Showing posts with label DRDO. Show all posts
Showing posts with label DRDO. Show all posts

Saturday, March 10, 2012

CEPTAM-05 DRDO Entry Test-2012


DRDO jobs at http://www.SarkariNaukriBlog.comMinistry of Defence
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
Centre for Personnel Talent Management (CEPTAM)

Advertisement No. : CEPTAM-05 (DRDO Entry Test-2012)

Applications are invited from eligible candidates for Group ‘C’ & ‘D’ posts for placement in various DRDO laboratories/ establishments with all India service liability :
  1. Senior Technical Assistant (STA-B) 'B' : 227 posts in various trades, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs. 4200/-, Age Limit : 18-28 years, Qualification : B.Sc./ 3 years Diploma in Engineering
  2. Technician -A (Tech-A) : 119 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay: Rs. 1900, Age Limit : 18-28 years, Qualification : 10th pass with ITI in specified trades
  3. Assistant Hindi : 19  posts, Pay Scale : PB-1: Rs. 9300-34800 Grade Pay: Rs. 4200, Age Limit : 18-28 years
  4. Store Assistant 'A' (Hindi Typing) :  06 posts, Pay Scale : PB-1: Rs 5200-20200 Grade Pay: Rs 1900/-, Age Limit : 18-27 years 
  5. Store Assistant 'A' (English Typing) :  58 posts, Pay Scale : PB-1: Rs 5200-20200 Grade Pay: Rs 1900/-, Age Limit : 18-27 years 
  6. Administrative Assistant 'A' (Hindi Typing) : 06 posts, Pay Scale : PB-1: Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay: Rs 1900/-, Age Limit : 18-27 years
  7. Administrative Assistant 'A' (English Typing) : 90 posts, Pay Scale : PB-1: Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay: Rs 1900/-, Age Limit : 18-27 years
  8. Civil Driver 'A' : 41 posts, Pay Scale : PB-1: Rs 5200-20200 Grade Pay: Rs 1900/-, Age Limit : 18-27 years 
  9. Security Assistant 'A' : 14 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs.1900/-, Age Limit : 18-25 years
  10. Fire Engine Driver : 04 posts, Pay Scale : Pay Band-1: Rs 5200-20200, Grade Pay: Rs 1900, Age Limit : 18-25 years
  11. Fireman : 22 posts, Pay Scale : Rs 5200-20200, Grade Pay: Rs 1900, Age Limit : 18-25 years

Fee : Non-Refundable Fees of Rs.50/- is to be paid by Indian Postal Order (IPO) in favour of The
Director, CEPTAM, DRDO, Delhi, Payable at Delhi. SC/ST/Ex.SM/ PH candidates are exempted for the fee for all posts.

How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format complete in all respect must reach “DRDO Entry Test- 2012, Post Box No.: 8626, Delhi-110 054” on or before 09/04/2012. (Last date is 16/04/2012 for the candidates of far-flung areas):

For complete information and application form, please visit http://drdo.gov.in/drdo/ceptam/ceptamnoticeboard.html

Monday, August 8, 2011

DRDO 2009 QUESTION PAPER


                                                           

Sunday, May 15, 2011

DRDO SYLLABUS


Syllabus for Chemical Engineering paper DRDO-SET
  1. Process Calculations and Thermodynamics: Laws of conservation of mass and energy; use of tie components; recycle, bypass and purge calculations; degree of freedom analysis. First and Second laws of thermodynamics. First law application to close and open systems. Second law and Entropy Thermodynamic properties of pure substances: equation of state and departure function, properties of mixtures: partial molar properties, fugacity, excess properties and activity coefficients; phase equilibria: predicting VLE of systems; chemical reaction equilibria.
  2. Fluid Mechanics and Mechanical Operations: Fluid statics, Newtonian and non-Newtonian fluids, Bernoulli equation, Macroscopic friction factors, energy balance, dimensional analysis, shell balances, flow through pipeline systems, flow meters, pumps and compressors, packed and fluidized beds, elementary boundary layer theory, size reduction and size separation; free and hindered settling; centrifuge and cyclones; thickening and classification, filtration, mixing and agitation; conveying of solids.
  3. Heat Transfer: Conduction, convection and radiation, heat transfer coefficients, steady and unsteady heat conduction, boiling, condensation and evaporation; types of heat exchangers and evaporators and their design.
  4. Mass Transfer: Fick’s laws, molecular diffusion in fluids, mass transfer coefficients, film, penetration and surface renewal theories; momentum, heat and mass transfer analogies; stagewise and continuous contacting and stage efficiencies; HTU & NTU concepts design and operation of equipment for distillation, absorption, leaching, liquid-liquid extraction, drying, humidification, dehumidification and adsorption.
  5. Chemical Reaction Engineering: Theories of reaction rates; kinetics of homogeneous reactions, interpretation of kinetic data, single and multiple reactions in ideal reactors, non-ideal reactors; residence time distribution, single parameter model; non-isothermal reactors; kinetics of heterogeneous catalytic reactions; diffusion effects in catalysis.
  6. Process Calculations and Thermodynamics: Laws of conservation of mass and energy; use of tie components; recycle, bypass and purge calculations; degree of freedom analysis. First and Second laws of thermodynamics. First law application to close and open systems. Second law and Entropy Thermodynamic properties of pure substances: equation of state and departure function, properties of mixtures: partial molar properties, fugacity, excess properties and activity coefficients; phase equilibria: predicting VLE of systems; chemical reaction equilibria.
  7. Fluid Mechanics and Mechanical Operations: Fluid statics, Newtonian and non-Newtonian fluids, Bernoulli equation, Macroscopic friction factors, energy balance, dimensional analysis, shell balances, flow through pipeline systems, flow meters, pumps and compressors, packed and fluidized beds, elementary boundary layer theory, size reduction and size separation; free and hindered settling; centrifuge and cyclones; thickening and classification, filtration, mixing and agitation; conveying of solids.
  8. Heat Transfer: Conduction, convection and radiation, heat transfer coefficients, steady and unsteady heat conduction, boiling, condensation and evaporation; types of heat exchangers and evaporators and their design.
  9. Mass Transfer: Fick’s laws, molecular diffusion in fluids, mass transfer coefficients, film, penetration and surface renewal theories; momentum, heat and mass transfer analogies; stagewise and continuous contacting and stage efficiencies; HTU & NTU concepts design and operation of equipment for distillation, absorption, leaching, liquid-liquid extraction, drying, humidification, dehumidification and adsorption.
  10. Chemical Reaction Engineering: Theories of reaction rates; kinetics of homogeneous reactions, interpretation of kinetic data, single and multiple reactions in ideal reactors, non-ideal reactors; residence time distribution, single parameter model; non-isothermal reactors; kinetics of heterogeneous catalytic reactions; diffusion effects in catalysis.
Syllabus for Computer Science and Engineering paper DRDO-SET
  1. Theory of Computation: Regular languages and finite automata, Context free languages and Push-down automata, Recursively enumerable sets and Turing machines, Undecidability; NP-completeness.
  2. Digital Logic: Logic functions, Minimization, Design and synthesis of combinational and sequential circuits; Number representation and computer arithmetic (fixed and floating point).
  3. Computer Organization and Architecture: Machine instructions and addressing modes, ALU and data-path, CPU control design, Memory interface, I/O interface (Interrupt and DMA mode), Instruction pipelining, Cache and main memory, Secondary storage.
  4. Programming and Data Structures: Programming in C; Functions, Recursion, Parameter passing, Scope, Binding; Abstract data types, Arrays, Stacks, Queues, Linked Lists, Trees, Binary search trees, Binary heaps.
  5. Algorithms: Analysis, Asymptotic notation, Notions of space and time complexity, Worst and average case analysis; Design: Greedy approach, Dynamic programming, Divide-and-conquer; Tree and graph traversals, Connected components, Spanning trees, Shortest paths; Hashing, Sorting, Searching.
  6. Compiler Design: Lexical analysis, Parsing, Syntax directed translation, Runtime environments, Intermediate and target code generation, Basics of code optimization.
  7. Operating System: Processes, Threads, Inter-process communication, Concurrency, Synchronization, Deadlock, CPU scheduling, Memory management and virtual memory, File systems, I/O systems, Protection and security.
Syllabus for Electronics and Communication Engineering paper DRDO-SET
  1. Networks: Network graphs: matrices associated with graphs; incidence, fundamental cut set and fundamental circuit matrices. Solution methods: nodal and mesh analysis. Network theorems: superposition, Thevenin and Norton’s maximum power transfer, Wye-Delta transformation. Steady state sinusoidal analysis using phasors. Linear constant coefficient differential equations; time domain analysis of simple RLC circuits, Solution of network equations using Laplace transform: frequency domain analysis of RLC circuits. 2-port network parameters: driving point and transfer functions. State equations for networks.
  2. Electronic Devices: Energy bands in silicon, intrinsic and extrinsic silicon. Carrier transport in silicon: diffusion current, drift current, mobility, and resistivity. Generation and recombination of carriers. p-n junction diode, Zener diode, tunnel diode, BJT, JFET, MOS capacitor, MOSFET, LED, p-I-n and avalanche photo diode, Basics of LASERs. Device technology: integrated circuits fabrication process, oxidation, diffusion, ion implantation, photolithography, n-tub, p-tub and twin-tub CMOS process.
  3. Analog Circuits: Small Signal Equivalent circuits of diodes, BJTs, MOSFETs and analog CMOS. Simple diode circuits, clipping, clamping, rectifier. Biasing and bias stability of transistor and FET amplifiers. Amplifiers: single-and multi-stage, differential and operational, feedback, and power. Frequency response of amplifiers. Simple op-amp circuits. Filters. Sinusoidal oscillators; criterion for oscillation; single-transistor and op-amp configurations. Function generators and wave-shaping circuits, 555 Timers. Power supplies.
  4. Digital Circuits: Boolean algebra, minimization of Boolean functions; logic gates; digital IC families (DTL, TTL, ECL, MOS, CMOS). Combinatorial circuits: arithmetic circuits, code converters, multiplexers, decoders, PROMs and PLAs. Sequential circuits: latches and flip-flops, counters and shift-registers. Sample and hold circuits, ADCs, DACs. Semiconductor memories. Microprocessor(8085): architecture, programming, memory and I/O interfacing.

