AP GENCO ASSISTANT ENGINEER 2012 ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING SOLVED PAPER (Written Test conducted on Dt : 22.01.2012)

APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer- Electrical Solved Paper

Written Exam will be of Duration 2 hours Consists 100 Marks (70 Questions based on Core & 30 Questions on Aptitude).

Booklet-C 

(EXAM HELD ON: 22-01-2012)

 1. Transfer Function of a System in  1/(s+1)(s+2) the impulse response of the System is
A) e^-2t  – e^-t    B) e^-2t  + e^-t      C) e^-t  + e^-2t       D) e^-t  – e^-2t
2. In a thermal power plant,ash is Collected in
A) Mills     B) hoppers    C) Bunkers    D) Boiler
3. The average life of neutrons after they decay is
A) 1 sec     B) 10 sec    C) 100 sec   D) 1000 sec
4. The Operating time of instantaneous relay is
A) 0.001 sec  B) 0.01 sec   C) 0.1 sec   D) 1 sec
6. Stringing chart is useful for
A) the design of tower   B) the design of insulator String   C) finding the Sag in the Conductor  D) finding the distance between the towers
7. The Self GMD method is used to evaluate
A) inductance   B) capacitance  C) inductance and capacitance   D) resistance
8. The velocity of travelling Wave through a cable of relative permitivity 36 is
A)  3 x 10⁸ m/sec   A)  2 x 10⁸ m/sec   A)  0.5 x 10⁸ m/sec   A)  10⁸ m/sec
9. The Coefficient of reflection for current wave is
A) 1  B) 2  C) -1  D) 0
10. A relay has a rating of 5A, 2.2 sec IDMT and relay setting of 125% TMS =0.6. It is connected to a supply circuit through a C.T. 400/5 ratio. The Fault Current is 4000 A. The operating current of the relay is
A) 6.25 A      B) 5A   C) 8A    D) 2.2 A
12. A single Phase transformer has resistance and reactance of 0.2 pu  and 0.6 pu respectively. Its pu voltage regulation at 0.8 pf lagging would be
A)  0.52   B) 0.42  C) 0.62  D) 0.36
14. A Differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000, CMRR : 80 dB. The common mode gain is given by
A) 1   B) 1/2    C) 2  D) 250
15. An amplifier has input power of 2 microwatts. The Power gain of the amplifier is 60 dB. The Output power will be
A) 2 milliwatts  B) 6 microwatts  C) 2 Watts   D) 120 microwatts
16. The voltage gains of the amplifier with and without feedback are 20 and 100 respectively. The percentage of negative feedback would be
A) 40%   B) 80%   C) 4%  D) 8%
17. For OPAMP in differential configuration, open loop gain is 100000, and differential input voltage is 2 μ V. Power supply for OPAMP is ± 12 V. Then Output voltage will be
A) + 12 V    B) -12 V   C)  0 V  D) 2 μ V
18. A 3-stage ripple counter has Flipflop with propagation delay of 25 nsec and pulse width of strobe input 10 nsec. Then the maximum operating frequency at which counter operates reliably is
A) 16.67 MHz     B) 17.6 MHz    C) 12.67 MHz    D) 11.76 MHz
19. The percent resolution of an 8-bit D/A converter is
A)  0.392   B) 1/256   C) 1/255    D)  (A) and (B) both
20. The Diode used in a clipping circuit has R_f = 25Ω  and R_r = 1 MΩ. The External resistor R is
A) 50 KΩ   B) 5KΩ    C) 1/25 MΩ   D) 25 MΩ
21. Which circuit is used as amplitude comparator?
A) Bistable  B) Monostable  C) Astable   D) Schmitt Trigger
23. An example of a bounded signal is
A) e^-4t    B) e^2t    C) t     D) e^t  sint
25. A Transfer function has a Second order denominator and constant gain in the numerator
A) the System has two zeros at the origin    B) the system has two finite zeros   C) the System has two zeros at infinity   D) the System has one zero at infinity
26. A system is linear if and only if it satisfies
A) principle of Superposition   B) principle of Homogeneity    C) both (A) and (B) above   D) neither (A) and (B) above
29. A 200 V dc shunt motor is running at 1000 rpm and drawing a current of 10 A. Its armature winding resistance is 2Ω. It is braked by plugging. The resistance to be connected in series with armature to restrict armature current to 10A, is
A) 32 Ω    B) 36 Ω    C)  38 Ω   D) 40 Ω
30. A transformer has maximum efficiency at 3/4 th of full load. The ratio of its iron loss (p_i) and full load copper loss (P_c), is
A) 4/3   B)  16/9   C) 9/16    D) 3/4
33. A single phase fully controlled rectifier has an average output voltage of 200 V when alpha=0 . Its output voltage when alpha = 30^o is approximately
A) 200 V     B) 160 V     C) 173 V    D) 183 V
34. A 200 V dc-dc converter is turned ON for 30 μ sec and turned off for 10 μ sec. The output voltage will be
A) 200 V    B) 150 V    C) 175 V   D) 120 V
35. In Single Pulse Modulation used in PWM Inverters, for eliminating third harmonic component in the output voltage , the pulse width should be
A) 60⁰   B) 90⁰   C) 110⁰   D) 120⁰
