

a) Dt = N ? Fc

b) Dt = N ? 1/Fc

c) Dt = 1/N ? Fc

d) Dt = N ? 1/Fc
59. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be ?

(y denotes don’t care)

a) y and 0

b) y and 1

c) 0 and y

d) 1 and y

60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of ?

a) a flip flop

b) a transistor acting as a capacitor

c) a transistor

d) a capacitance
61. The 2′s complement of 10002 is ?

a) 0111

b) 0101

c) 1000

d) 0001

62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of ?

a) two flip flops connected in series

b) two flip flops connected in parallel

c) a debouncer circuit

d) a-D- latch
63. Number of nybbles making one byte is ?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 16

64. The intrinsic impedance of free space-

a) is independent of frequency

b) decreases with increase of frequency

c) increases with increase of frequency

d) varies as square root of frequency
65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -

a) ?200 dB/decade

b) ?240 dB/decade

c) ?230 dB/decade

d) ?320 dB/decade

66. Considering the conditions-

1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing

3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin

System stability requirements would include

a) 1 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 1 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4

67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides ?

a) 24 hour orbit

b) stationary satellite

c) global communication

d) zero-gravity environs
68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of ?

a) space multiplexing

b) time multiplexing

c) frequency multiplexing

d) none of the above
69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a ?

a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone

b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF

c) A differentiator followed by a LPF

d) A clipper circuit by a LPF
70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using ?

a) AND gates

b) Band pass

c) differentiation

d) Integration
71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-

a) frequency shift keying

b) two ? tone modulation

c) pulse code modulation

d) single tone modulation
72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-

a) FM generation only

b) 100AM generation only

c) PM generation only

d) both PM and AM generation

73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-

a) reduce x-ray emission

b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots

c) increase screen brightness

d) provide degaussing for the screen
74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-

a) the keyed AGC amplifar

b) a clipper

c) an integrator

d) a sawtooth current

75. Band width of microwaves is-

a) 1GHz -103 GHz

b) 1GHz ?100 GHz

c) 1 GHz ?10 GHz

d) 1 GHz ? 106 GHz

76. In transverse Magnetic mode-

a) no electric line is in direction of propagation

b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation

c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation

d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation
77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to ?

a) Reforction of wave

b) Reflection of wave

c) Pierus through Inosphere

d) None

78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be ?

a) 600

b) 900

c) 1800

d) 3600

79. The transmission does not have -

a) Partition noise

b) Flicker noise

c) resistance

d) Short noise

80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -

a) capacitance

b) Inductance

c) Resistance

d) Is a linear device
81. Noise figure is calculated as ?

a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio

b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio

c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100

d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by ?

a) Nicholas chart

b) Nyquist plot

c) Bode plot

d) Root locus.
83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-

a) ?5, 1

b) ?2.5, 1

c) ?5,0-5

d) ?5, 2

84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by

The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-

a) zero and 1

b) zero and 10

c) 10 and zero

d) 70 and 80

85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to ?

a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links

b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal

c) minimize free-space losses

d) maximize antenna gain
86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-

a) EIRP

b) Antenna size

c) Coverage area

d) Antenna gain

87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-

a) horizontal blanking

b) vertical blanking

c) the serrations

d) the horizontal retrace
88. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-

a) washed

b) inherited

c) admired

d) attempt

60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of ?

a) a flip flop

b) a transistor acting as a capacitor

c) a transistor

d) a capacitance
61. The 2′s complement of 10002 is ?

a) 0111

b) 0101

c) 1000

d) 0001

62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of ?

a) two flip flops connected in series

b) two flip flops connected in parallel

c) a debouncer circuit

d) a-D- latch
63. Number of nybbles making one byte is ?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 16

64. The intrinsic impedance of free space-

a) is independent of frequency

b) decreases with increase of frequency

c) increases with increase of frequency

d) varies as square root of frequency
65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -

a) ?200 dB/decade

b) ?240 dB/decade

c) ?230 dB/decade

d) ?320 dB/decade

66. Considering the conditions-

1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing

3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin

System stability requirements would include

a) 1 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 1 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4

