Showing posts with label BSNL. Show all posts
Showing posts with label BSNL. Show all posts

Monday, November 28, 2011

BSNL MADHYA PRADESH JTO RECRUITMENT

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
(A Government of India Enterprise)
O/o Chief General Manager,  M.P.Telecom Circle, Bhopal-462015 (MP)

Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers for persons with disabilities (PWD). Special recruitment Drive


BSNL  MP will recruit Junior Telecom Officers (JTOs) through Special Recruitment Drive (SRD) for Persons with Disability (PWD) in the IDA pay scale of Rs. 16400-40500. :
  • Junior Telecom. Officers (JTOs) : 06  posts (Telecom-5, Civil-2), Pay Scale : Rs. 16400-40500 (IDA Pattern), Age : 30 years. Relaxation For PWD candidates upto 10 years for OC candidate; 15 years for SC/ST and 13 years for OBC, Qualification :  Bachelor of Engineering/ Bachelor of Technology or equivalent Engineering degree in any of the following disciplines from a recognized engineering college / university: Telecommunication/ Electronics/ Radio/ Computer/ Electrical./  IT (Information Technolog)/ Instrumentation/ Civil/ Electrical
Last Date : Application in the prescribed format should be send on or before 12/12/2011 to    The DGM (HR), O/o the CGM Telecom, BSNL, M.P.Telecom Circle, BSNL Bhawan, 2nd floor, Room No. 213, Hoshangabad Road, Bhopal-462015

Please view http://mp.bsnl.co.in/images/jtosrd2011.pdf  for details and application format. 


BSNL BIHAR JTO RECRUITMENT


Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
(A Government of India Enterprise)
O/o Chief General Manager, Bihar  Telecom Circle, Patna Bihar 
 
Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers for persons with disabilities (PWD). Special recruitment Drive


BSNL  Bihar will recruit Junior Telecom Officers (JTOs) through Special Recruitment Drive (SRD) for Persons with Disability (PWD) in the IDA pay scale of Rs. 16400-40500. :
  • Junior Telecom. Officers (JTOs) : 06 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 16400-40500 (IDA Pattern), Age : 30 years. Relaxation For PWD candidates upto 10 years for OC candidate; 15 years for SC/ST and 13 years for OBC, Qualification :  Bachelor of Engineering/ Bachelor of Technology or equivalent Engineering degree in any of the following disciplines from a recognized engineering college / university: Telecommunication/ Electronics/ Radio/ Computer/ Electrical./  IT (Information Technolog)/ Instrumentation/ Civil/ Electrical
Last Date : Application in the prescribed format should be send on or before 12/12/2011 to  Deputy General Manager (Admin), O/o CGM Telecom, 3rd floor, Sanchar Sadan, Budh Marg, Patna - 1 (Bihar) 

 Please view https://docs.google.com/viewer?url=http://210.212.17.241/SpecialSchemes/JTO-SRD-2011.pdf&embedded=true&chrome=true&pli=1  for details and application format. 

BSNL GUJARAT JTO RECRUITMENT


Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
(A Government of India Enterprise)
O/o Chief General Manager,  Gujarat Circle, Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. [BSNL]

Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers for persons with disabilities (PWD). Special recruitment Drive


BSNL  Gujarat will recruit Junior Telecom Officers (JTOs) through Special Recruitment Drive (SRD) for Persons with Disability (PWD) in the IDA pay scale of Rs. 16400-40500. :

  • Junior Telecom. Officers (JTOs) : 25  posts (Telecom-5, Civil-2), Pay Scale : Rs. 16400-40500 (IDA Pattern), Age : 30 years. Relaxation For PWD candidates upto 10 years for OC candidate; 15 years for SC/ST and 13 years for OBC, Qualification :  Bachelor of Engineering/ Bachelor of Technology or equivalent Engineering degree in any of the following disciplines from a recognized engineering college / university: Telecommunication/ Electronics/ Radio/ Computer/ Electrical./  IT (Information Technolog)/ Instrumentation/ Civil/ Electrical
Last Date : Application in the prescribed format should be send on or before 12/12/2011.
Please visit http://www.gujarat.bsnl.co.in/News/Marketing_News.aspx  for details and application format. 

Wednesday, November 23, 2011

BSNL JTO RECRUITMENT


Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
(A Government of India Enterprise)
O/o Chief General Manager, U.P. (West) Telecom Circle, Shastri Nagar, 
Telephone Exchange, Tej Garhi Chauk, Meerut (UP)
 
Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers for persons with disabilities (PWD). Special recruitment Drive


BSNL  UP West will recruit Junior Telecom Officers (JTOs) through Special Recruitment Drive (SRD) for Persons with Disability (PWD) in the IDA pay scale of Rs. 16400-40500. :

  • Junior Telecom. Officers (JTOs) : 03 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 16400-40500 (IDA Pattern), Age : 30 years. Relaxation For PWD candidates upto 10 years for OC candidate; 15 years for SC/ST and 13 years for OBC, Qualification :  Bachelor of Engineering/ Bachelor of Technology or equivalent Engineering degree in any of the following disciplines from a recognized engineering college / university: Telecommunication/ Electronics/ Radio/ Computer/ Electrical./  IT (Information Technolog)/ Instrumentation/ Civil/ Electrical
Last Date : Application in the prescribed format should be send on or before 12/12/2011 to  Deputy General Manager (HR&Admn.), O/o CGMT, U.P.(W) Telecom Circle, BSNL, Ist floor Shastri Nagar Telephone Exchange, Tejgarhi Chauk, Meerut-250004  (UP)

 Please view http://www.upw.bsnl.co.in/upw-rectt-jto-srd-2011.pdf  for details and application format. 

Friday, November 4, 2011

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers (JTO) Exam 2009 Paper

1. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c) It’s value for all substances is less than one
d) None
Answer is :- It is dimensionless

2. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
Answer is :- high conductivity and large temperature coefficient

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel
Answer is :- Air

4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2
Answer is :- C a V-1/3

5. A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
Answer is :-A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature

6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET
Answer is :- Forward biased pn junction diode

7. The location of lightning arrestor is -
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None
Answer is :- Near the transformer

8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
Answer is :- Increased

9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps
Answer is :- Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from

10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias
Answer is :- Gate reverse bias

11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6
Answer is :- 105

12. When biased correctly, a zener diode –
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats
Answer is :- has a constant voltage across it

13. The current amplification factor adc is given by –
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC
Answer is :- IC/IE

14. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none
Answer is :- high input impedance

15. The source-drain channel of JFET is -
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b
Answer is :- both a and b

16. diac is equivalent to a -
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width
Answer is :- Pair of four layer SCRs

17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´ 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be –
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3
Answer is :- 103/ cm3

18. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero’ represents -
a) Kirchhoff’s law
b) Norton’s theorem
c) Thevenin’s theorem
d) Superposition theorem
Answer is :- Superposition theorem

19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is –
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode
Answer is :- TE01 mode

20. A two-port network is symmetrical if –
a) z11z22 – z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
c) AD – BC = 1
d) y11y22 – y12y21 = 1
Answer is :-AD – BC = 1

21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position
Answer is :- double stub

22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network
Answer is:- only by an RLC network

23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements –
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C
Answer is :- L and C

24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to –
a) B
b) Z12
c) —
d) h12
Answer is :- Z12

25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.
Answer is :-Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
a) 250 –300 MHz
b) 150 – 200 MHz
c) 90 – 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz
Answer is :-90 – 105 MHz

Thursday, May 19, 2011

BSNL TTA RECRUITMENT


BHARAT SANCHAR NIGAM LIMITED (BSNL)
Bihar Telecom Circle

Name Of Post: Telecom Technical Assistant (TTAS)
Total Vacancies : 171
Pay Scale: Rs. 13600 to 25420 plus allowances per month

Qualification:
The candidate must have obtained Three years Diploma in Engineering in any of the following disciplines as on 20/07/2009 :

(a)Three years Diploma in Engineering in
* Telecommunications Engineering
* Electronics Engineering
* Electrical Engineering
* Radio Engineering
* Computer Engineering
* Instruments Technology
* Information Technology
(b)M.Sc. (Electronics) from a recognized institution/University.