36. The Dynamic resistance of a p-n junction germanium diode at room temperature with current of 1 mA under forward biasing is
A) 100 Ω   B) 13 mΩ    C) 13 Ω   D) 26 Ω
37. Thermal runway is not possible in FET because as temperature of FET increases
A)  mobility increases  B) mobility Decreases  C) drain current decrease  D) transconductance increases
38. The initial value of   f(t), with transform  F(s) = s+1/ (s+2)(s+3)   is
A) 0    B) 1   C) ∞   D) 1/6
39. The two-port parameter h₂₁ is called
A) open-circuit output admittance    B) short-circuit input impedance   C) open-circuit reverse voltage gain  D) short-circuit forward current gain
41 . The impedance of a two-element series circuit is represented by (20-j10) Ω  at a certain frequency. If the frequency is doubled, the new value of impedance is
A) (20-j5) Ω    B) (40-j20) Ω  C)  (10-j10) Ω   D)  (20-j20) Ω
42. A unity feedback control system has forward-path transfer function  G(s) = K/s(s+2) . If the design specification is that the steady-state error due to a unit ramp input is 0.05,the value of K allowed is
A)  20  B) 40  C) 10  D) 80
43. The transfer function of a system has the form G(s) = 200 (s+2)/s(s²+10s+100) . At very high frequencies the Bode gain curve has a slope of
A)  -6 dB/octave   B) -12 dB/octave  C)  6 dB/octave  D) 12 dB/octave
44. A Unity feed-back system has open-loop transfer function GH (s) =  K/ s(s+4)(s+6) , It’s root locus plot intersects the jw axis at
A) ± j 2   B)  ± j 4   C) ± j 8  D) does not intersect the jw axis
45. Auto reclosing used in case of
A) Lightning arrester   B)  bulk oil C.B   C) air blast C.B   D) minimum oil C.B
46. A transmission line has 1 P.U impedance on a base of 11 KV,100 MVA. on a base of 55KV, it will have a P.U impedance of
A) 1 P.U     B)  0.2 P.U       C) 0.02 P.U      D) 0.1 P.U
47. A 50 Hz, 4 pole turboalternator rated at 20 MVA, 13.2 KV has an inertia constant H = 4 KW sec/KVA. The K.E Stored in the rotor at Synchronous speed is
A) 80 KJ       B) 80 MJ        C) 40 MJ       D) 20 MJ
48. The inertia constants of two groups of machines which do not swing together are M₁  and  M₂. The equivalent inertia constant is
A)  M₁ + M₂     B)  M₁ – M₂  if M₁ > M₂   C) √M₁M₂     D)   M₁ M₂ / (M₁ + M₂)
50. A 36-slot, 4-pole, dc machine has a simplex lap winding with two conductors per slot. The back pitch and front pitch adopted could be respectively
A) 15,13       B) 19,17      C) 21,19   D) 23,21
53. Two Synchronous generators G₁, G₂ are operating in parallel and are equally sharing KVAR (lag) component of load. To shift part of KVAR from G2  to G1, while keeping terminal voltage fixed, the following action must be done
A)   Raise If₁  and lower  If₂   B)  Lower If₁  and raise  If₂    C)  Lower If₁  or raise  If₂    D)  Raise If₁  or lower  If₂
APTITUDE SECTION 30 Questions :
71.   H1(x) = 1-x ,0
= 1,  x ≥ 1
= 0, otherwise
H2(x) = -H1(x) for all x
H3(x) = H2(-x) for all x
H4(x) = -H3(x) for all x
How many of the following products are necessarily zero for every value of   “x”?
H1(x) * H3(x) ; H3(x) * H2(x) ; H1(x) * H2(x)
A) 0  B) 1   C) 2  D)  3
73. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 m long and traveling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 sec is
A)  200 m     B)  225 m   C)   245  m    D)  250 m
74. If  “PAPER”  is 11.20, “PENCIL” is 9.83,  what will be the PEN ?
A)  12.80   B)  11.60  C) 1.66  D) 13.8
75. What is the sum of all numbers less than 100 that can be written as the sum of 9 consecutive positive integers?
A)  612   B) 630  C)  702  D) 504
78. X introduces Y saying: “He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of myfather”. How is Y related to X ?
A)  brother    B)  uncle   C)  co-brother   D) brother-in-law
79. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is 17th from the last. What is Ravi’s rank from the start ?
A)  11    B)  15   C) 13    D)   9
80. In a certain code, ‘bi nie pie’ means “some good jokes”;; ‘nie bat lik’ means “some real stories”;; ‘pie lik tol’ means “many good stories”. Which word in the code means ‘jokes’ ?
A)  nie    B)  pie   C)  lik   D)  bi
81. There are five bus stops. A,B,C,D,E at equal intervals. C is not the middle stop and A,E are not terminal stops. C comes twice as many stops before D in upward jpurney as B comes after A. D is the first stop in downward journey. The correct sequence of stops in the downward journey is
A)   ABDCE     B)   CDAEB     C)  DACEB     D)  DEBAC
82. Five persons namely Yasin,Arafat,Rasheed,Ali and Rehman are to be seated in five out of the six seats numbered 1 to 6. The following table provides information about the serial numbers of the seats on which each of the mentioned friends can possibly sit.