67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides ?

a) 24 hour orbit

b) stationary satellite

c) global communication

d) zero-gravity environs
68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of ?

a) space multiplexing

b) time multiplexing

c) frequency multiplexing

d) none of the above
69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a ?

a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone

b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF

c) A differentiator followed by a LPF

d) A clipper circuit by a LPF
70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using ?

a) AND gates

b) Band pass

c) differentiation

d) Integration
71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-

a) frequency shift keying

b) two ? tone modulation

c) pulse code modulation

d) single tone modulation
72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-

a) FM generation only

b) 100AM generation only

c) PM generation only

d) both PM and AM generation

73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-

a) reduce x-ray emission

b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots

c) increase screen brightness

d) provide degaussing for the screen

74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-

a) the keyed AGC amplifar

b) a clipper

c) an integrator

d) a sawtooth current

75. Band width of microwaves is-

a) 1GHz -103 GHz

b) 1GHz ?100 GHz

c) 1 GHz ?10 GHz

d) 1 GHz ? 106 GHz

76. In transverse Magnetic mode-

a) no electric line is in direction of propagation

b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation

c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation

d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation
77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to ?

a) Reforction of wave

b) Reflection of wave

c) Pierus through Inosphere

d) None

78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be ?

a) 600

b) 900

c) 1800

d) 3600

79. The transmission does not have -

a) Partition noise

b) Flicker noise

c) resistance

d) Short noise

80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -

a) capacitance

b) Inductance

c) Resistance

d) Is a linear device
81. Noise figure is calculated as ?

a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio

b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio

c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100

d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by ?

a) Nicholas chart

b) Nyquist plot

c) Bode plot

d) Root locus.
83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-

a) ?5, 1

b) ?2.5, 1

c) ?5,0-5

d) ?5, 2

84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by

The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-

a) zero and 1

b) zero and 10

c) 10 and zero

d) 70 and 80

85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to ?

a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links

b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal

c) minimize free-space losses

d) maximize antenna gain
86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-

a) EIRP

b) Antenna size

c) Coverage area

d) Antenna gain

87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-

a) horizontal blanking

b) vertical blanking

c) the serrations

d) the horizontal retrace
88. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-

a) washed

b) inherited

c) admired

d) attempt

89. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-

a) water

b) stone

c) air

d) hills

90. What is a collection of sheep called ?

a) bunch

b) flock

c) herd

d) comet

91. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :

You can buy a book. You can read it.

a) and

b) nor

c) either

d) neither

92. What is the opposite of Asperity ?

a) gentility

b) superiority

c) kindness

d) clarity

93. The Election Commission functions under-

a) Ministry of Home Affairs

b) Ministry of Law

c) Prime Minister’s Secretariat

d) None of these
94. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-

a) President’s Rule is to be imposed

b) Emergency is declared

c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry

d) A political party of national level is to be banned
95. Radio-activity was first discovered by-

a) Becquerel

b) Madam Curie

c) Rutherford

d) Jenner

96. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-

a) 1995-2000

b) 1996-2001

c) 1997-2002

d) 1998-2003

97. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?

a) 5,000 MW

b) 10,000 MW

c) 15,000 MW

d) 20,000 MW

98. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?

a) 1769

b) 1789

c) 1889

d) 1869

99. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?

a) 1/10th of total membership

b) 1/6th of total membership

c) 1/4th of total membership

d) 1/5th of total membership
100. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?

a) 6

b) 7

c) 9

d) 10

JTO 2008 Cut-off

JTO 2008 Cut-off


General Category - Sectional (Technical/General Studies) & Over All Cut Off Marks


Section Sec-1 Sec-2 Sec-3 (G.S.) Overall Cut-Off
Sectional Cut-Off 29.00 29.00 6.50 67.50


SC- Category - Sectional (Technical/General Studies) & Over All Cut Off Marks


Section Sec-1 Sec-2 Sec-3 (G.S.) Overall Cut-Off
Sectional Cut-Off 23.50 23.50 5.75 55.75