    Fourier series, continuous-time and discrete-time Fourier Transform, DFT and FFT, z-transform. Sampling theorem. Linear Time-Invariant (LTI) Systems: definitions and properties; causality, stability, impulse response, convolution, poles and zeros, parallel and cascade structure, frequency response, group delay, phase delay. Signal transmission through LTI systems.
  5. Control Systems: Basic control system components; block diagrammatic description, reduction of block diagrams. Open loop and closed loop (feedback) systems and stability analysis of these systems. Signal flow graphs and their use in determining transfer functions of systems; transient and steady state analysis of LTI control systems and frequency response. Tools and techniques for LTI control system analysis: root loci, Routh-Hurwitz criterion, Bode and Nyquist plots. Control system compensators: elements of lead and lag compensation, elements of Proportional-Integral-Derivative (PID) control. State variable representation and solution of state equation of LTI control systems.
  6. Communications: Random signals and noise: probability, random variables, probability density function, autocorrelation, power spectral density. Analog communication systems: amplitude and angle modulation and demodulation systems, spectral analysis of these operations, superheterodyne receivers; elements of hardware, realizations of analog communication systems; signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) calculations for amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM) for low noise conditions. Fundamentals of information theory and channel capacity theorem. Digital communication systems: pulse code modulation (PCM), differential pulse code modulation (DPCM), digital modulation schemes: amplitude, phase and frequency shift keying schemes (ASK, PSK, FSK), matched filter receivers, bandwidth consideration and probability of error calculations for these schemes. Basics of TDMA, FDMA and CDMA and GSM.
  7. Electromagnetics: Elements of vector calculus: divergence and curl; Gauss’ and Stokes’ theorems, Maxwell’s equations: differential and integral forms. Wave equation, Poynting vector. Plane waves: propagation through various media; reflection and refraction; phase and group velocity; skin depth. Transmission lines: characteristic impedance; impedance transformation; Smith chart; impedance matching; S parameters, pulse excitation. Waveguides: modes in rectangular waveguides; boundary conditions; cut-off frequencies; dispersion relations. Basics of propagation in dielectric waveguide and optical fibers. Basics of Antennas: Dipole antennas; radiation pattern; antenna gain.
Syllabus for Electrical Engineering paper DRDO-SET
  1. Electric Circuits and Fields: Network graph, KCL, KVL, node and mesh analysis, transient response of dc and ac networks; sinusoidal steady-state analysis, resonance, basic filter concepts; ideal current and voltage sources, Thevenin’s, Norton’s and Superposition and Maximum Power Transfer theorems, two-port networks, three phase circuits; Gauss Theorem, electric field and potential due to point, line, plane and spherical charge distributions; Ampere’s and Biot-Savart’s laws; inductance; dielectrics; capacitance.
  2. Signals and Systems: Representation of continuous and discrete-time signals; shifting and scaling operations; linear, time-invariant and causal systems; Fourier series representation of continuous periodic signals; sampling theorem; Fourier, Laplace and Z transforms.
  3. Electrical Machines: Single phase transformer - equivalent circuit, phasor diagram, tests, regulation and efficiency; three phase transformers - connections, parallel operation; auto-transformer; energy conversion principles; DC machines - types, windings, generator characteristics, armature reaction and commutation, starting and speed control of motors; three phase induction motors - principles, types, performance characteristics, starting and speed control; single phase induction motors; synchronous machines - performance, regulation and parallel operation of generators, motor starting, characteristics and applications; servo and stepper motors.
  4. Power Systems: Basic power generation concepts; transmission line models and performance; cable performance, insulation; corona and radio interference; distribution systems; per-unit quantities; bus impedance and admittance matrices; load flow; voltage control; power factor correction; economic operation; symmetrical components; fault analysis; principles of over-current, differential and distance protection; solid state relays and digital protection; circuit breakers; system stability concepts, swing curves and equal area criterion; HVDC transmission and FACTS concepts.
  5. Control Systems: Principles of feedback; transfer function; block diagrams; steady-state errors; Routh and Niquist techniques; Bode plots; root loci; lag, lead and lead-lag compensation; state space model; state transition matrix, controllability and observability.
  6. Electrical and Electronic Measurements: Bridges and potentiometers; PMMC, moving iron, dynamometer and induction type instruments; measurement of voltage, current, power, energy and power factor; instrument transformers; digital voltmeters and multimeters; phase, time and frequency measurement; Q-meters; oscilloscopes; potentiometric recorders; error analysis.
  7. Analog and Digital Electronics: Characteristics of diodes, BJT, FET; amplifiers - biasing, equivalent circuit and frequency response; oscillators and feedback amplifiers; operational amplifiers - characteristics and applications; simple active filters; VCOs and timers; combinational and sequential logic circuits; multiplexer; Schmitt trigger; multi-vibrators; sample and hold circuits; A/D and D/A converters; 8-bit microprocessor basics, architecture, programming and interfacing.
  8. Power Electronics and Drives: Semiconductor power diodes, transistors, thyristors, triacs, GTOs, MOSFETs and IGBTs - static characteristics and principles of operation; triggering circuits; phase control rectifiers; bridge converters - fully controlled and half controlled; principles of choppers and inverters; basis concepts of adjustable speed dc and ac drives
Syllabus for Instrumentation Engineering paper DRDO-SET
  1. Basics of Circuits and Measurement Systems: Kirchoff’s laws, mesh and nodal Analysis. Circuit theorems. One-port and two-port Network Functions. Static and dynamic characteristics of Measurement Systems. Error and uncertainty analysis. Statistical analysis of data and curve fitting.
  2. Transducers, Mechanical Measurement and Industrial Instrumentation: Resistive, Capacitive, Inductive and piezoelectric transducers and their signal conditioning. Measurement of displacement, velocity and acceleration (translational and rotational), force, torque, vibration and shock. Measurement of pressure, flow, temperature and liquid level. Measurement of pH, conductivity, viscosity and humidity.