Names	Yasir	Arafat	Rasheed	Ali	Rehman
Seat No.	1	2 or 3	2,3 or 4	4 or 5	5 or 6

If one of the seats numbered 2 or 4 is unocuupied. then the number of different ways five mentioned persons can be seated is
A) 1   B)  2   C) 3  D)  4
83.   If (ABCD)_a = D*a^0 + C*a^1 + B*a^2 + A*a^3
(8448)₉/(2112)₉=(y)₃  then  y is
A) 011  B ) 101   C) 110   D) 111
84. Two straight lines can divide a circular disk into a maximum of 4 parts. Likewise, into How many maximum parts can four straight lines divide a circular disk?
A) 11   B) 21    C) 31    D)  41
85. When the numerator of a fraction is increased by 7 and denominator is increased by 13, the resulting number is equivalent to the obrained when numerator decreased by 2 and denominator decreased by 11. The sum of the numerator and denominator is 24. Find the fraction
A)  1/23    B)  7/17   C)  11/13     D)  5/19
86. A test contains 50 questions. Each correct answer fetches 1 mark and wrong answer gets 1/2 mark is deducted. A candidate who wrote the test attempted all the questions and scored 41 marks. Find the number of questions he answered correctly?
A)  46      B) 42     C) 44     D) 48
87. ABC is a three digit number. The sum of its digits is 9. If each of BA and BC are two digit numbers such that BA=BC-3. How many values C can take ?
A)  16    B) 6   C) 26   D) 36
88. The sum of three digit number and numbers formed by reversing its digits is 989. The sum of its digits is 13. Find the middle digit
A)  9    B)  6  C) 4  D) 2
89. An observer 1.6 m tall is 20√3 away from a tower .The angle of elevation from his eye to the top of the tower is 30⁰. The height of the tower is
A) 21.6 m   B) 23.2 m   C) 24.72 m  D) 21.4 m
90. Identify the odd one
A)  heart  B)  liver   C)  nose   D)  kidneys
91.  18, 10, 6, 4, 3,  ?
A)  8   B)   4   C)  3.5   D)  2.5
92. Which makes the best comparison ?
TOMATO : MTOOTA  : : 123412 : ?
A)  312214   B) 123456  C)  321124  D) 213314
93.  My brother is standing 40m South-West of my sister.I am standing 40m South-East of my brither. I am in which direction of my sister?
A)  South  B) West   C)  East   D)  North-East
94. Find the next letters in series : BCZ, DEY, FGK,HIW,_________
A)   JKL    B)   JKV   C)  JKU    D)  JKT
95. Find related word  ;  Conscience : wrong :: Police : _________
A)  thief   B) law   C)  discipline   D) crime
96. A shopkeeper sells one transistor for Rs.840 at a gain of 20% and another for Rs.960 at a loss of 4%. His total loss or gain percent is
A) 5  15/17 %  loss   B)  5  15/17 % gain   C)  6  2/3 % gain    D) 6 2/3 % loss
97. A boatman goes 2Km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1Km along the current in 10min. How long will it take to go 5Km in stationary water ?
A)  40 Minutes    B)  1 hour   C)  1 hr 15 min   D)  1 hr 30 min
98. In how many ways can the letters of the word  LEADER  can be arranged ?
A)  72  B)   144  C)  360   D)  720
99. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together, the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in
A)  81 min    B)  144 min    C) 108 min  D) 192 min
100. If  log 27  = 1.431 , then the value of    log 9 is
A)  0.934      B) 0.954      C) 0.945     D) 0.958

APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer AE Recruitment 2012

APGENCO is the largest Power Generating Company of Andhra Pradesh State and is the 3^rd largest Power utility (8923.9 MW) in India and has second highest Hydel capacity in the Country want to be the best power utility in the Country and one of the best in the World invites Online applications for the Recruitment of Trainee Assistant Engineer (for Engineering Graduates in Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil).

 

Post: Trainee Assistant Engineer (Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil)

Vacancies: 411 Posts

Pay Scale: Rs.23115 – 35720 

Date of APGENCO Trainee AE Written Test: 22.01.2012

Eligibility Criteria for Trainee Assistant Engineers:

Age Limit: Shall not be more than 34 years as on 01.12.2011.  Upper age limit will be relaxed up to 5 years for SC/ST/BC candidates and 10 years in respect of physically challenged candidates.

Educational Qualifications:

Electrical	B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Electrical & Electronics Engineering or equivalent
Mechanical	B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Mechanical Engineering or equivalent
Electronics	B.E/B.Tech./A.M.I.E., in Electronics & Communication Engineering/ Instrumentation & Controls Engineering/ Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering/ Electronics & Control Engineering/ Instrumentation Engineering/ Electronics Instrumentation & Power/ Power electronics or equivalent
Civil	B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Civil Engineering or equivalent

Application Fee: OC Candidates – Rs.500/- & for SC/ ST/ BC/ PWD – Rs.150/-  The applicant should pay the prescribed Registration Fee in any one of the A.P. Online Centers or A.P. Online Portal and obtain the receipt.

How to apply: The candidate has to login to the website http://www.apgenco.gov.in and click on APPLY ONLINE link or directly visit http://apgenco.cgg.gov.in to view detailed notification, user guide and to submit application form.  Online application is accessible from 20.12.2011 to 03.01.2012.

Click here to Apply Online for APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer 2011-12

Click here for APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer detailed Notification

APGENCO Sub-Engineer Question Paper 2011

APGENCO Sub-Engineer Question Paper 2011 (Based On Memory)

(Exam Held on 27-02-2011)

1.MOBILITY OF A CARRIER IS MEASURED IN —————(UNITS)
2.N-TYPE SEMICONDUCTOR IS MADE BY ADDING ————–(PENTAVALENT OR TRIVALENT )
3.IRDA , 1951 ACT STANDS FOR ——————–(IDUSTRIES DEVOLOPMENT AND REGULATION ACT)
4.ORIFICE METER IS USED FOR ————————-(PRESSURE OR TEMPERATURE OR AIR )
5.OP-AMP IDEAL CHARACTERISTICS————-
6.CRO SHOULD HAVE —————–INPUT IMPEDANCE TO AVOID LOADING.(HIGH OR LOW)
7.IN CRO TIME BASE GENERATOR OUTPUT IS GIVEN TO————- (HORIZONTAL OR VERTICAL DEFLECTION PLATES OR BOTH)
8.BINARY EQUIVALENT OF 20 (GIVEN IN DECIMAL)
9.HOW MANY DECADE COUNTERS ARE REQUIRED(IF IC 74—IS USED) TO COUNT FROM 0 TO 999———-(1 OR 2 OR 3 OR 4)
10.FULL ADDER IS MADE WITH—————(2 HALF ADDERS & 1OR GATE)
11.HIGH –Q INDUCTANCE IS MEASURED BY————(HAY’S BRIDGE OR SCHERING BRIDGE OR WEIN BRIDGE—–)