ST- Category - Sectional (Technical/General Studies) & Over All Cut Off Marks


Section Sec-1 Sec-2 Sec-3 (G.S.) Overall Cut-Off
Sectional Cut-Off 23.50 23.50 6.00 56.00


OBC- Category - Sectional (Technical/General Studies) & Over All Cut Off Marks


Section Sec-1 Sec-2 Sec-3 (G.S.) Overall Cut-Off
Sectional Cut-Off 26.25 27.00 7.50 63.00

BSNL JTO EXAM SYLLABUS

BSNL JTO EXAM SYLLABUS


1. TELECOM BRANCH 2. CIVIL BRANCH 3. ELECTRICAL
Pattern of syllabus: The whole syllabus will carry
Two section of Technical subjects and General Ability Test.
NOTE: General Ability Test are common for all branch (TELECOM ,CIVIL ,ELECTRICAL )

Syllabus: TELECOM BRANCH

SECTION – I (Total = 50 Question )
1. Materials and Components
Structure and properties of Electronic Engineering materials, Conductors, Semiconductors and
Insulators, Magnetic, Ferroelectric, Piezoelectric, Ceramic, Optical and Superconducting materials.
Passive components and characteristics, Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors; Ferrites, Quartz crystal,
Ceramic resonators, Electromagnetic and Electromechanical components.
2. Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs
Electrons and holes in semiconductors, Carrier Statistics, Mechanics of current flow in a semi-conductor,
Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their characteristics; Bipolar Junction
transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching devices like SCRs, CTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of
ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS types; Basics of Opto Electronics.
3. Network Theory
Network analysis techniques: Network theorem, transient and steady state sinusoidal response,
Transmission criteria: delay and rise time Elmore's and other definition, effect of cascading. Elements of
network synthesis.
4. Electromagnetic Theory
Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, micro strip lines; Basics of
waveguides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.
5. Electronic Measurements and instrumentation
Basic concepts, standards and error analysis; Measurements of basic electrical quantities and
parameters; Electronic measuring instruments and their principles of working: analog and digital,
comparison, characteristics, applications. Transducers; Electronic measurements of non-electrical
quantities like temperature, pressure, humidity etc. Basics of telemetry for industrial use.
6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices, Thyristor, Power transistor, MOSFETs, Characteristics and operation. AC
to DC convertors; 1-Phase and 3-phase DC to DC Convertors.
AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors, switched capacitor networks.
Inverters: Single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform
sampling. Switched mode power supplies.

JTO Telecom SECTION – II (Total = 50 Question )
1. Analog Electronic Circuits
Transistor biasing and stabilization, Small Signal analysis. Power amplifiers. Frequency response, Wide
band techniques, Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers. Oscillators. Rectifiers and power supplies.
Operational Amplifier, other linear integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and
waveform generators.
2. Digital Electronic Circuits
Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean functions, Karnaugh Map
and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics; IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS
and CMOS gates and their comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, full adder; Digital
Compartor; Multiplexer Demultiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops, R-S, J-K, D and T flip-flops;
Different types of counters and registers; waveform generators. A/D and D/A convertors.
Semiconductor memories.
3. Control Systems
Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on stability and sensitivity,
Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis. Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M
and Constant-N Nichol's Chart; Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol's Chart;
Approximation of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control Systems,
Compensators; Industrial controllers.
4. Communication Systems
Basic information theory: Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems; Sampling and data
reconstruction. Quantization & Coding; Time division and frequency division multiplexing; Equalization;
Optical Communication: in free space & fibre optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and
microwave frequency; Satellite communication.
5. Microwave Engineering
Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers, Waveguides and other
Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits, Microwave antennas, Microwave
Measurements, MASERS LASERS; Microwave Propagation. Microwave Communication Systemsterrestrial
and satellite based.
6. Computer Engineering
Number Systems; Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level programming language
PASCAL/C; use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer architecture processor design;
Control unit design; Memory organization. I/O System Organization. Personal computers and their
typical uses.
7. Microprocessors
Microprocessor architecture - Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing
for memory and I/O. Applications of Microprocessors in Telecommunications and power system.