  3. Analog Electronics :Characteristics of diode, BJT, JFET and MOSFET. Diode circuits. Transistors at low and high frequencies, Amplifiers, single and multi-stage. Feedback amplifiers. Operational amplifiers, characteristics and circuit configurations. Instrumentation amplifier. Precision rectifier. V-to-I and I-to-V converter. Op-Amp based active filters. Oscillators and signal generators.
  4. Digital Electronics: Combinational logic circuits, minimization of Boolean functions. IC families, TTL, MOS and CMOS. Arithmetic circuits. Comparators, Schmitt trigger, timers and mono-stable multi-vibrator. Sequential circuits, flip-flops, counters, shift registers. Multiplexer, S/H circuit. Analog-to-Digital and Digital-to-Analog converters. Basics of number system. Microprocessor applications, memory and input-output interfacing. Microcontrollers.
  5. Signals, Systems and Communications: Periodic and aperiodic signals. Impulse response, transfer function and frequency response of first- and second order systems. Convolution, correlation and characteristics of linear time invariant systems. Discrete time system, impulse and frequency response. Pulse transfer function. IIR and FIR filters. Amplitude and frequency modulation and demodulation. Sampling theorem, pulse code modulation. Frequency and time division multiplexing. Amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying and pulse shift keying for digital modulation.
  6. Electrical and Electronic Measurements: Bridges and potentiometers, measurement of R,L and C. Measurements of voltage, current, power, power factor and energy. A.C & D.C current probes. Extension of instrument ranges. Q-meter and waveform analyzer. Digital voltmeter and multi-meter. Time, phase and frequency measurements. Cathode ray oscilloscope. Serial and parallel communication. Shielding and grounding.
  7. Control Systems and Process Control: Feedback principles. Signal flow graphs. Transient Response, steady-state-errors. Routh and Nyquist criteria. Bode plot, root loci. Time delay systems. Phase and gain margin. State space representation of systems. Mechanical, hydraulic and pneumatic system components. Synchro pair, servo and step motors. On-off, cascade, P, P-I, P-I-D, feed forward and derivative controller, Fuzzy controllers.
  8. Analytical, Optical and Biomedical Instrumentation: Mass spectrometry. UV, visible and IR spectrometry. X-ray and nuclear radiation measurements. Optical sources and detectors, LED, laser, Photo-diode, photo-resistor and their characteristics. Interferometers, applications in metrology. Basics of fiber optics. Biomedical instruments, EEG, ECG and EMG. Clinical measurements. Ultrasonic transducers and Ultrasonography. Principles of Computer Assisted Tomography.
Syllabus for Mechanical Engineering paper DRDO-SET
  1. Engineering Mechanics: Free body diagrams and equilibrium; trusses and frames; virtual work; kinematics and dynamics of particles and of rigid bodies in plane motion, including impulse and momentum (linear and angular) and energy formulations; impact.
  2. Strength of Materials: Stress and strain, stress-strain relationship and elastic constants, Mohr’s circle for plane stress and plane strain, thin cylinders; shear force and bending moment diagrams; bending and shear stresses; deflection of beams; torsion of circular shafts; Euler’s theory of columns; strain energy methods; thermal stresses.
  3. Theory of Machines: Displacement, velocity and acceleration analysis of plane mechanisms; dynamic analysis of slider-crank mechanism; gear trains; flywheels.
  4. Vibrations: Free and forced vibration of single degree of freedom systems; effect of damping; vibration isolation; resonance, critical speeds of shafts.
  5. Design: Design for static and dynamic loading; failure theories; fatigue strength and the S-N diagram; principles of the design of machine elements such as bolted, riveted and welded joints, shafts, spur gears, rolling and sliding contact bearings, brakes and clutches.
  6. Fluid Mechanics: Fluid properties; fluid statics, manometry, buoyancy; control-volume analysis of mass, momentum and energy; fluid acceleration; differential equations of continuity and momentum; Bernoulli’s equation; viscous flow of incompressible fluids; boundary layer; elementary turbulent flow; flow through pipes, head losses in pipes, bends etc.
  7. Heat-Transfer: Modes of heat transfer; one dimensional heat conduction, resistance concept, electrical analogy, unsteady heat conduction, fins; dimensionless parameters in free and forced convective heat transfer, various correlations for heat transfer in flow over flat plates and through pipes; thermal boundary layer; effect of turbulence; radiative heat transfer, black and grey surfaces, shape factors, network analysis; heat exchanger performance, LMTD and NTU methods.
  8. Thermodynamics: Zeroth, First and Second laws of thermodynamics; thermodynamic system and processes; Carnot cycle. irreversibility and availability; behaviour of ideal and real gases, properties of pure substances, calculation of work and heat in ideal processes; analysis of thermodynamic cycles related to energy conversion.
  9. Applications: Power Engineering: Steam Tables, Rankine, Brayton cycles with regeneration and reheat. I.C. Engines: air-standard Otto, Diesel cycles. Refrigeration and air-conditioning: Vapour refrigeration cycle, heat pumps, gas refrigeration, Reverse Brayton cycle; moist air: psychrometric chart, basic psychrometric processes. Turbomachinery: Pelton-wheel, Francis and Kaplan turbines — impulse and reaction principles, velocity diagrams.
  10. Engineering Materials: Structure and properties of engineering materials, heat treatment, stress-strain diagrams for engineering materials.
  11. Metal Casting: Design of patterns, moulds and cores; solidification and cooling; riser and gating design, design considerations.
  12. Forming: Plastic deformation and yield criteria; fundamentals of hot and cold working processes; load estimation for bulk (forging, rolling, extrusion, drawing) and sheet (shearing, deep drawing, bending) metal forming processes; principles of powder metallurgy.
  13. Joining: Physics of welding, brazing and soldering; adhesive bonding; design considerations in welding.
  14. Machining and Machine Tool Operations: Mechanics of machining, single and multi-point cutting tools, tool geometry and materials, tool life and wear; economics of machining; principles of non-traditional machining processes; principles of work holding, principles of design of jigs and fixtures
  15. Metrology and Inspection: Limits, fits and tolerances; linear and angular measurements; comparators; gauge design; interferometry; form and finish measurement; alignment and testing methods; tolerance analysis in manufacturing and assembly.
  16. Computer Integrated Manufacturing: Basic concepts of CAD/CAM and their integration tools.
  17. Production Planning and Control: Forecasting models, aggregate production planning, scheduling, materials requirement planning.
  18. Inventory Control: Deterministic and probabilistic models; safety stock inventory control systems.
  19. Operations Research: Linear programming, simplex and duplex method, transportation, assignment, network flow models, simple queuing models, PERT and CPM.