Note: Any One Know other Questions asked in APGENCO 2011 Sub-Engineers Exam please post it through Comments

Control Systems Model Questions

1. Electronic control systems have the serious draw‐backs of
(a) low reliability (b) operational difficulty (c) temperature sensitiveness (d) all of
above
2. The system whose characteristic equation has the following roots is marginally
stable
(a) ‐j, j, ‐1,1 (b) ‐3,‐2,0 (c) ‐2+3j, ‐2‐3j, ‐2 (d) ‐3,‐2,‐1
3. A phase log compensation will
(a) improve relative stability
(b)increase the speed of response
(c)increase band‐width
(d) increase overshoot
4. For Nyquist plot we use
a. open loop function
b. closed loop function
c. characteristic equation
d. any of the above
5. A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero is
a. highly stable
b. oscillatory
c. relatively stable
d. none of these
6. Root locus diagram exhibits the
a. frequency response of a system
b. poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values
c. bandwidth of system
d. all of the above
7. Increase in the gain K makes the system
a. more stable
b. unstable
c. none of above
8. The transfer function of a system is used to determine
a. the output for a given input
b. the type of system
c. the input for a given output
d. the steady state gai n
9. In a servo system the voltage induced in the control transformer rotor is the
a. error voltage
b. driving voltage
c. opposing voltage
d. none of these
10. With the feedback system, the transient response
a. decays slowly
b. decays rapidly
c. rises slowly
d. rises quickly
11. An open loop control system has its
(a) control action independent of the output or desired quantity
(b) controlling action, depending upon human judgment
(c) internal system changes automatically taken care of
(d) both (a) and (b)
(e) all (a),(b) and (c)
12. A servo system must have
(a) feedback system
(b) power amplifier to amplify error
(c) capacity to control position or its derivative
(d) all of these
(e) none of these
13. The major disadvantage of a feedback system may be
(a) Inaccuracy
(b) inefficiency
(c) Unreliability
(d) instability
(e) Insensitivity
14. Properties of a transfer function
(a) It is ratio of two polynomials is S and assumes zero initial conditions
(b) It depends on system elements and not input and output of the system
(c) Coefficients of the powers of S in denominator and numerator are all real
constant.
The order of denominator is usually greater than or equal to the order of
numerator
(d) All of these
(e) It is a function which transfer one physical system into another physical
system.
15. The classical analogous of a simple lever is
(a) Capacitor bridge
(b) transformer
(c) mutual inductor
(d) either of these
16. Two blocks G1(s) and G2(s) can be cascaded to get resultant transfer function as
(a) G1(s) + G2(s)
(b) G1(s) / G2(s)
(c) G1(s) G2(s)
(d) 1+G1(s) G2(s)
(e) 1‐G1(s)G2(s)
(f) two blocks cannot be cascaded
17. The principles of homogeneity and super position can be applied to
(a) linear time invariant system
(b) non‐linear time invariant system
(c) digital control system
(d) both (a) and (b)
18. Pick up the nonlinear system
(a) automatic voltage regulator
(b) d.c. servomotor with high field excitation
(c) temperature control of a furnaces using thermistor
(d) speed control using SCR
(e) all of these
19. Signal flow graph (SFG) is a
(a) polar graph
(b) semi log graph
(c) log log graph
(d) a special type of graph for analyzing modem control system
(e) a topological representation of a set of differential equations
20. Disadvantages of magnetic amplifier
(a) time lag, less flexible, non‐sinusoidal waveform
(b) low power consumption and isolation of the active circuit
(c) saturation of the core
(d) all of these
21. Pick up false statement regarding magnetic amplifiers
(a) The gate coil of an ideal magnetic amplifier has either zero or infinite
inductance
(b) Resistance of control and gate winding is very small
(c) Magnetic amplifier gas dropping load characteristics
(d) Magnetic amplifiers are not used to control the speed of d.c. shunt motor
(e) Magnetic amplifiers can be used in automatic control of electric drivers of
higher rating.
22. High power amplification is achieved by using
(a) push pull amplifier
(b) amplidyne
(c) magnetic amplifier
(d) DC amplifier
(e) D.C. generator
23. Pick up false statement regarding servomotors
(a) The d.c. servomotors are lighter than equivalent a.c. servomotors
(b) The d.c. servomotors develops higher starting and reversing torque than
equivalent a.c. servomotor.
(c) A drag cup a.c. servomotor has one windings on stator and other on rotor
(d) Output power of servomotors varies from 1/20 W to 100 W
24. To reduce steady state error
(a) decrease natural frequency
(b) decrease damping
(c) increase damped frequency
(d) increase time constant
(f) increase gain constant of the system
25. A good factor for Mp should be
(a) less than 1
(b) lying between 1.1 and 1.5
(c) more than 2.2
(d) zero
(e) infinity
26. Pick up false statement. Routh‐Hurwitz criterion
(a) is used for determining stability of a system
(b) is an algebraic procedure
(c) gives the exact location of roots of the characteristic equation
(d) does not indicate relative degree of stability or instability
27. Which of the following is the time domain method of determining stability of a