CIVIL BRANCH
JTO Civil SECTION – I (Total = 50 Question )
1. Building Material:
Timber: Different types and species of structural timber, density-moisture relationship, strength in
different directions, defects, influence of defects on permissible stress, preservation, dry and wet rots,
plywood, codal provision for design.
Bricks: Types, Indian standard classification, absorption, saturation factor, strength in masonry,
influence of mortar strength and masonary strength.
Cement: Compounds, different types, setting times, strength.
Cement Mortar: Ingredients, proportions, water demands, mortar for plastering and masonry.
Concrete: Importance of W/C ratio, strength, ingredients including admixtures, workability, testing,
elasticity, non-destructive testing mix design method.
2. Solid Mechanics
Elastic constants, stress, plane stress, Mohr's circle of stress, strains, plain strain, Mohr's circle of strain,
combined stress. Elastic theories of Failure, simple and shear bending, Torsion of circular and
rectangular section and simple members.
3. Structural Analysis
Analysis of determinate structures- different methods including graphical methods. Analysis of
indeterminate skeletal frames- moment distribution, slope deflection, stiffness and force methods,
energy methods. Muller-Breslau principal and application. Plastic analysis of indeterminate beams and
simple frames-shape factors.
4. Design of Steel Structures
Principle of working stress method. Design of connections of simple members. Built up sections and
frames. Design of Industrial roofs. Principles of ultimate load design. Design of members and frames.
5. Design of Concrete and Masonry Structures
Limit state design for bending, shear, axial compression and combined forces, Codal provisions for slabs,
beams, walls and footings. Working stress method of design of R.C. members.
Principles of pre-stressed concrete design, material, method of pre-stressing losses. Design of simple
members and determinates structures. Introductions to pre-stressing of indeterminate structures.
Design of brick masonary as per I.S. codes.
6. Construction Practice, Planning and Management
Concreting Equipment:
Weight batcher, Mixer, vibrator, batching plant, concrete pump.
Cranes, hoists, lifting equipment.
Earthwork Equipment:
Power shovel, hoe, dozer, dumper, trailers and tractors, rollers, sheep foot rollers, pumps.
Construction, planning and Management:
Bar chart, linked bar chart, work break down structures, Activity-on-arrow diagrams. Critical path,
probabilistic activity durations; Event-based networks.
PERT network: Time-cost study, crashing; Resource allocation.
JTO Civil SECTION – II (Total = 50 Question )
1.(a) Fluid Mechanics, Open Channel, Pipe Flow
Fluid properties, pressure, thrust, Buoyancy, Flow Kinematics, integration, of flow equation, Flow
measurement, Relative motion, Moment of momentum, Viscosity, Boundary layer and control, Drag,
Lift, Dimensional analysis, Modelling, Cavitations, Flow oscillations, Momentum and Energy principles, in
open cannel flow, Flow control, Hydraulic jump, Flow section and properties, Normal flow, Gradually
varied flow, Flow development and losses in pipe flows, Measurements, Siphons, Surges and Water
hammer, Delivery of Power Pipe networks.
(b) Hydraulic Machines and Hydropower
Centrifugal pumps, performance parameters, scaling, pumps in parallel, Reciprocating pumps, air
vessels, performance parameters;
2.(a) Hydrology:
Hydrological cycle, precipitation and related data analysis, PMP, unit and synthetic hydrographs,
Evaporation and transpiration, floods and their management, PMG, Streams and their gauging, .River
morphology. Rooting of floods, Capacity of reservoirs.
(b) Water Resources Engineering
Water resources of the globe: Multipurpose uses of Water, Soil Plant water relationships, irrigation
systems, water demand assessment, Storage and their yields, ground water yield and well Hydraulics,
Water logging, drainage design, Irrigation revenue, Design of rigid boundary canals, Lacy' and Tractive
force concepts in canal design, lining of canals; Sediment transport in canals; Non-Overflow and
overflow sections of gravity dams and their design, Energy dissipaters and tail water rating, Design of
head works, distribution work, falls, cross-drainage work, outlets, River training.
ENVIRONMENT ENGINEERING
3.(a) Water Supply Engineering
Sources of supply, yield, design of intakes and conductors, Estimation of demand, Water quality
standards, Control of water born diseases. Primary and secondary treatment, detailing and maintenance
of treatment units. Conveyance and distribution systems of treated water, leakage and control, Rural
water supply, Institutional and Industrial water supply.
(b) Waste Water Engineering
Urban rain water disposal, system of sewage collection and disposal, Design of sewers and sewerages
systems, pumping, Characteristic of sewage and its treatment, Disposal of products of sewage
treatment, stream flow rejuvenation, Institutional and industrial sewage management, plumbing
system, Rural and semi-urban sanitation.
(c) Solid Waste Management
Sources, classification, collection and disposal, Design and Management of landfills.
(d) Air and Noise Pollution and Ecology
Sources and effects of air pollution, monitoring of Air pollution, Noise-pollution and standards;
Ecological Chain and balance, Environmental assessment.
4.(a) Soil Mechanics
Properties of soils, classification and interrelationship, Compaction behaviour, method of compaction
and their choice, Permeability and seepage, flow nets, Inverter filters, Compressibility and consolidation
,shearing resistance, stresses and failure, SO testing in laboratory and in-situ, Stress path and
applications, Earth pressure theories, stress distribution in soil, soil exploration, samplers, load tests
,penetration tests.
(b) Foundation Engineering
Type of foundations, Selection criteria, bearing capacity, settlement, laboratory and field test, Types of
piles and their design and layout, Foundations on expansive soils, swelling and it prevention , foundation
on swelling soils.
5.(a) Surveying
Classification of surveys, scales, accuracy, Measurement of distances-direct and indirect methods,
optical and electronic devices, Measurement of directions, prismatic compass, local attraction,
Theodolites-types Measurement of elevations, Spirit and trigonometric levelling, Relief representation,
Contours, Digital elevation modelling concept, Establishment of control by triangulations and traversing
measurements and adjustment of observations, computation of coordinates, Field astronomy, concept
of global positioning system, Map preparation by plane tabling and by photogrammetry, Remote sensing
concepts, map substitutes.
(b) Transportation Engineering
Planning of highway systems, alignment and geometric design, horizontal and vertical curves, grade
separation, Materials and construction methods for different surfaces and maintenance, Principles of
pavement design, Drainage.
Traffic surveys, intersections, signalling, Mass transit systems, accessibility, networking.
Planning of railway systems, terminology and designs, relating to gauge, track controls, transits, rolling
stock, tractive power and track modernization, Maintenance Appurtenant works, Containerisation.