Thursday, April 21, 2011

DRDO ENGINEERS EXAM 2011 QUESTIONS



1. Which type of architecture 8085 has?

2. How many memory locations can be addressed by a microprocessor with 14 address lines?

3. 8085 is how many bit microprocessor?

4. Why is data bus bi-directional?

5. What is the function of accumulator?

6. What is flag, bus?

7. What are tri-state devices and why they are essential in a bus oriented system?

8. Why are program counter and stack pointer 16-bit registers?

9. What does it mean by embedded system?

10. What are the different addressing modes in 8085?

11.What is the difference between MOV and MVI?

12. What are the functions of RIM, SIM, IN?

13. What is the immediate addressing mode?

14. What are the different flags in 8085?

15. What happens during DMA transfer?

16. What do you mean by wait state? What is its need?

17. What is PSW?

18. What is ALE? Explain the functions of ALE in 8085.

19. What is a program counter? What is its use?

20. What is an interrupt?

21. Which line will be activated when an output device require attention from CPU?

22. Write the truth table for full adder and implement it in NAND gate only.

23. What's the difference between looping 0s and 1s in K map?

24. Difference between microprocessor and micro controller

25. Microprocessors you are familiar with

26. How will you send and receive data to a micro-processor? (One method is I/O mapped I/O which is the other one?)

27. Radar range equation?

28. Does the radar range depend upon the frequency of the signal transmitted?

29. What is Doppler shift? What is its importance?

30. I will make two fuzzy statements. Pencil is long. Table is long. What is the term long signify?

31. What is a membership function?

32. What are the design criteria for very low frequency amplifier?

33. Can you measure distance with the help of CW radar? If so how?

34. How will you design a stable oscillator? (Not with crystal oscillator because temperature affects it)

35. You have designed an amplifier. After few days it is found that its gain have changed. What might be the reason?

Monday, January 31, 2011

DRDO ECE 2008 SOLVED PAPER


1.The current I in the given network.
a) 1A b) 3A c) 5A d) 7A


2.For the Delta- Wye transformation in given figure, the value of the resistance R is.
a) 1/3 ohms b) 2/3 ohms c) 3/2 ohms d) 3 ohms


3.In the given network, the Thevenin’s equivalent as seen by the load resistance Rl is
a) V=10 V, R= 2ohms b) V=10V, R=3 ohms c) V=15V, R= 2ohms d) V=15V, R=3 ohms


4.The current I in a series R-L circuit with R=10 ohms and L=20mH is given by i=2sin500t A. If v is the voltage across the R-L combination then i
a) lags v by 45 degree b) is in-phase with v c) leads v by 45 d) lags v by 90


5.In thr given network, the mesh current I and the input impedance seen by the 50 V source, respectively, are
a) 125/13 A and 11/8 ohms b) 150/13 A and 13/8 ohms c) 150/13 A and 11/8 ohms d) 125/13 A and 13/8 ohms


6.A voltage sourcehaving a source impedance Z = R + jX can deliver maximum Average power to a load impedance Z, when
a) Z = R + jX b) Z = R c) Z = jX d) Z = R –jX


7.In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at t=0. Assuming that there is no initial Charge in the capacitor, the current i(t) for t>0 is
a) V/R e^ (-2t/RC) b) V/R e^ (-t/RC) c) V/2R e^ (-2t/RC) d) V/2R e^ (-t/RC)


8.For the circuit in given figure, if e(t) is a ramp signal, the steady state value of the Output voltage v(t) is
a) 0 b) LC c) R/L d) RC


9.For the series RLC circuit in given figure, if w=1000 rad/sec, then the current I (in Amperes) is
a) 2 ∟-15 b) 2 ∟15 c) √2∟-15 d) √2∟15


10.The Y-parameter matrix (mA/V) of the two-port given network is
a) [2 -1 -1 2] b) [2 1 -1 2] c) [1 -2 -1 2] d) [2 1 1 2]

11.The maximum number of trees of the given graph is
a) 16 b) 25 c) 100 d) 125


12.Given figure shows a graph and one of its trees. Corresponding to the tree, the group of branches that CAN NOT constitute a fundamental cut set is
a) 1,2,3 b) 1,4,6,8,3 c) 5,6,8,3 d) 4,6,7,3


13.The Y-parameter matrix of a network is given by Y=[1 1 -1 1] A/V. The Z11 parameter of the same network is
a) ½ ohms b) 1/√2 ohms c) 1 ohms d) 2 ohms


14.For the given circuit, the switch was kept closed for a long time before opening it at t=0. The voltage v(0+) is
a) -10 V b) -1 V c) 0V d) 10 V


15.The input impedance of a series RLC circuit operating at frequency W=√2w, w being the resonant frequency, is
a) R-j(wL/√2) ohms b) R+j(wL/√2) ohms c) R-j√2wL ohms d) R-j√2wL ohms


16.The threshold voltage V is negative for
a) an n-channel enhancement MOSFET b) an n-channel depletion MOSFET c) an p-channel depletion MOSFET d) an p-channel JFET


17.At a given temperature, a semiconductor with intrinsic carrier concentration ni= 10 ^ 16 / m^3 is doped with a donor dopant of concentration Nd = 10 ^ 26 /m^3. Temperature remaining the same, the hole concentration in the doped semiconductor is
a) 10 ^ 26 /m^3 b) 10 ^ 16 /m^3 c) 10 ^ 14 /m^3 d) 10 ^ 6 /m^3}


18.At room temperature, the diffusion and drift constants for holes in a P-type semiconductor were measured to be Dp = 10 cm^2/s and µp = 1200 cm^2/V-s, respectively. If the diffusion constant of electrons in an N-type semiconductor at the same temperature is Dn = 20 cm^2/s, the drift constant for electrons in it is
a) µn = 2400 cm^2/V-s b) µn = 1200 cm^2/V-s c) µn = 1000 cm^2/V-s d) µn = 600 cm^2/V-s


19.A common LED is made up of
a) intrinsic semiconductor b) direct semiconductor c) degenerate semiconductor d) indirect semiconductor


20.When operating as a voltage regulator, the breakdown in a Zener diode occurs due to the
a) tunneling effect b) avalanche breakdown c) impact ionization d) excess heating of the junction.

21.If the common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98, its common emitter DC current gain is
a) 51 b) 49 c) 1 d) 0.02


22.Negative resistance characteristics is exhibited by a
a) Zener diode b) Schottky diode c) photo diode d) Tunnel diode


23.Let En and Ep, respectively, represent the effective Fermi levels for electrons and holes during current conduction in a semiconductor. For lasing to occur in a P-N junction of band-gap energy 1.2 eV, (En - Ep) should be
a) greater than 1.2eV b) less than 1.2eV c) equal to 1.1eV d) equal to 0.7eV


24.In a P-well fabrication process, the substrate is
a) N-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
b) P-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
c) N-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET
d) P-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET


25.In a MOS capacitor with n-type silicon substrate, the Fermi potential ¢ = -0.41 V and the flat-band voltage Vfb = 0V. The value of the threshold voltage Vt is
a) -0.82 V b) -0.41 V c) 0.41 V d) 0.82


Refer given figure for question 26 and 27. Assume D1 and D2 to be ideal diodes.
26.Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Both D1 and D2 are ON.
b) Both D1 and D2 are OFF.
c) D1 is ON and D2 is OFF.
d) D2 is ON and D1 is OFF.


27.Values of Vo and I, respectively, are
a) 2V and 1.1 mA b) 0V and 0 mA c) -2V and 0.7 mA d) 4V and 1.3 mA


28.In a BJT CASCODE pair, a
a) common emitter follows a common base
b) common base follows a common collector
c) common collector follows a common base
d) common base follows a common emitter


29.Inside a 741 op-amp, the last functional block is a
a) differential amplifier b) level shifter c) class-A power amplifier d) class-AB power amplifier

30.For the MOSFET in the given circuit, the threshold voltage Vt = 0.5V, the process parameter KP = 150 µA/V^2 and W/L = 10. The values of Vd and Id, respectively, are
a) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 1 mA
b) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 0.5 mA
c) Vd = 4.8 V and Id = 0.4 mA
d) Vd = 6 V and Id = 0 mA
31.A negative feedback is applied to an amplifier with the feedback voltage proportional to the output current. This feedback increases the
a) input impedance of the amplifier b) output impedance of the amplifier c) distortion in the amplifier d) gain of the amplifier
32.The early effect in a BJT is modeled by the small signal parameter
a) r0 b) r∏ c) gm d) β
33.For a given filter order, which one of the following type of filters has the least amount of ripple both in pass-band and stop-band?
a) Chebyshev type I b) Bessel c) Chebyshev type II d) Elliptic
34.For a practical feedback circuit to have sustained oscillation, the most appropriate value of the loop gain T is
a) 1 b) -1 c) -1.02 d) 1.02
35.Assume the op-amps in given figure to be ideal. If the input signal vi is a sinusoid of 2V peak-to-peak and with zero DC component, the output signal vo is a
a) sine wave b) square wave c) pulse train d) triangular wave
36.In a common source amplifier, the mid-band voltage gain is 40 dB and the upper cutoff frequency is 150kHz. Assuming single pole approximation for the amplifier the unity gain frequency fT is
a) 6 MHz b) 15 MHz c) 150 MHz d) 1.5 GHz
37.An op-amp is ideal except for finite gain and CMRR. Given the open loop differential gain Ad=2000, CMRR = 1000, the input to the noninverting terminal is 5.002 V and the input to the inverting terminal is 4.999 V, the output voltage of the op-amp is

a) 14 V b) 24 V c) -6 V c) -8 V

38.The op-amp in the circuit in given figure has a non-zero DC offset. The steady state value of the output voltage Vo is
a) –RC dvs(t)/ dt b) – (1/RC)|vs(t)dt c) –V d) +V