control system
(a) Bode plot
(b) Nyquist plot
(c) Nicholos chart
(d) Routh‐Hurwitz array
(e) Constant M and (fy) locus
(f) Root locus technique
28. The technique which gives transient response quickly as well as stability
information is
(a) Nyquist plot
(b) Routh‐Hurwitz criteria
(c) Bode plot
(d) Root locus plot
(e) Nichols plot
29. The bandwidth can be increased by use of
(a) phase lag network
(b) phase lead network
(c) both (a) and (b) in cascade
(d) both (a) and (b) in parallel
(e) none of these
30. Nyquist plot is drawn on
(a) semi log graph paper
(b) log log graph paper
(c) polar graph paper
(d) centimeter graph paper
31. If the gain margin is positive and the phase margin is negative the system is
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) indeterminist
32. The Bode plot is applicable to
(a) all phase network
(b) minimum phase network
(c) maximum phase network
(d) lag lead network
(e) none of these
33. The valid relation between setting time ts and rise time tr is
(a) tr>ts
(b) ts>tr
(c) ts=tr
(d) none of these
34. As a root moves further away from imaginary axis the stability
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) not affected
(d) none of these
35. Flat frequency response means that the magnitude ratio of output to input over
the bandwidth is
(a) variable
(b) zero
(c) constant
(d) none of above
36. How many octaves are between 200 Hz and 800 Hz
(a) Two octave
(b) One octave
(c) Four octave
(d) None of above
37. Human system can be considered as
(a) open loop system
(b) close loop system with single feedback
(c) close loop system with multivariable feedback
(d) none of these
38. In a feedback system the transient response
(a) Decays at constant rate
(b) gets magnified
(c) decays slowly
(d) decays more quickly
39. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate
(a) the steady state gain
(b) the main constant
(c) the order of system
(d) the output for any given input
(e) all of the above
40. Transfer function of a system is defined as the ratio of output to input in
(a) Laplace transform
(b) Z‐transform
(c) Fourier transform
(d) Simple algebraic form
41. Introduction of feedback decreases the effect of
(a) disturbances
(b) noise signals
(c) error signals
(d) all the above
42. The system response of a system can be best tested with
(a) unit impulse input signal
(b) ramp input signal
(c) sinusoidal input signal
(d) exponentially decaying input signal
43. Which of the following is a closed loop system
(a) electric switch
(b) car starter
(c) de generator
(d) auto‐pilot for an aircraft
44. Which of the following is used as an error detector
(a) potentiometer
(b) field controlled ac motor
(c) amplidyne
(d) armature controlled ac motor
45. The break away point of root loci are
(a) open loop poles
(b) closed loop poles
(c) open loop zeros
(d) closed loop zeros
46. Noise in a control system can be kept low by
(a) reducing the bandwidth
(b) attenuating such frequencies at which external signals get coupled into the
system
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
47. Main cause of absolute instability in the control system is
(a) parameters of controlling system
(b) parameters of controlled system
(c) parameters of feedback system
(d) error detector where the two signals are compared
48. Basically a controller is
(a) a amplifier
(b) a clipper
(c) a comparator
(d) a summer
49. A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero is
(a) highly stable
(b) highly oscillatory
(c) relatively stable
(d) none of these
50. Which of following elements is not used in an automatic control system
(a) sensor
(b) error detector
(c) oscillator
(d) final control element
51. AC systems are usually preferred to the DC systems in control applications
because
(a) AC systems are cheaper
(b) AC systems are more stable
(c) AC systems have better performance characteristics and smaller in size
(d) all of these
52. A system has the transfer function (1‐s)/(1+s); It is known as
(a) low pass system
(b) high pass system
(c) all pass system
(d) none of the above
53. In control systems, excessive bandwidth should be avoided because
(a) noise is proportional to bandwidth
(b) it leads to low relative stability
(c) it leads to slow speed of response
(d) none of these
54. In most systems, an increase in gain leads to
(a) larger damping ratio
(b) smaller damping ratio
(c) constant damping ratio
(d) none of these
55. A step function is applied to the input of a system and output is of the form y = t,
the system is
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) not necessarily stable
(d) conditionally stable
56. Which of the following can be magnified by magnetic amplifier
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) power
(d) none of above
57. The inductance is not used in lag network because of
(a) big size
(b) time delay and hysteresis losses
(c) high reactance
(d) none of these
58. Saturation in a stable control system can cause
(a) conditional stability
(b) over damping
(c) low level oscillations
(d) high level oscillations
59. Excessive noise in control systems can cause
(a) reduction in bandwidth
(b) reduction in gain
(c) saturation in amplifying stages
(d) oscillations
60. The type‐0 system has
(a) net pole at the origin
(b) no pole at the origin
(c) simple at one origin
(d) two poles at the origin