Note:
(a) For above qualifications & streams, no equivalence shall be accepted.

(b) Candidates possessing higher qualification in the eligible streams are also eligible.

(c) Candidates possessing Three year Diploma certificates are eligible to appear in the Exam irrespective of percentage of marks obtained by them.

(d) In case a candidate is possessing requisite educational qualification, irrespective of having entered the course in the 2nd year through lateral entry level after 10+2, he/she will be eligible to appear in the exam.

How to apply:
The specimen of the application form is included in this advertisement as Annexure I. Neatly typed [only on one side of paper] copy in A4 size [30 cms. X 20 cms] may be used for making application. Applications complete in all respects should reach AGM (Estt) O/o the Chief General Manager Telecom, Bihar Telecom Circle, Sanchar Sadan, Budh Marg, Patna: 800001 on or before 15/06/2011. BSNL shall not be responsible for any postal delay. The envelope containing the application must be superscribed with “APPLICATION FOR RECRUITMENT OF TELECOM TECHNICAL ASSISTANT  in block letters. Three identical copies of recent Passport size Photographs out of which one should be pasted (not stapled or pinned) on the application form, duly attested, and the other two to be pasted on the admit card at the place marked for this (Admit Card in Duplicate) (not to be attested) along with two self addressed unstamped envelopes (size 27 cm X 12 cm) should be enclosed.

Closing Date: 15/06/2011 5.00 PM

For Detailed Recruitment Notification Click Here

Sunday, May 15, 2011

JTO SYLLABUS

SECTION – I
1. Materials and components
Structure and properties of Electronic Engineering materials, Conductors,
Semiconductors and Insulators, Magnetic, Ferroelectric, Piezoelectric, Ceramic,
Optical and Superconducting materials. Passive components and characteristics,
Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors; Ferrites, Quartz crystal, Ceramic resonators,
Electromagnetic and Electromechanical components.

2. Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs
Electrons and holes in semiconductors, Carrier Statistics, Mechanics of current flow
in a semi-conductor, Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their
characteristics; Bipolar Junction transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching
devices like SCRs, CTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS
types; Basics of Opto Electronics.

3. Network theory
Network analysis techniques: Network theorem, transcient and steady state
sinusoidal response, Transmission criteria: delay and rise time Elmore’s and other
definition, effect of cascading. Elements of network synthesis.

4. Electromagnetic Theory
Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, microstrip
lines; Basics of waveguides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.

5. Electronic Measurements and instrumentation
Basic concepts, standards and error analysis; Measurements of basic electrical
quantities and parameters; Electronic measuring instruments and their principles of
working: analog and digital, comparison, characteristics, applications. Transducers;
Electronic measurements of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure,
humidity etc. Basics of telemetry for industrial use.

6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices, Thyristor, Power transistor, MOSFETs, Characteristics
and operation. AC to DC convertors; 1-Phase and 3-phase DC to DC Convertors. AC
regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors, switched capacitor networks.
Inverters: Single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal
modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.

SECTION-II
1. Analog Electronic Circuits
Transistor biasing and stabilization, Small Signal analysis. Power amplifiers.
Frequency response, Wide band techniques, Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers.
Oscillators. Rectifiers and power supplies. Operational Amplifier, other linear
integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and waveform
generators.

2. Digital Electronic Circuits
Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean
functions, Karnaugh Map and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics;
IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS and CMOS gates and their
comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, full adder; Digital Compartor;
Multiplexer Demultiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops, R-S, J-K, D and T
flip-flops; Different types of counters and registers; waveform generators. A/D and
D/A convertors. Semiconductor memories.

3. Control Systems
Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on
stability and sensitivity, Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis.
Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M and Constant-N Nichol’s Chart;
Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation
of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control
Systems, Compensators; Industrial controllers.

4. Communication systems
Basic information theory: Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems;
Sampling and data reconstruction. Quantization & Coding; Time division and
frequency division multiplexing; Equalisation; Optical Communication: in free space
& fibre optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency;
Satellite communication.

5. Microwave Engineering
Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers,
Waveguides and other Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits,
Microwave antennas, Microwave Measurements, MASERS LASERS; Microwave
Propogation. Microwave Communication Systems-terrestrial and satellite based.

6. Computer Engineering
Number Systems; Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level
programming language PASCAL/C; use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of
computer architecture processor design; Control unit design; Memory organization.
I/O System Organization. Personal computers and their typical uses.

7. Microprocessors
Microprocessor architecture - Instruction set and simple assembly language
programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Microprocessors in
Telecommunications and power system.
  
SECTION-III
General ability test
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of General English shall be
tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of
such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as
may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events
and developments in Telecommunications, History of India and Geography. These
will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated
person.
Scheme and Syllabus for the Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers(Electrical) Examination - 2008
SCHEME
For direct recruitment of JTOs(Electrical), an objective type examination of one
paper of three hours duration consisting of following sections will be conducted :-
Section-I : Electrical Engineering : 50 questions
Section-II : Electrical Engineering : 50 questions
Section-III : General Awareness : 20 questions
The questions will be so designed as to assess the ability of the candidates to apply
their technical knowledge to the solution of the problems.
The syllabus for JTOs(Electrical) Paper will as given below.