39.For the circuit in given figure, if the value of the capacitor C is doubled, the duty-cycle of the output waveform Vo
a) increases by a factor of 2 b) increases by a factor of 1.44 c) remains constant d) decreases by a factor of 1.44

40.Assume the op-amp in the given circuit to be ideal. The value of the output voltage Vo is
a) 3.2 Vi b) 4 Vi c) 9 Vi d) 10 Vi

41.The complement of the Boolean expression F = (X + Y¯ + Z)(X¯ + Z¯)(X + Y) is
a) XYZ+XZ¯+Y¯Z b) X¯YZ¯+XZ+X¯Y¯ c) X¯YZ¯+XZ+YZ d) XYZ+X¯Y¯

42.The Boolean function F(A,B,C,D) = ∑(0,6,8,13,14) with don’t care conditions d(A,B,C,D) = ∑(2,4,10) can be simplified to
a) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ b) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯D c) F = AB¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ d) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABCD

43.The Boolean function F = A¯D¯+B¯D can be realized by one of the following figures

44. For the multiplexer in given figure, the Boolean expression for the output Y is
a) A¯B¯+B¯C¯+AC b) AB¯+B¯C¯+AC¯ c) AB¯+B¯C+AC d) A¯B¯+B¯C+A¯C

45. Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) Both latch and flip-flop are edge triggered.
b) A latch is level triggered and a flip-flop is edge triggered.
c) A latch is edge triggered and a flip-flop is level triggered.
d) Both latch and flip-flop are level triggered.

46. In a schottky TTL gate, the Schottky diode
e) increases the propagation delay
f) increases the power consumption
g) prevents saturation of the output transistor
h) keeps the transistor in cutoff region

47. For which one of the following ultraviolet light is used to erase the stored contents
a) PROM b) EPROM c) EEPROM d) PLA

48. Which one of the following is NOT a synchronous counter
a) Johnson counter b) Ring counter c) Ripple counter d) Up-down counter

49. In 8085 microprocessor, the accumulator is a
a) 4 bit register b) 8 bit register c) 16 bit register d) 32 bit register
50. In the register indirect addressing mode of 8085 microprocessor, data is stored
a) at the address contained in the register pair
b) in the register pair
c) in the accumulator
d) in a fixed location of the memory

51. The output w[n] of the system shown in given figure is
a) x[n] b) x[n-1] c) x[n] – x[n-1] d) 0.5(x[n-1] + x[n])

52. Which one of the following is a periodic signal
a) x(t) = 2 e^j(t+(π/4)) b) x[n] = u[n] + u[-n] c) x[n] = ∑{∂[n-4k]-∂[n-1-4k]} where k = -∞to ∞ d) x(t) = e^ (-1+j)t

53. If the input-output relation of a system is y(t) = ∫x(t) dt where t = -∞ to 2t
a) linear, time-invariant and unstable
b) linear, non-causal and unstable
c) linear, causal and time invariant
d) non-causal, time invariant and unstable

54. Which one of the can be the magnitude of the transfer function | H(jw) | of a causal system

55. Consider the function H(jw) = H1(w) + jH2(w), where H1(w) is an odd function and H2(w) is an even function. The inverse Fourier transform of H(jw) is
a) a real and odd function
b) a complex function
c) a purely imaginary function
d) a purely imaginary and odd function

56. The laplace transform of given signal is
a) –A((1-e^cs)/s) b) A((1-e^cs)/s) c) A((1-e^-cs)/s) d) –A((1-e^-cs)/s)

57. If X(z) is the z-transform of x[n] = (1/2)^ |n|, the ROC of X(z) is
a) |z| > 2 b) |z| <>

58. In a linear phase system, τg the group delay and τp the phase delay are
a) constant and equal to each other b) τg is a constant and τp is proportional to w c) a constant and τg is proportional to w d) τg is proportional to w and τp is proportional to w

59. A signal m(t), band-limited to a maximum frequency of 20 kHz is sampled at a frequency fs kHz to generate s(t). An ideal low pass filter having cut-off frequency 37 kHz is used to reconstruct m(t) from s(t). The maximum value of fs required to reconstruct m(t) without distortion is
a) 20 kHz b) 40kHz c) 57 kHz d) 77 kHz

60. If the signal x(t) shown in given figure is fed to an LTI system having impulse response h(t) as shown in given figure, the value of the DC component present in the output y(t) is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

61. The characteristic equation of an LTI system is given as s^3 + Ks^2 + 5s + 10. When the system is marginally stable, the value of K and the sustained oscillation frequency w, respectively, are
a) 2 and 5 b) 0.5 and √5 c) 0.5 and 5 d) 2 and √5

62. The time required for the response of a linear time-variant system to reach half the final value for the first time is
a) delay time b) peak time c) rise time d) decay time

63. The signal flow graph of the given network is

64. Let c(t) be the unit step response of a system with transfer function K(s+a)/(s+K). If c(0+)=2 and c(∞)=10, then the values of a and K, respectively, are
a) 2 and 10 b) -2 and 10 c) 10 and 2 d) 2 and -10

65. The loop transfer function of an LTI system is G(s)H(s)= K(s+1)(s+5) / s(s+2)(s+3). For K>0, the point on the real axis that DOES NOT belong to the root locus of the system is
a) -0.5 b) -2.5 c) -3.5 d) -5.5

66. The state space equation of the circuit shown in given figure for x1=v0, x2=I is

67. The open loop gain of a unity feedback system is G(s)=wn^2 / s(s+2wn). The unit step response c(t) of the system is

69. The angles of the asymptotes of the root loci of the equation s^3 + 5s^2 + (K+2)s + K = 0, for 0<=K<∞, are a) 0 and 270 b) 0 and 180 c) 90 and 270 d) 90 and 180 70. The bode plot corresponding to a proportional derivative controller is the one shown in given figure 71. In frequency modulation, the instantaneous a) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal b) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal c) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal d) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal 72. If X is a zero mean Gaussian random variable, then P{X<=0} is a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1 73. If a single-tone amplitude modulated signal at a modulation depth of 100% transmits a total power of 15W, the power in the carrier component is a) 5W b) 10W c) 12W d) 15W 74. In a superheterodyne receiver, rejection of the image signal can be achieved by using a a) higher local oscillatorn frequency b) crystal oscillator c) narrow band IF filter d) narrow band filter at RF stage 75. The number of bbits per sample of a PCM system depends upon the a) sampler type b) quantizer type c) number of levels of the quantizer d) sampling rate 76. Which one of the following is used for the detection of AM-DSB-SC signal a) Ratio detector b) Foster-Seeley discriminator c) Product demodulator d) Balanced-slpoe detector 77. Which one of the following signal pairs can represent a BPSK signal a) A cos2πfct, A sinπfct b) A cos2πfct, - A sinπfct c) - A cos2πfct, A sinπfct d) A sin2πfct, A cosπfct 78. Which one of the following can be used for the detection of the noncoherent BPSK signal a) matched filter b) phase-locked loop c) envelope detector d) product demodulator

79. Bits of duration Tb are to be transmitted using a BPSK modulation with a carrier of frequency Fc Hz. The power spectral density of the transmitted signal has the first null at the normalized frequency
a) |F – Fc|Tb = 0 b) |F – Fc|Tb = 1 c) |F – Fc|Tb = 2 d) |F – Fc|Tb = 4

80. The probability of bit error of a BPSK modulation scheme, with transmitted signal energy per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian noise channel having one-sided power spectral density N0, is
a) (1/2) erfc(Eb/2N0) b) (1/2) erfc√(Eb/2N0) c) (1/2) erfc(Eb/N0) d) (1/2) erfc√ (Eb/N0)