A.P.GENCO ASSISTANT ENGINEER (CIVIL) 2010 EXAM QUESTION PAPER

FOR A.P.GENCO ASSISTANT ENGINEER (CIVIL) 2010 EXAM QUESTION PAPER CLICK HERE

AP GENCO SUB ENGINEERS WRITTEN EXAM SYLLABUS

(For Sub-Engineer/Electrical)
1. Elements of Electrical Engineering:
a. Comprehend basic principles of electricity
b. Know the magnetic effects of electric current.
c. Understand electromagnetic induction
d. Understand electric charge and electrostatic field
2. Electrical circuits:
a. Understand Kirchoffs laws and star delta Transformations and Network Theorems.
b. Comprehend the relationship between quantities connected with alternating
current.
c. Comprehend the single phase A.C. Circuits
d. Poly Phase Circuits.
3. D.C.Machines:
a. Fundamentals of D.C. Generators
b. Armature Reaction and Characteristics of D.C. Generator
c. Fundamentals of D.C. Motors
d. Speed Control and Starters of D.C.Motors
e. Characteristics and Testing of D.C.Motors
4. Electrical Measuring Instruments & Batteries:
a. Know the Classification of different measuring instruments.
b. Understand the construction and working of different electrical measuring instruments
c. Understand the method of measurement of resistance.
d. Transducers and sensors
e. Understand Batteries
5. A.C.Machines:
a. Understand the working of Single Phase Transformers
b. To understand Three Phase Transformers.
c. Know the classification, construction, working and testing of alternators
d. Comprehend the procedure for voltage control and synchronization.
e. Comprehend the working of synchronous motors
f. Comprehend the working of three phase induction motor
g. Comprehend the working of single phase induction motor
h. Comprehend the working of single phase commutator motor
6. Power Systems:
a. understand the various sources of Power Generation
b. understand working of Thermal Power station
c. understand hydroelectric power station
d. understand the working of Nuclear & Gas Power stations
e. Comprehend combined operation and economics of power stations.
f. Comprehend the need for transmission and choice of supply system
g. Line structure for transmission and distribution
h. Underground cables.
i. Understand different types of switchgear, fuses and reactors and their working
j. Protective relays
k. Protection of alternators, transformer and transmission line.
l. Lighting arrestors and neutral grouding
7. Electronics:
a. passive components (Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors)
b. Know the semi-conductor Devices.
c. Understand the working principle of Power supply circuits
d. Understand the performance of special devices.
e. Understand the principle of working of Amplifiers.
f. Understand the principle of working of Small Signal Amplifiers.
g. Understand the principle of Oscillators
h. Appreciate the need for Modulation and Demodulation
i. Electronic instruments and industrial applications
j. Know the basics of ICs
k. Know the basics of digital electronics
l. Understand the working of combination logic circuits
m. Understand the working of sequential logic circuits
n. Understand working of registers and memories
8. Electrical Utilization and traction:
a. understand the principles of lightings
b. understand principle of electric heating, welding and its industrial application
c. electric traction systems
9. General Mechanical Engineering:
a. I.C. Engines, Boilers, Turbines
b. Understand the working of the centrifugal pumps
10. Information Technology:
a. understand the features of MS-word
b. understand working of MS-Excel
c. Understand MS-Power Point
d. Understand working with MS-Access
11. Industrial Management and Entrepreneurship:
a. understand the principles of management as applied to industry
b. Know the organization structure of an industry and the behavior of an
individual in an organization.
c. Understand the different aspects of production management
d. Understand the role of material management industries.
e. Understand marketing, sales and feasibility study.
f. Comprehend the provisions of industrial legislation in India and safety
procedures.
g. Understand ISO 9000 and TQM
h. Understand the role of entrepreneur in economic development and in
improving the quality of life.

Syllabus
(for Sub-Engineer/Mechanical)
1. Electrical Engineering & Basic Electronics:
a. comprehend basic Electrical Fundamentals
b. Understand D.C.Machines
c. Understand A.C. Fundamentals and A.C. Machines
d. Understand storage batteries
e. Understand the principles of semi-conductor devices
f. Understand electrical measuring instruments and safety procedures
2. Thermal Engineering -I:
a. understand the Fundamentals and Laws of Thermodynamics
b. understand the laws of perfect gases
c. understand Thermodynamic Processes on gases
d. know the fuels and Combustion
e. appreciate the study of air standard cycles
f. Comprehend the construction, working and performance of Internal
Combustion engines.
3. Thermal Engineering - II:
a. understand the Properties of Stream
b. understand the working of steam boilers
c. steam Nozzles and Turbines
d. comprehend the construction and working of Air Compressors
e. Understand the working and applications of gas turbines and Jet Propulsion.
f. To appreciate the measuring devices used in instrumentation.
4. Hydraulics & Hydraulic Machinery:
A. Hydraulics:
a. understand the various properties of Fluids
b. understand the behaviour of liquids in motion
c. evaluate frictional losses during flow of liquids through pipe
B. Hydraulic Machines:
a. analyze forces during the impact of jets
b. understand the working of water turbines
c. know the working of pumps.
5. Energy Sources and power plant Engineering:
a. introduction of Renewable Energy Sources
b. solar and wind energy
c. fuel cells and MHD Generator
d. Bio and Tidal Energy
e. Analyse the elements of Thermal and Nuclear Power Plants
f. To understand the impact of pollutants on Environment
6. Industrial Management & Entrepreneurship:
a. understand the principles of management as applied to industry
b. Know the organization structure of an industry and the behavior of an
individual in an organization.
c. Understand the different aspects of production management
d. Understand the role of material management industries.
e. Understand marketing, sales and feasibility study.
f. Comprehend the provisions of industrial legislation in India and safety procedures.
g. Understand ISO 9000 and TQM
h. Understand the role of entrepreneur in economic development and in
improving the quality of life.
7. Estimating and Costing:
a. List out the elements of costing
b. Understand the fundamentals of estimation
c. Estimate the weight of material required for a product and machining times
d. Estimate the fabrication cost
e. Estimate the forging cost
f. Estimate foundry cost
8. Manufacturing Technology -I:
a. Lathe & Lathe Work
b. Illustrate the working of Shaper, Slotter, Planner and Broaching Machine
c. Cutting Fluids, Coolants & Lubricants
d. Metrology
e. Understand the different welding methods and technique
9. Manufacturing Technology -II:
a. milling and Gear Making
b. grinding and finishing processes
c. modern machining processes
d. plastic processing
e. press Tools, Jigs and Fixtures
f. Jig Boring
10. Refrigeration and Air Conditioning:
a. understand the various methods of Refrigeration
b. Understand vapour compression and Vapour absorption in Refrigeration systems.
c. Know the refrigerants, refrigeration Equipment and applications of Refrigeration
d. Understand fundamentals of A/C and A/C equipment
e. Understand psychometry, cooling and heating loads.
f. Appreciate the applications of A/C servicing and maintenance of refrigeration
and A/C equipment.
11. Information Technology:
a. understand the features of MS-word
c. understand working of MS-Excel
d. Understand MS-Power Point
e. Understand working with MS-Access