SYLLABUS
SECTION-I - ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. EM Theory
Electric and magnetic fields. Gauss's Law and Amperes Law. Fields in dielectrics,
conductors and magnetic materials. Maxwell's equations. Time varying fields. Plane-
Wave propagating in dielectric and conducting media. Transmission lines.
2. Electrical Materials
Band Theory, Conductors, Semi-conductors. and Insulators. Superconductivity.
Insulators for electrical and electronic applications. Magnetic materials. Ferro and
ferri magnetism. Ceramics, Properties and applications. Hall effect alJd its
applications. Special semi conductors.
3. Electrical Circuits
Circuits elements. Kirchoff's Laws. Mesh and nodal analysis. Network Theorems and
applications. Natural response and forced response. Transient response and steady
state response for arbitrary inputs. Properties of networks in terms of poles and
zeros. Transfer function. Resonant circuits. Three phase circuits. Two-port
networks. Elements of two-element network synthesis.
4. Measurements and Instrumentation
Units and Standards. Error analysis, measurement of current, Voltage, power,
Power-factor and energy. Indicating instruments. Measurement of resistance,
inductance, Capacitance and frequency. Bridge measurements. Electronic
measuring instruments. Digital Voltmeter and frequency counter. Transducers and
their applications to the measurement of non-electrical quantities like temperature,
pressure, flow-rate displacement, acceleration, noise level etc. Data acquisition
systems. AID and D/A converters.
5. Control System
Mathematical modelling of physical systems. Block diagrams and signal flow graphs
and their reduction. Time domain and frequency domain analysis of linear
dynamical system. Errors for different type of inputs and stability criteria for
feedback systems. Stability analysis using Routh-Hurwitz array, Nyquist plot and
Bode plot. Root locus and Nicols chart and the estimation of gain and phase margin.
Basic concepts of compensator design. State variable matrix and its use in system
modelling and design. Sampled data system and performance of such a system with
the samples in the error channel. Stability of sampled data system. Elements of non-
linear control analysis. Control system components, electromechanical, hydraulic,
pneumatic components.
SECTION-II - ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. Electrical Machines and Power Transformers
Magnetic Circuits - Analysis and Design of Power transformers. Construction and
testing. Equivalent circuits. Losses and efficiency. Regulation. Auto-transformer, 3-
phase transformer. Parallel operation.
Basic concepts in rotating machines. EMF, torque, basic machine types.
Construction and operation, leakage losses and efficiency.
D.C. Machines. Construction, Excitation methods. Circuit models. Armature reaction
and commutation. Characteristics and performance analysis. Generators and
motors. Starting and speed control. Testing, Losses and efficiency.
Synchronous Machines. Construction. Circuit model. Operating characteristics and
performance analysis. Synchronous reactance. Efficiency. Voltage regulation.
Salient-pole machine, Parallel operation. . tiunting. Short circuit transients.
Induction Machines. Construction. Principle of operation. Rotating fields.
Characteristics and performance analysis. Determination of circuit model. Circle
diagram. Starting and speed control.
Fractional KW motors. Single-phase synchronous and induction motors.
2. Power systems
Types of Power Stations, Hydro, Thermal and Nuclear Stations. Pumped storage
plants. Economics and operating factors. Power transmission lines. Modeling and
performance characteristics. Voltage control. Load flow studies. Optimal power
system operation. Load frequency control. Symmetrical short circuit analysis. ZBus
formulation. Symmetrical Components. Per Unit representation. Fault analysis.
Transient and steady-state stability of power systems. Equal area criterion. Power
system Transients. Power system Protection Circuit breakers. Relays. HVDC
transmission.
3. Analog and Digital Electronics and Circuits
Semiconductor device physics, PN junctions and transistors, circuit models and
parameters, FET, Zener, tunnel, Schottky, photo diodes and their applications,
rectifier circuits, voltage regulators and multipliers, switching behavior of diodes
and transistors. Small signal amplifiers, biasing circuits, frequency response and
improvement, multistage amplifiers and feed-back amplifiers, D.C. amplifiers,
Oscillators. Large signal amplifiers, coupling methods, push pull amplifiers,
operational amplifiers, wave shaping circuits. Multivibrators and flip-flops and their
applications. Digital logic gate families, universal gates-combination circuits for
arithmetic and logic operational, sequential logic circuits. Counters, registers, RAM
and ROMs.
4. Microprocessor
Microprocessor architecture-Instruction set and simple assembly language
programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Micro-processors in
power system.
5. Communication Systems
Types of modulation; AM, FM and PM. Demodulators. Noise and bandwidth
considerations. Digital communication systems. Pulse code modulation and
demodulation. Elements of sound and vision broadcasting. Carrier communication.
Frequency division and time division multiplexing, Telemetry system in power
engineering.
6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices. Thyristor. Power transistor, GTOs and MOSFETS.
Characteristics and operation. AC to DC Converters; 1phase and 3-phase DC to
DC Converters; AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors; switched capacitor
networks. Inverters; single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal
modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.
SECTION-III - GENERAL ABILITY TEST
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of general English shall be
tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of
such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as
may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events
and developments in Tele Communications, History of India and Geography. These
will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated
person.
Scheme and Syllabus for the Recruitment of  Engineer Junior Telecom Officers(Civil)
For Direct Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officer(Civil), an objective type Examination of 3 hours duration consisting of following sectional papers will be conducted:
SCHEME
A. Civil Engineering Stream Section - I : 50 questions
B. Civil Engineering Stream Section - II : 50 questions
C. General Ability Test Section - III : 20 questions
1. The standard of paper in Engineering subjects will be that of Engineering
Degree Examination of Indian University.
2. In the general ability test, special attention will be paid to assess the
candidate’s capacity for general awareness. The standard of paper in
general
ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering
Graduate.
3. The syllabus for Civil Engineering stream paper will be as given below.

SYLLABUS:
SECTION-I - CIVIL ENGINEERING STREAM
BUILDING MATERIAL:
Timber: Different types and species of structural timber, density-moisture
relationship, strength in different directions, defects, influence of defects on
permissible stress, preservation, dry and wet rots, plywood, codal provision for
design.
Bricks: Types, Indian standard classification, absorption, saturation factor, strength
in masonry, influence of mortar strength and masonary strength.
Cement: Compounds, different types, setting times, strength.
Cement Mortar: Ingredients, proportions, water demands, mortar for plastering and
masonry.
Concrete: Importance of W/C ratio, strength, ingredients including admixtures,
workability, testing, elasticity, non-destructive testing mix design method.

SOLID MECHANICS
Elastic constants, stress, plane stress, Mohr’s circle of stress, strains, plain strain,
Mohr’s circle of strain, combined stress. Elastic theories of Failure, simple and shear
bending, Torsion of circular and rectangular section and simple members.

1. STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS
Analysis of determinate structures- different methods including graphical methods.
Analysis of indeterminate skeletal frames- moment distribution, slope deflection,
stiffness and force methods, energy methods. Muller-Breslau principal and
application. Plastic analysis of indeterminate beams and simple frames-shape
factors.

2. DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES
Principle of working stress method. Design of connections of simple members. Built
up sections and frames. Design of Industrial roofs. Principles of ultimate load
design. Design of members and frames.
3. DESIGN OF CONCRETE AND MASONRY STRUCTURES.
Limit state design for bending, shear, axial compression and combined forces, Codal
provisions for slabs, beams, walls and footings. Working stress method of design of
R.C. members. Principles of prestressed concrete design, material, method of
prestressing losses. Design of simple members and determinates structures.
Introductions to prestressing of indeterminate structures. Design of brick masonary
as per I.S. codes.
4. CONSTRUCTION PRACTICE, PLANNING AND MANAGEMENT.
Concreting Equipment:
Weight batcher, Mixer, vibrator, batching plant, concrete pump. Cranes, hoists,
lifting equipment.
Earthwork Equipment:
Power shovel, hoe, dozer, dumper, trailers and tractors, rollers, sheep foot rollers,
pumps.
Construction, Planning and Management:
Bar chart, linked bar chart, work break down structures, Activity-on-arrow
diagrams. Critical path, probabilistic activity durations; Event-based networks.
PERT network: Time-cost study, crashing; Resource allocation.
SECTION- II - CIVIL ENGINEERING STREAM
1. (a) FLUID MECHANICS, OPEN CHANNEL, PIPE FLOW:
Fluid properties, pressure, thrust, Buoyancy, Flow Kinematics, integration, of flow
equation, Flow measurement, Relative motion, Moment of momentum, Viscosity,
Boundary layer and control, Drag, Lift, Dimensional analysis, Modeling, Cavitations,
Flow oscillations, Momentum and Energy principles, in open cannel flow, Flow
control, Hydraulic jump, Flow section and properties, Normal flow, Gradually varied
flow, Flow development and losses in pipe flows, Measurements, Siphons, Surges
and Water hammer, Delivery of Power Pipe networks.
(b) HYDRAULIC MACHINES AND HYDROPOWER
Centrifugal pumps, performance parameters, scaling, pumps in parallel,
Reciprocating pumps, air vessels, performance parameters;
2. (a) HYDROLOGY:
Hydrological cycle, precipitation and related data analysis, PMP, unit and synthetic
hydrographs, Evaporation and transpiration, floods and their management, PMG,
Streams and their gauging, .River morphology. Rooting of floods, Capacity of
reservoirs.
(b) WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING:
Water resources of the globe: Multipurpose uses of Water, Soil Plant water
relationships, irrigation systems, water demand assessment, Storage and their
yields, ground water yield and well Hydraulics, Water logging, drainage design,
Irrigation revenue, Design of rigid boundary canals, Lacey’ and Tractive force
concepts in canal design, lining of canals; Sediment transport in canals; Non-
Overflow and overflow sections of gravity dams and their design, Energy dissipaters
and tail water rating, Design of head works, distribution work, falls, cross-drainage
work, outlets, River training.
ENVIRONMENT ENGINEERING
3. (a)WATER SUPPLY ENGINEERING.
Sources of supply, yield, design of intakes and conductors, Estimation of
demand, Water quality standards, Control of water born diseases. Primary
and secondary treatment, detailing and maintenance of treatment units.
Conveyance and distribution systems of treated water, leakage and
control, Rural water supply, Institutional and Industrial water supply.
(b) WASTE WATER ENGINEERING
Urban rain water disposal, system of sewage collection and disposal,
Design of sewers and sewerages systems, pumping, Characteristic of
sewage and its treatment, Disposal of products of sewage treatment,
stream flow rejuvenation, Institutional and industrial sewage
management, plumbing system, Rural and semi-urban sanitation.
(c) SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT
Sources, classification, collection and disposal, Design and Management of
landfills.
(d) AIR AND NOISE POLLUTION AND ECOLOGY.
Sources and effects of air pollution, monitoring of Air pollution, Noise-
pollution and standards; Ecological Chain and balance, Environmental
assessment.
4. (a) SOIL MECHANICS
Properties of soils, classification and interrelationship, Compaction
behavior, method of compaction and their choice, Permeability and
seepage, flow nets, Inverter filters, Compressibility and
consolidation ,shearing resistance, stresses and failure, SO testing in
laboratory and in-situ, Stress path and applications, Earth pressure
theories, stress distribution in soil, soil exploration, samplers, load
tests ,penetration tests.
(b) FOUNDATION ENGINEERING
Type of foundations, Selection criteria, bearing capacity, settlement,
laboratory and field test, Types of piles and their design and layout,
Foundations on expansive soils, swelling and it prevention , foundation on
swelling soils.
5. (a) SURVEYING
Classification of surveys, scales, accuracy, Measurement of distances-direct
and indirect methods, optical and electronic devices, Measurement of
directions, prismatic compass, local attraction, Theodolites-types
Measurment of elevations, Spirit and trigonometric leveling, Relief
representation,Contours,Digital elevation modeling concept, Establishment
of control by triangulations and traversing measurements and adjustment
of observations, computation of coordinates, Field astronomy, concept of
global positioning system, Map preparation by plane tabling and by
photogrammetry, Remote sensing concepts, map substitutes.
(b) TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
Planning of highway systems, alignment and geometric design, horizontal
and vertical curves, grade separation, Materials and construction methods
for different surfaces and maintenance, Principles of pavement design,
Drainage.
Traffic surveys, intersections, signalling, Mass transit systems,
accessibility, networking. Planning of railway systems, terminology and
designs, relating to gauge, track controls, transits, rolling stock, tractive
power and track modernization, Maintenance Appurtenant works,
Containerisation.
SECTION-III - GENERAL ABILITY TEST
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of general English shall be
tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of
such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as
may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events
and developments in Tele Communications, History of India and Geography. These
will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated
person.

Thursday, April 21, 2011

BSNL JTO EXAM 2011 SOLVED QUESTIONS

1. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of

(A) paper (B) rubber (C) ceramic (D) Mylar

2. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the
(A) infrared region (B) ultraviolet region (C) visible region (D) x-ray region

3. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively
(A) high and high (B) low and high (C) high and low (D) low and low.

4. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used suppress
(A) odd harmonics (B) even harmonics (C) fundamental component (D) dc component

5. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(A) mutual inductance between two coils only (B) self inductances of the two coils only

(C) mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils (D) none

6. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is
(A) Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
(B) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
(C) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
(D) The poynting vector points everywhere radially in to the volume between the plates.

7. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
(A) Polarization (B) Conductivity (C) Structural homogeneties (D) Ionization

8. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silion
(A) Boron (B) Indium (C) Germanium (D) Antimony

9. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess
(A) high thermal conductivity and high melting point (B) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point (C) High thermal conductivity and low melting point (D) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point.

10. An SCR can only be turned off via it’s
(A) cathode (B) anode (C) gates (D) none

11. Gold is often diffused into silicon PN junction devices to
(A) increase the recombination rate (B) reduce the recombination rate
(C) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor (D) make silicon semi-metal

12 With n nodes and b branches a network will have
(A) (b+n) links (B) b – n +1 links (C) b -n-1 links (D) b + n + 1 links

13. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 45

14. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is
(A) always positive (B) always negative
(C) sometime positive, sometime negative (D) numerically less then its kinetic energy.

15. A delition MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no
(A) channel (B) gate (C) P-N junctions (D) substrate

Tuesday, April 12, 2011

BSNL GE JTO Exam Paper 2008 ( Chennai)


1. Of the following bridges the one which can be used for the measurement of dielectric loss of a capacitor is –
a.) Schering bridge
b) Heaviside campbell equal ratio voltage
c) Owen bridge
d) Anderson bridge

2. LBDT is uses as a –
a). Displacement transducer
b) Pressure transducer
c) Temperature
d.) Any of the above

3. Polarization is a measure of -
a.) Dielectric constant per unit volume.
b.)Voltage gradient to produce electrical breakdown
c.) Product of charge & distance
d.)Excess charge density

4. Compared to the inductive type of transducer, capacitive transducer is superior for the measurement of displacement because of -
a.)Absence of non-linearity
b.) High frequency response
c.) Small size
d.) High accuracy

5. An incremental model of a solid state device is one which represents the –
a.) ac property of the device at the desired operating point
b.dc property of the device at all operating points
c.) Complete ac & dc behaviour of the device at all operating points
d.)ac property of the device at all operating points.

6. The ac resistance of a forward biased p-n junction diode operating at a bias voltage 'V' & carrying current ‘I’ is –
a. )Zero
b. )a constant value independent of Vand I
c.)
d.)

7. A meter is shielded with a soft iron to –
a. )Prevent damage from rough use
b.) Keep moisture out of movement
c. )Protect meter movement from stray magnetic fields
d.) Achieve all of the above

8. A capacitor that has been connected across a battery for comparatively long time becomes–
a. )Charged
b.) Discharged
c.) Short - circuited
d.) Defective

9. The charge on the plates of a capacitor is given by the expression –
a.) Q = VI
b.) Q = IR
c.) Q = CV
d.) Q = IC

10. Silicon steel used for electrical purposes has silicon percentage of –
a. )0.5
b.) 2.5
c.) 3.4
d). None

11. The feature of VTM is its –
a. )Low input impedance
b. )Low power consumbtion
c. )The ability to measure wider ranges of voltage & resistances
d). None

12. In an N-type semiconductor, the position of the fermi level –
a. )Is lower than the centre of the energy gap
b.) Is at the centre of the energy gap
c.)Is higher than the centre of the energy gap
d. )Can be anywhere depending upon the doping concentration

13. A JFET can operate in –
a.) depletion & enhancement model
b. )depletion mode only
c. )enhancement mode only
d.) neither enhancement nor depletion mode

14. Consider the following semiconductor diodes –
a. )Germanium diode
b.)Silicon diode
c.) Tunnel diode
d.) Schottky diode

15. A diode with a PIV of 50V is likely to break down when rectifying 50v ac supply because –
a.) it is made of defective material
b.) it is incorrectly connected to the supply
c.) peak value of ac supply exceeds the PIV value
d. ac supply is of extremely high frequency.