81. For a given transmitted pulse p(t), 0<=t<=T, the impulse response of a filter matched to the received signal is a) –p(t-T), 0<=t<=T b) –p(T-t), 0<=t<=T c) p(t-T), 0<=t<=T d) p(T-t), 0<=t<=T 82. The multiple access communication scheme in which each user is allocated the full available channel spectrum for a specified duration of time is known as a) CDMA b) FDMA c) TDMA d) MC-CDMA 83. GSM system uses TDMA with a) 32 users per channel b) 16 users per channel c) 8 users per channel d) 4 users per channel 84. If Rx(τ) is the auto-correlation function of a zero-mean wide-sense stationary random process X, then which one of the following is NOT true? a) Rx(τ) = Rx(-τ) b) Rx(τ) = -Rx(-τ) c) σx^2 = Rx(0) d) |Rx(τ)| <=Rx(0) 85. If E denotes the expectation operator, then E[X-EX]^3 of a random variable X is a) EX^3 – E^3X b) EX^3 + 2E^3X – 3EX Ex^2 c) 3EX^3 – E^3X d) 2EX^3 + E^3X – 3EX EX^2 86. A discrete memoryless source produces symbols m1,m2,m3 and m4 with probabilities 1/2, 1/4 , 1/8 and 1/8, respectively. The entropy of the source is a) ¼ b) 1 c) 7/4 d) 2 87. A channel has a signal-to-noise ratio of 63 and bandwidth of 1200 Hz. The maximum data rate that can be sent through the channel with arbitrary low probability of error is a) 600 bps b) 1200 bps c) 4800 bps d) 7200 bps 88. For the vectors A = X ax + Y ay and B = Z az, del . (A X B) is a) 0 b) 1 c) XZ d) YZ

89. Which one of the following relations represents Strokes’ theorem (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) ∫s del X A.ds = 0 b) ∫L A.dl = ∫s del X A.ds c) ∫s A X dS = -∫v (del X A)dv d) ∫v del.Adv = ∫s A.ds

90. Which one of the following relations is not correct (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) del X E = - ∂B/∂t b) del X H = J + ∂E/∂t c) del.D = ρv d) del.B = 0

91. The electric field component of a uniform plane wave propagating in a lossless magnetic dielectric medium is given by E(t,z)=ax 5cos(10^9 t – 20/3 z)V/m. If η0 represents the intrinsic impedance of the free space, the corresponding magnetic field component is given by
a) H(t,z)= ay 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
b) H(t,z)= ay 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
c) H(t,z)= az 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
d) H(t,z)= az 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m

92. The skin depth of a non-magnetic conducting material at 100 MHz is 0.15 mm. The distance which a plane wave of frequency 10 GHz travels in this material before its amplitude reduces by a factor of e^-1 is
a) 0.0015 mm b) 0.015 mm c) 0.15 mm d) 1.5 mm

93. A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 100 ohms and an inductance per unit length of 1 μH/m. If the line is operated at 1 GHz, the propagation constant β is
a) 2π rad/m b) 20π/3 rad/m c) 20π rad/m d) 2π *10^5 rad/m

94. When a load resistance Rl is connected to a lossless transmission line of characteristic impedance 75 ohms, it results in a VSWR of 2. The load resistance is
a) 100 ohms b) 75√2 ohms c) 120 ohms d) 150 ohms

95. A two-port network characterized by the S-parameter matrix, [S] = [0.3 L0 0.9 L90

0.9 L90 0.2 L0]

Is

a) both reciprocal and lossless b) reciprocal, but not lossless c) lossless, but not reciprocal d) neither reciprocal nor lossless

96. A lossless air filled rectangular waveguide has internal dimensions of a cm * b cm. If a=2b and the cutoff frequency of the TE02 mode is 12 GHz, the cutoff frequency of the dominant mode is
a) 1 GHz b) 3 GHz c) 6 GHz d) 9 GHz

97. A Hertzian dipole antenna is placed at the origin of a coordinate system and it is oriented along z-axis. In which one of the following planes the radiation pattern of the antenna has a circular shape?
a) x=0 b) y=0 c) z=0 d) ø=45

98. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) Antenna losses are taken into account in calculating its power gain
b) For an antenna which does not dissipate any power, the directive gain and the power gain are equal
c) Directivity of an antenna is the maximum value of its directive gain
d) The directive gain of a Hertzian dipole is same in all direction

99. The directivity of a half dipole antenna is
a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 1.64 d) 2

100. Which one of the following is not true for a step index optical fibre?
a) It can support multiple modes
b) HE11 mode is its lowest order mode
c) The refractive index of the cladding is higher than that of the core
d) At a given wavelength, single mode operation is possible by proper choice of core diameter, core and cladding refractive indices.

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

101. Sarnath is situated in the state of
a) MP b) Bihar c) Punjab d) UP

102. Green house effect is due to the increase of atmospheric
a) CO2 level b) SO2 level c) CO level d) N2 level

103. In the month of July, it is winter in
a) New York b) Beijing c) Sydney d) London

104. The chairman of the Planning commission of India is
a) The prime minister b) The vice-president c) The union finance minister d) The union commerce minister

105. The satellite launch vehicle that placed a number of satellites ito orbit in May 2008 is
a) PSLV-C7 b) PSLV-C8 c) PSLV-C9 d) PSLV-C10

106.DRDO was formed in
a) 1947 b) 1950 c) 1954 d) 1958

107. SAMYUKTA is developed for the use of
a) Navy b) Army c) Air force d) RAC

108. DARL 202 is a variety of
a) pea b) garlic c) capsicum d) tomato

109. TRISHUL is
a) a surface to surface battlefield missile
b) a quick reaction surface to air missile
c) an intermediate range ballistic missile
d) a supersonic cruise missile

110. HUMSA is a
a) sonar b) tank c) mine d) night vision device

111. The value of 1+2i / 3-4i + 2-I / 5i , where i^2 is -1, is
a) -5/2 b) 5/2 c) 2/5 d) -2/5

112. The particular solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + 2 dy/dx + 5y = 0 satisfying the conditions y(0)=0 and y’(0)=1 is
a) y=1/2 e^-x cos2x b) y=1/2 e^-x sin4x c) y=1/2 e^-x sin2x d) y=1/2 e^-x cos4x

113. For the vectors A=3i-2j+k and B=2i-k, the value of (A*B).A is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

114. The orthogonal trajectory of the family of curves x^2-y^2 = a (where a is a constant) and passing through the point (1,1) is
a) y=-1/x b) y=1/x c) y=-x d) y=x
115. The value of the line integral ∫ y^2 dx + 2xydy over the curve x=accost, y=asint is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

116. The n-th partial sum of the infinite series 1/1*2 + 1/2*3 + 1/3*4+……1/n*(n+1)……..
a) 1/n+1 b) n+2/n+1 c) n/n+1 d) n-1/n+1

117. The complex-valued function f(z)=e^z is analytic for
a) no z b) all z c) real z only d) imaginary z only
118. The inverse of the matrix [ cos A sin A
-sin A cos A] is

a) [ -cos A Sin A b) [cos A sin A} c) [cos A -sin A d) [cos A -sin A
sin A cos A] sin A -cos A] -sin A cos A] sin A cos A]

119. Consider the function f(x) defined as
F(x) = 3x-1, x<0 x="0">0
In the following table, List I shows 4 expressions for limits of f(x) and List II indicates the values of the limits
List I List II
P.Lim x->2 f(x) 1. -1
Q.Lim x->0+ f(x) 2. 9
R.Lim x->0- f(x) 3. -10
S.Lim x->-3 f(x) 4. 5
The correct matches are
a) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 B) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1 C) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3 D) P-4,Q-2,R-3,S-1

120. Two events A and B with probability 0.5 and 0.7, respectively, have joint probability of 0.4. The probability that neither A nor B happens is
a) 0.2 b) 0.4 c) 0.6 d) 0.8