Syllabus
(for Sub-Engineer/Civil)
1. Surveying:
A. Surveying-I:
a. know basic facts about surveying
b. understand the principles of Chain Surveying
c. principle of Compass Surveying
d. Understand the principles of Plane Table Surveying to fill in details of the field.
B. Surveying-II:
a. understand the principles of theodolite surveying preparation of plants
and alignment.
b. understand the principles of Tacheometry to find the elevations and
distances of stations.
c. understand the method of setting out simple curves
d. understand the Electronic Surveying instruments
2. Surveying Practicals II:
a. Performs Theodolite surveying
b. Performs Trigonometric leveling
c. Performs Tachometric Surveying
d. Sets out simple curves in the field
e. To understand the method of setting out of building on the ground
f. Applies principles of Surveying of Land Development
g. Knows the principle of surveying for Land Development
h. Knows the principle of Operation of Electronic Survey Instruments
i. Applies principles of mapping from the field work, potting of the field work
j. Applies knowledge of different methods of surveying in overcoming different
field problems.
3. Quantity Surveying -I:
a. Understands basic concepts of Quantity Surveying, units and specifications
b. Understands different types of estimates and detailed estimates of buildings.
c. Understands the analysis of rates and abstract estimations
d. Computes the volumes of earth work and reservoir capacity
e. Compute the material required for construction of a structure
4. Construction Materials:
a. understands selection of stones and their acceptability for construction work
b. understands the acceptability of bricks for construction work
c. understands suitability of tiles, pipes and building sand for construction
d. to check the quality of cement for construction work
e. understands the principles of preparation of mortars and concrete
f. understands the selection and applications of wood, plastics, Glass and
Asbestos for construction work
5. Construction Practice:
a. knows the classification of Buildings and design of foundation as per NBC
b. Understand the construction of masonry work
c. Understands the types and principles of doors, windows, ventilators and
Lintels, Sunshades.
d. Understands methods of construction and finishes of different types of roofs
and floorings.
e. Understands scaffolding and types of stair cases
f. Protective, decorative finishes and Termite proofing
6. Theory of Structures:
A. Theory of Structures-I:
a. Understands the effect of Loading on Beams
b. Understands Deflection of Beams under loading
c. Understands the effects of Internal pressure on unriveted and riveted thin cylinders
d. Understand the effects of Pure Torsion on solid and hollow Circular
Shafts and closely coiled helical spring under given axial loading
e. Understands the behaviours of columns under vertical loads
B. Theory of Strucres-II:
a. understands the stability of retaining walls and dams under the action
of lateral pressures.
b. Understands the effects of loading on propped, continuous, fixed and
continuous beams.
c. Understands effect of Dead and live loads on statically determinate frames
7. Hydraulics:
a. knows the properties of Fluids
b. understands fluid pressure and its Measurement
c. understands the General principles of flow of the liquids
d. understands the flow through Orifices and mouth pieces
e. Comprehends the flow over different types of notches and weirs.
8. Transportation Engineering:
a. introduction to Highways and Soil machanics
b. understands highway survey and traffic engineering
c. understands highway construction and maintenance
d. understands introduction and permanent way of Railways
e. understands station yard and maintenance of Railways
f. Understands Bridges, Culverts and cause ways.
9. Environmental Studies:
a. Knows the importance of the environmental studies and Natural Resources.
b. Understands ecosystems and Biodiversity and its conservation
c. Know environmental Pollution, Social issues and the environment.
d. Understand Human Population and the Environment
e. Field work
10. Design of RC structures:
a. understand the basic ideas of concrete, reinforcing steel and philosophy of
limit state design
b. Understand the principles of analysis and design of singly reinforced and
doubly reinforced R.C.C. rectangular beams by limit state method.
c. Understand the principles involved in the design of R.C.C. slabs by limit state method.
d. Understand the principles involved in design of lintels, sunshades, T-Beams,
continuous slabs and beams
e. Understand analysis and design of columns, footings and staircases.
11. Information Technology:
a. understand the features of MS-word
b. understand working of MS-Excel
c. Understand MS-Power Point
d. Understand working with MS-Access

Syllabus
(for Sub-Engineer/Electronics)
1. Electronic Components and Devices:
Inductors, Transformers, switches, connectors and relays. PN Junction Diode,
BJT configurations, JFET and MOSFETs, Rectifiers and Regulators.
2. Elements of Combinational and sequential logic circuits:
Flip-flops, counters, registers, memories, A/D and D/A converters.
3. Fundamentals of Instrumentation and Transducers:
Accuracy, precision, errors, LVDT, RVDT, Synchros, RTD, Thermistors,
Thermocouples pressure and flow measurement.
4. Basics of DC machines, AC machines and transformers
5. Measuring instrumentation:
Analog Instruments, bridges, DVMS, Q-meter, logic analyzer, signal and
function generators.
6. Process instrumentation:
pH and conductivity measurement,viscosity and density measurements ,
spectrophotometers, gas analyzer, auto analyzer, chromatographs.
7. Power plant instrumentation and unit operation:
Introduction power plant: Unit operation and Unit processes, material balance
and energy balance. Introduction to thermal power plant, significance of
instrumentation in power plant, principle and working and salient features of hydro
electric, nuclear gas turbine plant.
Processes in Thermal Power plant: evaporation: distillation: leaching and extraction:
gas absorption: humidification and dehumidification adsorption: drying: size reduction:
crystallization: mixers.
Boiler instrumentation and control: measurements and control loops, drum level
control, fuel flow control, furnace draft and excess air control, combustion control,
steam pressure control, boiler safety interlocks.
Turbine monitoring and control: turbine, supervisory system for monitoring of
mechanical parameters speed, vibration, eccentricity, axial shift, shell temperature
monitoring, lube oil temperature control, turbine trip condition.
Instrumentation and control of alternator, steam heaters, pumps and compressors,
condenser.
Auxiliaries in power plants: soot blowers, electrostatic precipitator, oil automation
system, water treatment plant, cooling towers.
8. Power Electronics:
SCR, Triac, UJT, Single and three phase converters, inverters, cycloconverters, SMPS and UPS.