16. The set of transistor characteristics that enables a to be determined directly from the slope is –
a.) CE transfer characteristics
b. CE output characteristics
c.) CB transfer characteristics
d.) CB input characteristics

17. For an N-channel JFET, the drain voltage has to be –
a.) positive with respect to the source
b.) negative with respect to the source
c.) uncharged with respect to the source
d.)none

18. The SCR is often employed as a –
a. )Source-controlled switch
b. )Drain-controlled switch
c.) Gate-controlled switch
d) None

19. An oscilloscope has an input impedance consisting of 1MW & 20pF in parallel. A high impedance probe connected to the input of this oscilloscope has a 10MW series resistance, this 10MW resistance –
a.) Need not be shunted
b.) Should be shunted by a 2pF capacitor
c.) Should be shunted by a 20pF capacitor
d. Should be shunted by a 200pF capacitor

20. Compared to silicon, gallium arsenide (GaAs) has –
a. )Easier to grow crystals since the vapour pressure of arsenic is high
b. )Higher optolectronic conversion efficiency
c.) Both a & b
d). None

22. When all the resistances in the circuit are of one ohm each, then the equivalent resistance across the points A & B will be –
a.)1W
b.) 0.5W
c.) 2W
d). 1.5W

23. Of the following periodic waveforms the one having only odd harmonics of sinusoidal waveform is-
a. )1 & 2
b.) 1 & 3
c. )1 & 4
d. )2 & 4

28. When in a two terminal network, the open circuit voltage measured at the given terminals by an electronic voltmeter is 100V & a short circuit current measured at the same terminals by an ammeter of negligible resistance is 5A then if a resistor of 80W is connected at the same terminal, then the current in the load resistor will be –
a. 1A
b.) 1.25A
c). 6A
d. 6.25A


31. The electric potential due to an electric dipole of length L at point distance r away from it will be doubled if the -
a. ) Length L of the dipole is doubled
b. ) r is doubled
c. ) r is halved
d ) L is halved

32. When a particular mode is excited in a waveguide there appears an extra electric component in the direction of propogation . The resulting mode is
a. ) Longitudinal electric
b. ) Transverse electromagnetic
c. ) Transverse magnetic
d ). Transverse electric

33. When for a transmission line the open circuit & short circuit impedance are 20W & 5 W respectively then the characteristic impedance of the line is -
a. ) 100 Ohms
b ). 50 Ohms
c. ) 25 Ohms
d. ) 10 Ohms

34. In an ideal transmission line with matched load, the voltage standing wave ratio & reflection coefficient are respectively -
a. ) 1 & 1
b ). infinity & 1
c ) infinity & 0
d. 1 & 0

35. When an electric charge of 100 coulombs is enclosed in sphere of radius 100 m then the electric displacement density ( in coulomb / m2) D is –
a. ) 0.0833
b ). 0.833
c. ) 1.666
d. ) 10

36. For the dominant mode in a rectangular wavelength with breadth 10 cm, the guide wavelength for a signal of 2.5 GHz will be -
a. ) 12 cm
b. ) 15 cm
c. ) 18 cm
d. ) 20 cm

37. When the phase velocity of an electromagnetic waves depends on frequency in any medium, the phenomenon is called-
a. ) Scattering
b. )Polarization
c. ) Absorption
d. ) Dispersion

38. Antennas commonly used for microwave links are -
a. ) Loop antenna
b. ) Log-periodic antennas
c. ) Paraboloidal dishes
d ). Rhombic antennas

39. One of the following instrument which may be used to measure the optical activity of compounds is –
a. )Infrared spectrometer
b. ) Atomic absorption spectrometer
c. ) Polarimeter
d. ) Flouroscope

40. Schering bridge measures –
a. )Capacitance dielectric loss
b. ) Inductance
c. )Resistance
d. ) Mutual inductance

41.When a square wave is fed to an RC circuit, then –
a. ) voltage across R is square & across C is not square
b. ) voltage across C is not square & across R is not square
c. ) voltage across both R & C are square
d. ) voltage across both R & C are not square

42. The time constant of the RC circuit is –
a. ) less than the time period of the input square wave.
b ). much larger than the time period of the input square wave.
c. equal to the time period of the input square wave.
d ). none

43. Harmonic distortion for each frequency can be obtained by harmonic analyser of the –
a. )heterodyne type
b. ) tuned circuit type
c. ) fundamental suppression type`
d. ) bridge circuit type.

44. A three phase wattmeter requires –
a ). only two current coils & two pressure coils
b. )only one current coil & two pressure coil
c. ) only two current coils & one pressure coil
d. ) only current coil

45. A low pass filter circuit is basically –
a. ) a differentiating circuit with low time constant
b. ) a differentiating circuit with large time constant.
c. ) an integrating circuit with low time constant.
d. )an integrating circuit with large time constant.

46. If the differential pressure in restriction type flow measuring devices is then the flow will be proportional to –
47. When a system is represented by the transfer function then the dc gain of this system is –
a.) 1
b.) 2
c.) 5
d.) 10

48. Silicon based semiconductor device called thyristor was first fabricated by –
a). Jell laboratories in U.S.A
b). Maxwell laboratories in U.S.A
c.) Bell laboratories in U.S.A
d). GEC laboratories in U.S.A

49. A semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500mV/0C. This transducer is indeed a –
a.)Thermistor
b.) Forward biased pn junction diode
c. )Reverse biased pn junction diode
d.) FET
BSNL JTO Question Paper -- Solutions SOon! Download Free
50. Which of the followings pairs of Telemetry situations & Modulation techniques & conditions is correctly matched-
a. )Pulse amplitude modulation Low amplitude signals
b. )Pulse position modulation For short distance when power is enough
c.) Pulse width modulation Power to be spent in telemetry is required to be low
d.) Pulse code modulation. Minimisation of interference effects.

51. The SCR ratings di/dt in A/m sec & dv/dt in n/m sec, may vary, respectively between-
a.) 20 to 500, 10 to 100
b. )both 20 to 500
c.) both 10 to 100
d.) 50 to 300, 20 to 500

52. Match the given controlled rectifiers with 50 Hz supply
a. )1 phase full converter with source inductance
b. )3 phase full converter
c.)3 phase semiconductor
d. )3 phase halls wave converter

53. For natural or forced commutation the cyclo converters (CCs) requires as under.
a) natural commutation in both step up & step down CCs
b.) forced commutation in both step up & step down CCs
c.) forced commutation in step up CCs
d). forced commutation in step down CCs

54. The peak inverse voltage in ac to dc converter system is highest in-
a). single phase full wave mid point converter
b). single phase full converter
c) 3 phase bridge converter
d). 3 phase half wave converter.
55. A single phase full converter feeds power to RLE load with R = 6 W L = 6 MH & E = 60 V. The ac source voltage is 230 V, 50 Hz, For continuous conduction, the average value of load current for a firing angle delay of 50 is
a.)12.181 A
b). 14.81 A
c). 16.76 A
d.) 32.40 A

57. What is 215 complement of 00011100-
a.) 11100011
b.) 10001100
c.) 11100100
d.) 10000111

58. In C programming a expression contains relational operators, assignment operators & arithmetic operators if parentheses is absent then execution follows
a.) assignment, relational, arithmatic
b.) arithmatic, relational, assignment
c.) relational, arithmatic, assignment
d.) assignment, arithmatic, relational

59. In semiconductor memory information stored in form-
a.) binary
b.) hexadecimal
c.) octal
d.) ASCII

60. i\p to Not gate gives o/p as-
a ) inversion of some bits
b.) 2’s complement of i\p
c.) 1’s complement of i\p
d.) o/p is some as i\p

61. A negative logic means-
a .)logic 0 & 1 are represented by a +ve voltage respective
b). logic 0 & 1 are presented as –ve & +ve voltage
c. )logic 0 voltage is higher than logic 1 voltage level
d.) logic 0 voltage is lower than logic 1 voltage level

64.A 20,000 Ohms per volt meter will deflect full-scale with a current of -
a.) 50 mA
b.) 50 mA
c.) 100 mA
d.) 1000 mA