121. Consider the differential equation
X^2 d^2/dx^2 + x dy/dx + (x^2 - 4)y = 0. The statement which is not true for it is
a) It is a linear second order ordinary differential equation
b) It can not be reduced to a differential equation with constant coefficients
c) X=0 is a regular singular point
d) It is a non-homogeneous second order ordinary differential equation

122. The sum of two numbers is 16 and the sum of their squares is a minimum. The two numbers are
a) 10,6 b) 9,7 c) 8,8 d) 5,11

123. The value of the definite integral 0∫(π/2)^(1/3) x^2 sin(x^3)dx is
a) -1/3 b) 0 c) 1 d) 1/3

124. A circle C2 is concentric with the circle C1 : x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -12 =0 and has a radius twice that of C1. The equation of the circle C2 is
a) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -13 =0 b) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -87 =0 c) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -100 =0 d) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -88 =0

125. Consider the quadratic equation x^2 + px + q =0. If p and q are roots of the equation, the values of p and q are
a) p=0, q=0 only b) p=1, q=-2 only c) p=0, q=0 and p=1, q=-2 d) p=0, q=0 and p=-2, q=1

126. Consider the list of words: etiquette, accommodate, forty, exaggerate, continous, independent, receipt. The number of misspelt words are
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

127. Consider the following sentences
1. A few friends he has are all very rich.
2. Do not insult the weak.
3. The later of the two persons was more interesting.
4. All the informations were correct.
Out of these sentences, the grammatically correct sentence is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

128. The appropriate auxiliary verb to fill in the blank of the sentence “Gandhi knew that he __ soon be jailed.”is
a) would b) will c) shall d) may

129. The number of missing punctuation marks in the sentence “Rajesh along with Amit went to the market.”is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

130. The meaning of the word PLAGIARISM is
a) theft of public money b) theft of ideas c) belief in one god d) belief in many gods


132. ACROPHOBIA is the abnormal fear of
a) open spaces b) height c) fire d) water

133. The appropriate pair of prepositions to fill in the blank in the sentence “He was angry __ me, because my remarks were aimed __ him.”is
a) at,to b) with, at c) with, to d) at, for

134. The appropriate word(s) to fill up the blank in the sentence “ I remember __ voices in the middle of the night.”is (are)
a) hear b) to hear c) hearing d) heard

135. The passive voice form of the sentence “I have known him for a long time.”is
a) He is known to me for a long time.
b) He is known by me for a long time.
c) He has been known to me for a long time.
d) He has been known by me for a long time.

136. If kennel is to a dog, then __ is to a hen.
a) nest b) coop c) hole d) stable

137. If NATION is to 5236765, then NOTION is to
a) 573675 b) 563765 c) 576375 d) 557365

138. The next two numbers of the series 3,5,11,21 are
a) 34 and 52 b) 34 and 53 c) 35 and 52 d) 35 and 53

139. A, B and C are three places in India with longitudes 80E, 85 E and 90 E respectively. Which one of the following statements about the local times of the places is true?
a) Local time of C is ahead of that of B.
b) Local time of B is ahead of that of C.
c) Local time of A is ahead of that of C.
d) A, B and C all have the same local time.

140. In this question, notations +, / and * are used as follows
A + B means A is the husband of B.
A / B means A is the sister of B.
A * B means A is the son of B.
With these relations, the relationship
denoted by P / Q * R is
a) P is son of R
b) P is daughter of R
c) P is uncle of R
d) P is father of R

141. If DELHI is written as EDHIL, then PARIS is written as
a) APRIS b) SARIP c) SAPIR d) APISR

142. The number of prime numbers between 10 and 50 is
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13

143. The odd one in the list : LAN, TCP/IP, HACKER and KILLER is
a) LAN b) TCP/IP c) KILLER d) HACKER

144. SAW is to carpenter as SCALPEL is to
a) surgeon b) mason c) plumber d) tailor

ANSWERS

1) d)Uttarpradesh
2) a) co2
3) c) sydney
4) a) prime minister
5) c) PSLV C9
6) d) 1958
7) b) army
8) don't know
119) b) quick reaction surface to air missile
110) a) sonar
111 to 25 simple math problem
126) d) 4
127) might be sentence 2
128) b) will
129) c) 2
130) b) theft of ideas
131) c) permanent
132) b) height
133) b) with,at
134)b) to hear
135)d) he has been known by me for a long time
136) b) coop
137)a) 573675
138)d) 35,53
139)a) local time of C is ahead of that of B( not confirmed)
140) b) P is daughter of R
141) d) APISR
142) b) 11
143) c) killr
144) a) surgeon

Tuesday, September 14, 2010

DRDO SCIENTIST "B" RECRUITMENT PATTERN



The DRDO SET examination is of three hours duration. Each candidate appearing for the Test will
be given one Question Booklet containing objective type questions, in two separate sections.
Section ‘A’ will consists of 100 questions to test the candidate’s knowledge in the subject as per
syllabus.

Each question will have 4 choices of which one only will be correct. Each correct answer will fetch 4 marks. For each incorrect answer, 1 mark will be deducted. Section ‘B’ will consist of 50 questions to test the candidate’s aptitude relevant to Applied Research & Development. Each question will have 4 choices of which one only will be correct. Each correct answer will fetch 2 marks. For each incorrect answer, ½ mark will be deducted.

Section ‘B’ will test the candidate’s aptitude relevant to Applied Research & Development. The
distribution of 50 questions for Section ‘B’ is given below:

i. Logical Relations 10 Questions
ii. Spatial Reasoning 10 Questions
iii. Concept Formation 10 Questions
iv. Abstract Reasoning 10 Questions
v. Numerical Reasoning 10 Questions
50 Questions

The merit list will be prepared, based on the marks obtained by the candidates in Section ‘A’ and
Section ‘B’ and this list will be used for short listing the candidates to be called for interview purely
on merit basis limited to a reasonable number and subject to minimum qualifying criteria as decided
by RAC.
The final selection of the candidates will be based purely on merit of their performance in the
interview. In accordance with the subject-wise merit, the offer of appointment to the selected
candidates will be restricted to the number of vacancies.

DRDO EXAM - Objective Questions for Microprocessor


1. In Synchronous data Transfer type both Transmitter and Receiver will operate in

a) Same Clock pulse

b) Different Clock pulse

c) None of the above



2. The term PSW Program Status word refers

a) Accumulator & Flag register

b) H and L register

c) Accumulator & Instruction register

d) B and C register



3. In 8085 the MAR, or ….. register, latches the address from the program counter. A bit later the MAR applies this address to the ……, where a read operations performed

a) Memory address, ROM

b) Memory address, RAM

c) Memory address, PROM

d) Memory address EPROM



4. In micro – processors like 8080 and the 8085, the …..cycle may have from one to live machine cycle

a) micro – instruction

b) source program

c) instruction

d) fetch cycle



5. Repeated addition is one way to do multiplication, programmed multiplication is used in most microprocessors because

a) that ALU’s can only add and subtract

b) this saves on memory

c) a separate set of instructions is needed for the two

d) None of the above.



6. A —— is used to isolate a bit, it does this because that ANI sets all other bits to Zero

a) subroutine

b) flag

c) label

d) mask



7. Interaction between a CPU and a peripheral device that takes place during and imput output operation is known as

a) handshaking

b) flagging

c) relocating

d) sub–routine



8. Addressing in which the instructions contains the address of the data to the operated on is known as

a) immediate addressing

b) implied addressing

c) register addressing

d) direct addressing



9. Resart is a special type of CALL in which

a) the address is programmed but not built into the hardware

b) the address is programmed built into the hardware

c) the address is not programmed but built into the hardware

d) None of the above



10. 8085 has …… software restarts and ….. hardware restarts

a) 10, 5

b) 8,4

c) 7,5

d) 6,6



11. Serial input data of 8085 can be loaded into bit 7 of the accumulator by

a) executing a RIM instruction

b) executing RST1

c) using TRAP

c) None of the above



12. The address to which a software or hardware restart branches is known as

a) vector location

b) SID

c) SOD

d) TRAP



13. TRAP is …..whereas RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5 are….

a) maskable, non maskable

b) maskable, maskable

c) non - maskable, non – maskable

d) non - maskable, maskable



14. micro processor with a 16 – bit address bus is used in a linear memory selection configuration address bus lines are directly used as chip selects of memory chips with four memory chips. The maximum addressable memory space is

a) 64K

b) 16 K

c) 8K

d) 4K

15. How many outputs are there in the output of a 10-bit D/A converter?

a) 1000

b) 1023

c) 1024

d) 1224



16. The stack is a specialized temporary …… access memory during ….. and …… instructions

a) random, store, load

b) random, push, load

c) sequential, store, pop

d) sequential, push, pop



17. The memory address of the last location of a 1K byte memory chip is given as OFBFFH what will be the address of the first location ?

a) OF817H

b) OF818H

c) OF8OOH

d) OF801H



18. What is the direction of address bus ?

a) Uni – directional into microprocessors

b) Uni – directional out of microprocessors

c) Bi – directional

d) mixed direction is when lines into micro processor and some other out of micro

processes.