ELECTRICAL BRANCH
JTO Electrical SECTION – I (Total = 50 Question )

1. EM Theory
Electric and magnetic fields. Gauss's Law and Amperes Law. Fields in dielectrics, conductors and
magnetic materials. Maxwell's equations. Time varying fields. Plane-Wave propagating in dielectric and
conducting media. Transmission lines.
2. Electrical Materials
Band Theory, Conductors, Semi-conductors. and Insulators. Superconductivity. Insulators for electrical
and electronic applications. Magnetic materials. Ferro and ferri magnetism. Ceramics, Properties and
applications. Hall effect and its applications. Special semi conductors.
3. Electrical Circuits
Circuits elements. Kirchoff's Laws. Mesh and nodal analysis. Network Theorems and applications.
Natural response and forced response. Transient response and steady state response for arbitrary
inputs. Properties of networks in terms of poles and zeros. Transfer function. Resonant circuits. Three
phase circuits. Two-port networks. Elements of two-element network synthesis.
4. Measurements and Instrumentation
Units and Standards. Error analysis, measurement of current, Voltage, power, Power-factor and energy.
Indicating instruments. Measurement of resistance, inductance, Capacitance and frequency. Bridge
measurements. Electronic measuring instruments. Digital Voltmeter and frequency counter.
Transducers and their applications to the measurement of non-electrical quantities like temperature,
pressure, flow-rate displacement, acceleration, and noise level etc. Data acquisition systems. AID and
D/A converters.
5. Control System
Mathematical modelling of physical systems. Block diagrams and signal flow graphs and their reduction.
Time domain and frequency domain analysis of linear dynamical system. Errors for different type of
inputs and stability criteria for feedback systems. Stability analysis using Routh-Hurwitz array, Nyquist
plot and Bode plot. Root locus and Nicols chart and the estimation of gain and phase margin. Basic
concepts of compensator design. State variable matrix and its use in system modelling and design.
Sampled data system and performance of such a system with the samples in the error channel. Stability
of sampled data system. Elements of non-linear control analysis. Control system components,
electromechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic components
JTO Electrical SECTION – II (Total = 50 Question )