Syllabus on power plant related topics for Sub-Engineers (except
Sub-Engineer/Civil)
A. Thermal Power Stations - Process
1. Boiler a. Boiler construction
b. Pressure Parts
c. Fans - types
d. Mills - types
e. Air Preheaters
f. Fuels - Supply Systems
g. Firing and Arrangements in power House
h. ESP - Construction - Operation - Details
i. Safety Valves and their importance
2. Turbine a. Turbines - Parts - Details
b. CWPs, Cooling Towers, Condenser Cooling and
Vacuum System - Details
c. LP Heaters, DA, CEPs and Condensate system
d. BFPs, HP heaters and feed water system
e. PRDS, HFO and Light oil systems
3. Generator a. Electrical Power - Energy - Voltage - Current - Explanation.
b. Turbo - Generator construction - details
c. Excitatiom systems
d. Transformers - working - cooling systems - types
4. Protection Protection of Generators, Generator Transformers
etc., circuit breakers.
5. Economic aspects Generation Costs and their classification, PLF, Plant
base load and Peak load operation and optimul
operation of thermal and Hydel stations.
6. switch-yard Switch - yard -Equipment - Details
7. Electrical circuits: Storage batteries, classification of cells, construction
chemical action of cells, lead acid, NI - Cadmium
Cells, VRLA batteries (maintenance free batteries)
concept of trickle charging and boost charging.
8. Electrical measuring instruments:
a. measurement of voltage current, power, energy etc.
b. principles of measurement of pressure, flow, level, diff pressure, temperature
(thermocouple, RTD) etc.
c. Principle of measurement of PH, conductivity, oxygen using Zircona principle.
9. AHP Ash handling plant - Equipment - Functions
10. CHP Coal handling plant - Equipment - Functions
11. WTP Water treatment plant - Flow Charts/Diagrams
B. Hydel Power Stations - Process
1. Functions of various Equipment of Hydel Power Stations
2. Layout of equipment in Hydel Power Stations
3. Symbols of various tools and Tackles, Fasteners and their functions.
4. General knowledge about various works, abbreviations pertaining to Hydel
power stations.
5. Various Equipment of Hydel Power Stations.
6. Types of turbines.
7. Penstock.
8. Surge Tank.
9. Turbine.
10. Governing system
11. Trash rack
12. Generator - Construction details - Function.
13. Electrical Energy, Power, Voltage, Current - Definition.
14. Transformers - Details and Functions.
15. Switch-yard - Important Equipment - Functions
16. Electrical circuits: Storage batteries, classification of cells, construction
chemical action of cells, lead acid, NI - Cadmium
Cells, VRLA batteries (maintenance free batteries)
concept of trickle charging and boost charging.
17. Electrical measuring instruments:
a. measurement of voltage current, power, energy etc.
b. principles of measurement of pressure, flow, level, diff pressure, temperature
(thermocouple, RTD) etc.
C.
1. Industrial Electronics
To understand PLC and programming - logic with relays, PLC ladder logic,
timers, counters, input output modules, digital, analog I/O s.logic functions -
OR, AND, EX-OR etc.
2. BASIC communication Engineering
a. Understanding the work of power line carrier communication (PLCC)
technique
b. Understanding the principle of working of EPABX
3. Understand the distributed control system DCS.
D.
1. FPS - Fire protection Systems - Types - Functions
2. Fire accidents - Fire accidents and preventive measures
3. Safety aspects - Safety of personnel and equipment - Safety
measures and precautions.
4. House keeping - House keeping and its importance.

Thermal/Hydel plants related syllabus for Sub-Engineer (Civil)
1 Reservoirs - Inflows, Outflows, live storage capacity, gross
storage capacity, FRL, MDL Water spread,
catchment area, annual rainfall.
2 Dams - Masonry dam, Earthen Dam, Gravity Dam,
Height of Dam, Crest level, Arch dam, Max
flood discharge, Crest gates.
3 Penstocks - Head, Pipe diameter, Plate thickness, Valves
(Butterfly valves).
4 Survey - North, South, Latitude, Longitude, Reduced
levels, marking of buildings etc.
5 Power House - Types of Turbines, PH Crane, Turbo
generator, Boiler, Electro Static Precipitators,
LP turbines, HP turbine, Coal pulverization mills etc.
6 Gates - Stop log gate, regulator sluice, Crest gates,
butterfly valves, D.T. gates, radial gates.
7 Canals - Carrying capacity, bed slopes, side slopes,
variation of velocity w.r.t height, trash rack.
8 Makeup Water Reservoirs - Capacity, raw water pipelines.
9 Water Treatment Clarifiers - Alumn dozing, chlorination, filtration, DM plants.
10 Marshalling yard - Rails, sleepers, points and crossings, ballast, keys etc.
11 Coal Plant - Conveyor, Wagon tippler, crushers etc.
12 Ash Ponds - Earthen embankment, decanting wells, spillways.
13 Chimney, cooling towers - Deashing, Acid and Fire Resistant Bricks &
mortar, desilting, troughs, flashcups.
14 Roads, Buildings, Maintenance.
- Storm water drains, Maintenance, drinking
water supply, Roof leakages, painting, drainage, sanitary.
15 Construction of Plant - Earth work excavating PCC, raft, bearing
capacity of soils, piles, backfilling, plinth
beams, Design mix, Bridges, strength of
concrete, steel, bricks, st. steel etc.
16 Safety - CO2 cylinders, application of foam,
firefighting lines, burning of dry Jungle, GIS, EPF, etc.
17 Stores Materials - Storage of cement, Steel.
18 Carpentry material - Carpentry material, their usage.
19 FPS Fire protection Systems - Types - Functions
20 Fire accidents Fire accidents and preventive measures
21 Safety aspects Safety of personnel and equipment - Safety
measures and precautions.
22 House keeping House keeping and its importance.