19. The No. of control lines are ——-



20. The length of A – register is ——- bits



21. The length of program counter is ——– bits



22. The length of stack pointer is ——– bits



23. The length of status word is ——- bits



24. The length of temporary register ——- bits



25. The length of Data buffer register ——- bits



26. The No. of flags are ——-



27. The No. of interrupts are ——-



28. The memory word addressing capability is —— K



29. The No. of input output ports can be accessed by direct method ——-



30. The No. of input output ports can be accessed by memory mapped method —— K



31. If instruction RST is written in a program the program will jump ——- location.



32. When TRAP interrupt is triggered program control is transferred to ——- location.



33. The RST 5.5 interrupt service routine start from ——– location.



34. What is the purpose of using ALE signal high ?

a) To latch low order address from bus to separate A0 – A7

b) To latch data Do – D 7 from bus go separate data bus

c) To disable data bus latch



35. What is the purpose of READY signal?

a) It is used to indicate to user that microprocessor is working and ready to use

b) It is used to provide for proper WAIT states when microprocessor is communicating with slow peripheral device.

c) It is used to provide for proper showing down of fast peripheral devices so as to communicate at micro processors speed.



36. What is the addressing mode used in instruction MOV M, C?

a) Direct

b) Indirect

c) Indexed

d) Immediate



37. In 8085 the direction of address business is

a)bidirectional

b)unidirectional out of MP

c)unidirectional int MP

d)none of the above



38. In 8085 the hardware interrupts are

a)TRAP,RST 6.5,RST 7.5, RST 5.5 and INTR

b)RST o, RST 1…..RST 7

c)both a b

d)none of the above



39. In the TRAP, RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5, which is having top priority

a)TRAP

b)RST 7.5

c)RST 6.5

d)RST 5.5

40.In 8085 the no . of software interrupts are

a) 8

b)7

c)5

d)4



41. In the following interrupts which is the non-vectored interrupt

a)TRAP

b)INTR

c)RST 7.5

d)RST 6.5



42. Vector address for the TRAP interrupt is

a)0024 H

b)003C H

c)0034 H

d)002C H



43. In the following interrupt which is non-maskable interrupt

(a) Rst7.5

b) Rst 6.5

c) TRAP

d) INTR



44. Vector location Address for RST O Instruction is inflex

(a) ooooH

b) ooo8H

c) oo1oH

d)oo18H



45. In 8085 the Interput Acknowledge is represended by _______

(a) INTA

b)INTA

c) INTR

d) none of the above



46. The maximum number of I\o devices can be interfaced with 8085 in the I\o mapped I\o technique are

a) 128

b) 256

c) 64

d) 1024



47. The maximum number of I\o devices which can be interfaced in the memory mapped I\o technique are

a) 256

b) 128

c) 65536

d) 32768



48. Shadow Address will exist in

a) absolute decoding

b) linear decoding

c) partical decoding

d) none of the above



49. The Instructions used for data transfer in I\o mapped I\O are

a) IN, OUT

b) IN, LDA add

c) STA add

d) None of the above



50. Number of Address lines required to interface 1KB of memory are

a) 10

b)11

c) 12

d) 13

DRDO TECHNICAL QUESTION PAPER

1. If 100ns is Memory Access Time & 125 microsec is 1frame period. The no. of line that can be supported in a Time Divison Switch is
a)125 Lines
b)625 Lines
c)525 Lines
d)465 Lines

2. The no. of edjes in disjoint Hamilton circuit in a complex graph with 17 edges is
a) 8
b) 9
c) 136
d) 17^2

3. 15 persons in a club sit every day ina dinner table such that every member has different neighbour. This arrangement will last for how many days.
Assume a system has 16MB cache mean Disk Access Time & cache Access time is 76.5 ns & 1.5 overall mean Access time us 465ms for each tripling the memory the miss rate is halved. The memory required to bring down the mean Access time to 24ns is
a) 16 MB
b) 24 MB
c) 32 MB
d) 48 MB

4.Average transfer speed of a i/p serial line is minimum 25,000 Bytes & maximum 60000 Bytes. Polling Strategy adopted takes 4microsec(whether there is any i/p byte or not). It is assured that byte that retrived from controller before next byte arrives are lost. Then the maximum safe polling interveal is
a) 12
b) 12.33
c) 12.67
d) 32

5. A harddisk has a rotation speed of 4500RPM. then the latency time is
a) .4
b) .6
c) .7
d) .9

6.Suppose all elements above the principal diagonal od n x n matix A are zero. If non zero elements of the lower triangular Matrix is stored in an array B with A[1][1] stored at B[1]. The addressing formula to the nonzero element in A[i][j]=?
a) A[i][j]
b) i(j-1)/2 +i
c) j(i-1)/2 +i
d) i(i-1)/2 +j

7.The minumum number of comparisons requied to find the second smallest element in a 1000 element array is
a) 1008
b) 1010
c) 1999
d) 2000

8.The internal path length of a Bonary Tree with 10nodes is 25. The external path length is
a) 25
b) 35
c) 40
d) 45

9.Average No. of Comparisons required to sort 3 elements is
a) 2
b) 2.33
c) 2.67
d) 3

10.In a switch the mean arrival rate of packets is 800 Packets/sec and the the mean service rate is 925 Packets/sec
a) .008 Sec
b) .08 sec
c) .8 sec
d) 1.1 sec

11. What is Interface Control Information?

12. The minumum no. of Multiplications needed to compute x^768 is
a) 9
b) 10
c) 425
d) 767

13. Find values for a,b,c,d
c 1 1 1
0 a 1 b
_______
1 0 d 0

(967)basex = 321base9

14. The area of red planet where the Mars Rover Landed? In Which Day world Telecom Day Celebrated? Laser is used for what?
a) Treatment of Cancer
b) Treatment of Eyes
c) Treatment of Heart
d) Treatment of Kidney

15.Which country is not a Member of SAARC
a) Bangladesh
b) Myanmar
c) Maldives
d) Nepal

The New Biotechnology Software intorduced by TCS is?

16.The New Biotechnology Software intorduced by TCS is? What is Wi Fi?

17.Which is the fastest Cruise Missile?

DRDO Exam Paper - EMT & Microprocessor


EMT and microprocessor:

Make sure that u know the fundas of microprocessors useful in interview also: see if u know these questions

1. Which type of architecture 8085 has?

2. How many memory locations can be addressed by a microprocessor with 14 address lines?

3. 8085 is how many bit microprocessor?

4. Why is data bus bi-directional?

5. What is the function of accumulator?

6. What is flag, bus?

7. What are tri-state devices and why they are essential in a bus oriented system?

8. Why are program counter and stack pointer 16-bit registers?

9. What does it mean by embedded system?

10. What are the different addressing modes in 8085?

11.What is the difference between MOV and MVI?

12. What are the functions of RIM, SIM, IN?

13. What is the immediate addressing mode?

14. What are the different flags in 8085?

15. What happens during DMA transfer?

16. What do you mean by wait state? What is its need?

17. What is PSW?

18. What is ALE? Explain the functions of ALE in 8085.

19. What is a program counter? What is its use?

20. What is an interrupt?

21. Which line will be activated when an output device require attention from CPU?