1. Electrical Machines and Power Transformers
Magnetic Circuits - Analysis and Design of Power transformers. Construction and testing. Equivalent
circuits. Losses and efficiency. Regulation. Auto-transformer, 3-phase transformer. Parallel operation.
Basic concepts in rotating machines. EMF, torque, basic machine types. Construction and operation,
leakage losses and efficiency.
D.C. Machines. Construction, Excitation methods. Circuit models. Armature reaction and commutation.
Characteristics and performance analysis. Generators and motors. Starting and speed control. Testing,
Losses and efficiency.
Synchronous Machines. Construction. Circuit model. Operating characteristics and performance analysis.
Synchronous reactance. Efficiency. Voltage regulation. Salient-pole machine, Parallel operation. .
tiunting. Short circuit transients.
Induction Machines. Construction. Principle of operation. Rotating fields. Characteristics and
performance analysis. Determination of circuit model. Circle diagram. Starting and speed control.
Fractional KW motors. Single-phase synchronous and induction motors.
2. Power systems
Types of Power Stations, Hydro, Thermal and Nuclear Stations. Pumped storage plants. Economics and
operating factors.
Power transmission lines. Modelling and performance characteristics. Voltage control. Load flow
studies. Optimal power system operation. Load frequency control. Symmetrical short circuit analysis.
ZBus formulation. Symmetrical Components. Per Unit representation. Fault analysis. Transient and
steady-state stability of power systems. Equal area criterion.
Power system Transients. Power system Protection Circuit breakers. Relays. HVDC transmission.
3. Analog and Digital Electronics and Circuits
Semiconductor device physics, PN junctions and transistors, circuit models and parameters, FET, Zener,
tunnel, Schottky, photo diodes and their applications, rectifier circuits, voltage regulators and
multipliers, switching behavior of diodes and transistors.
Small signal amplifiers, biasing circuits, frequency response and improvement, multistage amplifiers and
feed-back amplifiers, D.C.
amplifiers, Oscillators. Large signal amplifiers, coupling methods, push pull amplifiers, operational
amplifiers, wave shaping circuits. Multivibrators and flip-flops and their applications. Digital logic gate
families, universal gates-combination circuits for arithmetic and logic operational, sequential logic
circuits. Counters, registers, RAM and ROMs.
4. Microprocessor
Microprocessor architecture-Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for
memory and I/O. Applications of Micro-processors in power system.
5. Communication Systems
Types of modulation; AM, FM and PM. Demodulators. Noise and bandwidth considerations. Digital
communication systems. Pulse code modulation and demodulation. Elements of sound and vision
broadcasting. Carrier communication. Frequency division and time division multiplexing, Telemetry
system in power engineering.
6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices. Thyristor. Power transistor, GTOs and
MOSFETS. Characteristics and operation. AC to DC Converters; 1phase and 3-phase DC to DC Converters;
AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors; switched capacitor networks.
Inverters; single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform
sampling. Switched mode power supplies.

General Ability Test (Total = 20 Question )

Section-III (for all JTO Branches)
The candidate's comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple
exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and
experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be
included on events and developments in Telecommunications, History of India and Geography. These
will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.