65. A plate modulated class –CRF power amplifier produces 100 KW of radiated power at 100 % modulation. The modulating audio amplifier supplies approximately -------- kW of this power-
a.)50
b).33
c).22
d).11

66..An amplifier without feedback has a distortion of 15 % & gain of 40. When 10% negative feedback is applied the distortion will become-
a.) 50 %
b). -45 %
c). 3%
d). -5%

67. MODEM implies-
a.)Modulator at transmitting side & ditector at the receiving side
b.)Which deals with analog signals & shows digital information
c.)Analog to digital at transmitting side & digital to analog at a receiving side
d).A device which deals with digital signals only

68. Twisted ring & ring counters are examples of –
a. )Synchronous counters
b.) Asynchronous counters
c.) both a & b
d.) None of the above

69. Specify Non characteristic flip flop in the following –
a.) The outputs are complement of each other
b.) The flip flop has two input signals
c.) The flip flop has two output signals
d). The flip flop is a bistable devise with only two stable states

70. The voltage obtained when digital input is 001 is a 3 bit R-2R ladder DIA converter is-
a.) VR/22
b.) VR/21
c.) VR/23
d.) none of the above

71. Identify NOT an octal number-
a.) 19
b). 15
c.) 77
d.) 101

72. The set of binary digits 01000100 represent's-
a.) number 6810 in a pure binary computer
b.) number 44 in 8421 BCD code
c) Both a & b
d.) None of the above

73. The system matrix of a continuous time system, described in the state variable form is –

The system is stable for all values of x & y satisfying –
a.)x <> 1/2 , y >0
d.) x < 0 , y < 1/2

74. The break away & break in point in the root locus for open loop transfer function G(S) H(S) = are located respectively at – a). –2 & -1 b). –2.47 & –3.77 c.) –4.27 & –7.73 d.) –7.73 & –4.27

77. The overall transfer function in a second order is given by- Its resonant frequency is - a.) 2 b.) c). d.) 3

78. The detection of an AM waveform in an Envelope –
a.)One side band & full amplitude carrier are needed
b.) Both side bands & full amplitude carrier are needed
c). Only two side bands are needed
d). Upper side band & part of carriers are needed

79. Satellite used for intercontinental communication is known as –
a.) Comsat
b). Dom sat
c.) Mari sat
d). Intelsat

80. Mark out non submarine cable –
a. )TAT – 7
b.) INTELSAT V
c.) ATLANTIS
d. )CANTAT 2

81. The capacity of an analog communication channel with 4kHz bandwidth & 15 dB SNR is approximately-
a). 20,000 bps
b). 16,000 bps
c.) 10,000 bps
d.) 8,000 bps

82. The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a.) Carrier frequency
b.) Pulse repetition frequency
c. )Antenna rotation rate
d.) Transmitted power

83. The output voltage in a feedback series regulator circuit is regulated by controlling the-
a.) Magnitude of the input voltage
b.) Gain of the feedback transistor
c.) Reference voltage
d.) Voltage drop across the series pass transistor

84. Indicate the signal not transmitted in colour TV-
a.) Y
b.) Q
c.) R
d.) I

85. As frequency of singal increases-
a.) Directivity increases & beam width increases
b.) Directivity & beam width decreases
c.) Directivity increases & beam width decreases
d.) Directivity decreases & beam width increases

86. The number of hardware interupts (which require an external signal to interrupt) present in on 8085 mP are
a). 1
b). 4
c.) 5
d.) 13

87. Highest priority interupt is-
a. )INTR
b. )RST 7.5
c. )RST 6.5
d. )TRAP

88. One instruction cycle means-
a. )Time require to execute set of instructions
b. )Time require to execute one instruction
c.) Time require to complete one operation of accessing memory, or I/o
d.) None of above

89. If the clock freq. is 5 mH3 how much time is required to execute on instruction of 18 T-states-
a. )3.6 msec.
b.) 36 m sec.
c.) 36 m sec.
d.) 36 sec.

90. In data transfer operation which flog get affected-
a. )zero flog
b. )carry flog
c. )sign flog.
d.) none

91. CMP instruction comes under group -
a. )Data transfer
b. )Brouching operations
c). Machine control operation
d.) logical operations

92. The logic operation-
a.) are performed in relation to content of Accemce lotor
b).can be performed derectly with content of the register.
c.)are performed without content of a
d.)none of above.

93. What happen when PUSH instruction executed -
a.) data retrieved from stock to register
b.) data from register saved on the stock.
c.) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock.
d.) 16 bit address from stock retrieved

94. SIM stands for-
a.) serial interface memory
b.) set interrupt mosk
c.) set if minus
d.) set internal memory

95. Maximum clock frequency required to operate 8085-
a. )2 MHz
b.) 3 MHz
c) 6 MHz
d. )9 MHz

96. ASCII code is-
a). 7 bit
b). 8 bit
c.)16 bit
d.) 32 bit.

97. In memory mapped I/O address lines are-
a. ) 8
b.) 16
c.) 32
d.) 64

98. The parity bit adding technique is used for -
a. )Indexing
b. )Coding
c. )Error detection
d. )Controlling

99. A demultiplexer-
a. )has multiple i/p & single o/p
b.) has single i/p & multiple o/p
c.) has multiple i/p & multiple o/p
d.) has single i/p & single o/p

100. Subroutines are useful-
a. )to reduce storage requirements
b.) to increase programming speed & reduce storage
c.) most applications are same
d.) but increases expense

101. As daring goes with temerity same way clear-sighted with –
a. )Perspicacity
b.) Impulsiveness
c.)Energy
d. )Clemency

102. A man who visits his friend is a –
a. ) Host
b. ) Guest
c. ) Master
d.) Owner

103. Zealot is –
a. )beginner
b.) Patron
c.) fanatic
d.) Murderer

104 Give the plural of ‘Mouse’ –
a. )Mouse’s
b). Mice
c). Mouse
d). None

105. Find the part of speech of the underlined word – Shama & Radha were playing together.
a. )Preposition.
b. )Noun
c. )Conjunction.
d) Verb.

106. Which of the following is not one of the multiple names of ganesha?
a). Vinayaka
b). Lambodra
c.) Ekadanta
d.) Vighneshwara
e. )all of the above

107. If a man weighs 60 Kilograms on earth, how much will be his weight on the moon?
a. )50 kg
b. )40 kg
c. )20 kg
d. )10 kg

108. The only Indian star selected for waxing at the famous Madame Tussaud’s wax is-
a. )Salman Khan
b. )Amitabh Bachan
c. )ShahRukh Khan.
d. )Raj Kapoor

109 Rate of gowth of per capita income in India drops down to – percent in 2000-2001-.
a. )5.3 percent
b. )3.5 percent
c. )4.8 percent
d. )8.4 percent

110. Ascorbic acid is the chemical name of-
a. )Vitamin A
b. )Vitamin B
c. )Vitamin C
d.) Vitamin D

111. All India Muslim League was founded by-
a. )Nawab Slimullah Khan
b. )Sir Mohd Iqubal
c.) Sir syed Ahmed Khan
d.) Moulana Shaukat Ali

112. Red Blood corpuscles are formed in-
a. )Marrow
b.) Kidney
c). Liver
d). heart

113. The southern most tip of India is in-
a. )Lakshadweeep
b.) Kanya Kumari
c. )Andaman & Nicobar Islands
d. )Rameswaram

114. The first bowler in cricket history to take 500 test wickets is-
a.) Imran Khan
b). Courtney Walsh
c). Shane Warne
d.) Muttiah Murlidharan

115. President of the National Consumer Disputes Redress al Commission (NCDRC) is-
a.) Mr. D.C Wadhwa
b). Mr. A. P Wadhwa
c.) Mr. A. C Wadhwa
d.) Mr. D. P Wadhwa

116. C.V. Raman got Nobel Prize for-
a. )Themodynamics
b.) Quantum theory
c. )Optics & spectroscopy
d.) Nuclear Physics

117. First governor general of Bengal-
a). Lord Clive
b.) Lord warren Hastings
c. )Lord Lytton
d.) Lord Ripon

118. The slogan “Do or Die” is associated with-
a.) Subhash Chandra Bose
b.) Gandhigi
c.) Harijan
d.) Satyagraha

119. Champaran is in the state of-
a). Gujarat
b). Maharashtra
c.) Bihar
d). Madhya Pradesh

120. These tribes are found in central Asia-
a. )Garos
b. )Kirghiz
c.) Lushai
d). Santhals

Friday, December 10, 2010

BSNL JTO Previous paper

1. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is –

a). Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.

b.) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.

c.) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.

d.) The poynting vector points everywhere radially into the volume between the plates.

2. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to –

a. )Polarization

b.)Conductivity

c.)Structural homogeneties

d) Ionization

3. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon –

a.)Boron

b) Indium

c) Germanium

d) Antimony

4. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess –

a)High thermal conductivity and high melting point

b) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point

c) High thermal conductivity and low melting point.

d) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point.

5. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the –

a) infrared region

b) ultraviolet region

c) visible region

d) x-ray region

6. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively –

a) high and high

b) low and high

c.) high and low

d.) low and low

7. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress

a.) odd harmonics

b.) even harmonics

c.) fundamental component

d.) dc component

8. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on –

a). mutual inductance between two coils only

b). self inductances of the two coils only

c). mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils

d.) none

9. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of –

a.) paper

b.) rubber

c.) ceramic

d.) Mylar

10. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is –

a.) always positive

b.) always negative

c.) sometime positive, sometime negative

d.) numerically less than its kinetic energy

11. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –

a.) channel

b.) gate

c.) P-N junctions

d.) substrate

12. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge over the normal strain gauge is that

a.) it is more sensitive

b.) it is more linear

c.) it is less temperature dependent

d.) it’s cost is low

13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by –

a.) thermally generated electrons and holes

b.) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction

c.) migration of minority carriers across the junction

d.) flow of drift current

14. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter –

a.) recombine with holes in the base

b.) recombine in the emitter itself

c.) pass through the base to the collector

d.) are stopped by the junction barrier

15. The value of r when a transistor is biased to cut off is –

a.) 0.5

b.) 0

c.) 1.0

d.) 0.8

16. A UJT can –

a.) be triggered by any one of it’s three terminals

b.) not be triggered

c.) be triggered by two of its three terminal only

d.) be triggered by all of its terminals only

17. An SCR can only be turned off via it’s –

a.) cathode

b.) anode

c.) gates

d) none

18. Gold is often diffused into silicon DN junction devices to –

a.) increase the recombination rate

b.) reduce the recombination rate

c.) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor

d.) make silicon semi-metal

19. With n nodes and b branches a network will have –

a.) (b + n) links

b.) b – n + 1 links

c.) b – n – 1 links

d.) b + n + 1 links

20. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be –

a.) 7

b.) 9

c.) 10

d.) 45

21. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give –

a.) an output power which is one – quarter of the input power

b.) an output power which is one – half of the input power

c.) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage

d.) an output power which is 0.707 of the input power

22. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer –

a.) the terminals are kept shorted

b.) critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals

c.) the terminals are kept open circuited

d.) it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals

23. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series and R1 and shunt arm R2 ?

1. R1 = 147W 2. R1 = 153W

3. R2 = 1.5W 4. R2 = 3750W

a..) 1 and 3

b.). 1 and 4

c.). 2 and 3

d..) 2 and 4

24. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294mH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is –

a..) 49w

b.). 60w

c..) 70w

d..) 140w

25. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is –

a..) 2

b..) 3

c..) 4

d..) 5

26. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network

1. Z11 = Z22 2. h12 = h21

3. Y12 = -Y21 4. BC – AD = -1

then the network is reciprocal if and only if –

a..) 1 and 2 are correct

b.) 2 and 3 are correct

c.) 3 and 4 are correct

d.). 4 alone is correct

27. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then th
e values of the node voltages are –

a.) will become half

b.) will remain uncha

c.). will become double

d.). cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known

28. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and uniform charge density in vacuum is-

29. Maxwell’s divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by

30. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 l at frequency f and if it’s radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then it’s radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be –

a). R/2 ohms

b). R ohms

c). 2R ohms

d). 4R ohms

31. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include

a.) TE111 and TM111

b). TE011 and TM011

c). TE022 and TM111

d). TE111 and TM011

32. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then it’s efficiency will be nearly

a). 0.19

b). 0.81

c). 0.97

d). 1.19

33. If an isolated conducting sphere in air has radius = 1/ 4pqe0 it capacitance will be

a). Zero

b). IF

c). 4pF

d). OF

34. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in it’s characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHz signal then if ‘d’ is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then

a). d = 1.5 cm

b). d is less then 1.5 cm

c). d is greater than 1.5 cm

d). d = 3cm

35. When a dipole antenna of l/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5 W then the efficiency of the antenna is

a). 0.89159 %

b). 8.9159 %

c). 89.159 %

d). 891.59 %

36. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally

a). 5 KHz

b). 15 KHz

c). 75 KHz

d). 200 KHz

37. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is –

a). sinusoidal

b). square

c). rectangular

d). triangular

38. Strain gauge is –

a). not a transducer

b). an active transducer

c). not an electronic instrument

d). none

39. A high Q coil has –

a). large band width

b). high losses

c). low losses

d). flat response

40. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is –

a). 1.810%

b). 0.181%

c). 18.10%

d). 0.0018%

41. The ‘h’ parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for –

a). High frequency, large signal operation

b.) High frequency, small signal operation

c.) Low frequency, small signal operation

d). Low frequency, large signal operation

42. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on –

a.) Values of input in the past and in the future

b). Values of input at that time and in the past

c). Values of input at that time and in the future

d). None

43. A iron cored choke is a –

a). Linear and active device

b). Non linear and passive device

c). Active device only

d). Linear device only

44. Poynting vector wattmeter uses –

a). Seebeck effect

b). Ferranti effect

c). Induction effect

d). Hall effect

45. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense ?

a). Thermocouple

b). Piezoelectric pick – up

c). Photo voltaic cell

d). LCD

46. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is –

a). Converter system

b). Inverter

c). Chopper

d). Thyristor

47. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode –

a). SCR

b). PCR

c). VCR

d). DCR

48. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a –

a). constant voltage source

b). constant current source

c). constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source

d). resistance

49. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of –

a). electrons only

b). electrons or holes

c). electrons and holes

d). holes only

50. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to secondary are respectively –

a). ferrite : 20 : 1

b). laminated iron : 1 : 1

c). ferrite : 1 : 1

d). powdered iron : 1 : 1

51. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a –

a.) 1 phase full converter

b). 3 phase half wave converter

c). 3 phase semi converter

d). 3 phase full converter

52. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is –

a.) square wave

b.) triangular wave

c )step function

d.) pulsed wave

53. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with centre tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is –

a). 100V

b). 141.4V

c). 200V

d). 282.8V

54. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying –

a). T keeping Ton constant

b). Ton keeping T constant

c). Toff keeping T constant

d.) None of the above

55. From the hot metal surface electrons escape because

a). of change of state from metal to gas due to heat.

b). of change of stats from gas to metal.

c). the energy supplied is greater than the work function .

d). the energy is greater than Fermi level.

56. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is –

a). amplifier

b). triode

c). diode

d). transistor

57. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is

a). Either cathode

b). Eith
er anode

c). The central tap on the high voltage secondary

d). Either plate

58. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will-

a). Amplify the noise as much as the signal

b). Reduce the noise

c). Increase the noise

d). Not effect the noise

59. Match the given feedback circuit with it’s proper nomenclatures

a). Current series feedback

b). Current shunt feedback

c). Voltage series feedback

d). Voltage shunt feedback

60. Class A amplifier is used when

a). No phase inversion is required

b). Highest voltage gain is required

c). dc voltages are to be amplified

d). Minimum distortion is desired

61. Identify the correct match for the given transistor

a). Enhancement type P channel MOSFET

b). Depletion type N channel MOSFET

c). Enhancement type N channel MOSFET

d). Depletion type P channel MOSFET

62. In case a signal band limited to fm is sampled at a rate less than 2fm, the constructed signal will be

a). Distortionless

b). Small in amplitude

c). Having higher frequencies suppressed

d). Distorted

63. Quad 2 input AND gates IC No is –

a). 7411

b). 7404

c). 7400

d). 7408

64. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as –

a). left shift register

b). right shift register

c). shift registers

d). none of the above

65. The expression can be simplified to

b.) AB + BC + CA

66. An ideal power supply consist of –

a) . Very small output resistance

b) . Zero internal resistance

c) . Very large input resistance

d) . Very large output resistance

67. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by –

68. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both –

a). count pulses

b). store binary operation

c). shift registers

d). made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip

69. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as –

a). 1111101

b). 0001 0010 0101

c). 7D

d). None of the above

70. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits required is –

a). 7

b). 8

c). 9

d). 200

71. On differentiation unit impulse function results in —

a). Unit parabolic function.

b). Unit triplet.

c). Unit doublet.

d). Unit ramp function.

72. Read the following;

i. Routh Hermitz`s criterion is in time domain.

ii. Root locus plot is in time domain.

iii. Bode plot is in frequency domain.

iv. Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain.

a). 2, 3, and 4 are correct

b). 1, 2 and 3 are correct

c). 3 and 4 are correct

d). All four are correct.

73. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function.

a). 150

b). 450

c). 300

d). 600

74. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is –

a). Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain.

b). Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action.

c). Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback.

d). Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action.

75. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function –

a). –40dB/dec to –20dB/dec

b). 40dB/dec to 20dB/dec

c). –20dB/dec to –40dB/dec

d). 40dB/dec to –20dB/dec

76. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by –

Number of asymptotes of its root loci is

a). 1

b). 2

c). 3

d). 4

77. In a closed – loop transfer function the imaginary axis intercepts of the root loci will be –

78. Considering the following statement :

In a magic tee

1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other

2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm

3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm

4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other.

Of these statements

a) 1 and 2 are correct

b). 1 and 3 are correct

c). 1 and 4 are correct

d). 2 and 3 are correct

79. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called –

a). ANIK

b). EARLY BIRD (Intel sat -1)

c). WESTAR

d). MOLNIYA

80. — watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite

a). 100

b). 500

c). 2000

d). 1000

81. The ripple factor in an LC filter

a). Increases with the load current

b). Increases with the load resistance

c). Remains constant with the load current

d). Has the lowest value

82. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their –

a). Language digits

b). Access digits

c). Area codes

d). Central office codes

83. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because

a). it is move noise immune than other modulation systems

b). compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power

c). its use avoids receiver complexity

d). no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity

84. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be

a). linear amplifier

b). harmonic generators

c). class C power amplifiers

d). class B untuned amplifiers

85. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on

a). maximum power of the transmitter

b). pulse repetition frequency

c). width of the transmitted pulse

d). sensitivity of the radar receiver

86. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to

a). equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace.

b). help vertical synchronization

c). help horiz
ontal synchronization.

d). simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse

87. The frequency range 30MHz – 300MHz is –

a). medium frequency

b). very high frequency

c). super high frequency

d). Infrared frequency

88. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide –

a.) TE

b). TM

c). TEM

d). HE

89. Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at –

a). upto 18kms from earth

b). from 18 to 70 km

c). 70 to 500 km

d). above 500 km

90. A two cavity klystron tube is a –

a). velocity modulated tube

b). frequency modulated tube

c). Amplitude modulated tube

d). simple triode

91. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get –

a). doubled

b). quadrupted

c). unchanged

d). halved

92. Which one is a cross field tube –

a). Klystron

b). Reflex Klystron

c.) Magnetron

d.) TWT

93. The degree of coupling depends on –

a). size of hole

b). location of holes

c). size and location of holes

d). not depend on size or location of hole

94. The thermal noise depends on –

a). direct current through device

b.) resistive component of resistance

c). reactive component of impedance

d) load to connected

95. The charge on a hole is –

96. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier

a.) is tuned above the stations incoming frequency

b). amplifies the output of local oscillator

c). is fixed tuned to one particular frequency

d). can be tuned to various isolate frequencies

97. A duplexer is used to

1. ) couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference
2. ) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator
3. ) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver
4. ) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference

98. Intel’s 8085 microprocessor chip contains

a). seven 8 bit registers

b). 8 seven bits registers

c). seven 7

d). eight 8

99. Boolean algebra is based on –

a). numbers

b). logic

c). truth

d). symbols

100. When A = 0, B = 0, C = 1 then in 2 input logic gate we get – - gate

a). XOR

b). AND

c). NAND

d). NOR

101. With the beginnings of space travel, we entered a new – -

a). Era of great history

b). List

c). Book

d). Year

102. An – - though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad.

a). Funny poem

b). Newspaper article

c). Orthodox talk

d). Elegy

103. If stare is glance so gulp is –

a). Sip

b). Tell

c). Salk

d). Admire

104. He hardly works means –

a). The work is hard

b). He is hard

c). The work is easy

d). He work very little

105. Give the opposite word for pulchritude –

a). antipathy

b). unsightliness

c). inexperience

d). languor

106. Nanometre is – - – - part of a metre.

a). Millionth

b). Ten millionth

c). Billionth

d). Ten billionth

107. Malaria affects

a). Liver

b). Spleen

c). Intestine

d). Lungs

108. Sindhu Rakshak is a/an

a). Aircraft carrier

b). Submarine

c). Multiple-purpose fighter

d). Anti-aircraft gun

109. With which subject is "Dada Saheb Phalke Award" associated?

a). Best film director

b). Best musician

c). Best documentary

d). Best work relating to promotion of Indian film Industry

110. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus?

a). Aryabhatta

b). Newton

c). Einstein

d). Archimedes

111. In which state is Kanha Park situated?

a). M.P.

b). U.P.

c). Assam

d). W. Bengal

112. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day?

a). 24th October

b). 4th July

c). 8th August

d.) 10th December

113. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of

a). Gupta architecture

b). Rashtrakuta architecture

c). Chalukya architecture

d). Chola architecture

114. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by

a). Joint sitting of the two Houses

b). President of India

c). Prime Minister of India

d). By a special committee for the purpose

115. Which of the following is not the work of Kalidasa?

a). Meghdoot

b). Raghuvansha

c). Sariputra Prakarma

d). Ritushamhara

116. Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of

a). Akbar the Great

b). Mahmud Ghaznvi

c). Shah Jahan

d.) Alauddin Khilji

117. The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ have been taken from

a). Vedas

b). Bhagwad Gita

c). Mundaka Upanishada

d). Mahabharata

e). None of these

118. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?

a). USA

b). USSR

c). China

d). Pakistan

119. "Kathakali" dance is connected with

a). Kerala

b). Rajasthan

c). Uttar Pradesh

d). Tamil Nadu

120. The term "Ashes" is associated with

a). Hockey

b). Cricket

c). Soccer

d). None of these