BHEL 2008 Electrical Question Paper

1. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to. = 1.41

2. An engine operates between temperature of 9000K and T2 and another engine between T2 and 8000K. For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be. = 6500K

3. A perfect gas at 270C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is = 3270C

4. Internal energy of a substance depends on = Temperature

5. Work done in compressing 1kg of gas adiabatically from p1,V1,T1 to p2, V2, T2 is equal to = Cv(T2-T1)

6. Indicated power of a 4-stroke engine is equal to = pLAN/2

7. The unit of entropy is = J/kg 0K

8. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine : a) 2 stroke petrol engine b)4 stroke petrol engine c) Diesel engine d) steam engine e) Gas turbine. = (d)

9. Air fuel ratio in a jet engine is = 60:1

10. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the: a) exhaust will be smoky b) piston rings would stick into piston grooves c) exhaust temperature will be high d) engine starts overheating e) all of the above. = (e)

11. A distributor in spark ignition engines performs the function of : = Providing the correct firing order in engine

12. The spark plug gap is normally maintained at: = 0.45 to 0.6mm

13. Which of the following does not relate to C.I. engine:: a) fuel pump b) fuel injector c) governor d) carburetor e) flywheel = (d)

14. What is the value of Prandtl No.?

15. In domestic refrigerator, the tubes at the back of the refrigerator are: a) evaporator b) condenser c) capillary tubes d)………

16. Wet bulb temperature is. = indication of amount of moisture in air

17. Which refrigerants has the highest critical point temperature. = Freon-11

18. On psychrometric chart, dry bulb temperature lines are. = Vertical

19. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the. =centroid of the displaced volume of fluid

20. Surface tension has the units. = newtons/m

21. A pressure of 25m of head of water is equal to. =245kN/m2


22. For a submerged body to be in stable equilibrium, the centre of gravity should be. =Below the centre of buoyancy.

23. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is: = the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load and with the wicket gates wide open.


24. The actual velocity at vena contracta for flow through an orifice from a reservoir of height H=?. =Cvv2gH


25. 100KW is to be transmitted by each of two separate shafts. A is turning at 250rpm and B at 300rpm. Which shaft must have greater diameter.: = B


26. In a free vortex motion: = each particle moves in a circular path with a speed varying inversely as the distance from the centre.


27. A centrifugal pump has speed-1000rpm, Flow-1200l.p.m, Head-20m, Power-5H.P. If its speed is increased to 1500rpm, new flow will be.: = 1800l.p.m


28. 10m of water column is equal to = 100kN/m2


29. M.I. of a circular area about an axis perpendicular to the area is: = pr4/2


30. A projectile is fired at an angle ? to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when ? is . =450


31. An elevator weighing 1000kg attains an upward velocity of 4m/sec in two seconds with uniform acceleration. The tension in the supporting cables will be = 1200kg.


32. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5m from the wall. What should be the co-efficient of friction between ladder and floor so that it remains in equilibrium. = 0.21

33. Sintered and tungsten carbides can be machined by: = EDM


34. A car is moving with a velocity of 60km/hr and possesses energy of 5x105 joules. The mass of the car will be. =3000kg.


35. A beam of length l, having uniform load w kg/unit length is supported freely at the ends. The moments at mid span will be: = wl2/8. http://www.ChetanaS.org

36. A boiler shell 200cm dia and plate thickness 1.5cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5MN/m2, then the hoop stress will be. = 100N/m2

37. A body weighing 2kg in air weights 2.5kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is. = 6


38. Two identical leaf springs of spring constant k are arranged like cantilevers in parallel and attached at free end by a spring of spring constant k. The equivalent spring constant of combination is; = 1.5k.

39. Automobile steering gear is an example of: = lower pair.

40. If l is the span of a light suspension bridge whose each cable carries total weight (w) and the central diop is y, the horizontal pull at each support is: = wl/y OR


41. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor parallel, but intersect is. = Universal coupling.

42. Two cars travel in the same direction at 40km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in the opposite direction at 60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between the two cars?

43. The secondary critical speed of a shaft occurs at: = twice the speed of primary critical speed.


44. Brittle coating technique is used for: = experimental stress analysis.


45. Factor of safety is the ratio of: = yield stress/working stress.


46. Type of gear used for non-intersection perpendicular shafts: = Hypoid gears.


47. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding: = Chromium & Nickel


48. The product of Cupola is called: = cast iron


49. Brinell tester uses a hardness steel ball of size: = 10mm


50. To transmit power from one rotation shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting, use: = Spiral gear.


51. What kind of abrasive cut off wheel should be used to cut concrete, stone and masonry? =Diamond grit.


52. In break-even analysis, total cost consists of: = Fixed cost + Variable cost.

53. PERT is: = event oriented technique


54. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is : =deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.


55. Bar charts are suitable for: = minor works.

56. A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and another gear having 25 teeth revolves around it, the centre lines of both gears being joined by an arm. How many revolutions will be made by gear of 25 teeth for one revolution of arm. = 5 rev.


57. ----- on a PERT/CPM chart represents: = a significant event representing some mile-stone


58. Electron volt is the unit of : = Energy.

59. Reheating in gas turbine results in: = increase of work ratio and decrease of thermal efficiency.

60. Seamless tubes are made by?


61. Why DC current is not used in transformer?


62. What is the purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines: = to convert the kinetic energy into pressure energy.


63. A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1m and penetrates the sand to 1m. what is the resistance force of the sand?

212 Engineer Posts @ BHEL

BHEL the country's premier Engineering organization and one of the NAVRATNA PSUs, catering to the core sectors of Indian economy, viz. Power Generation, Transmission, Industry, Transportation, Telecommunication and Renewable Energy, requires Experienced engineers in echanical/Electrical/Civil/Electronics/Instrumentation/Chemical Disciplines, for Project Sites (Domestic & Overseas) of Power Sector Northern Region (FS-NR), Power Sector Eastern Region (PS-ER), Power Sector Western Region (PS-VVR), Power Sector Southern Region (PS-SR) and Project Engineering & Systems Division (PESD), Hyderabad. Details of the Power Sector Regions and PESD, Hyderabad, and the Projects under execution by them, are available in our vvebsite¬http:Ucareers.bheLin. The requirement is given below:

1. ERECTION: 98posts
2. TXS (commissioning)/SAS: 38posts
3. PIPlNG: 07posts
4. Civil: 11posts
5. MM: 23posts
6. Electrical & C&F: 23post
7. CHEMICAL: 01post
8. Project MG MT: 03posts
9. Tendering COMML: 02posts
10. Sub Contracting: 02posts
11. Quality & HSE: 04posts
12. 2(Two) Vacancies are identified for Hydro Turbine Function for PSER in the grade of E3.

Age limit: Lipper Age limit is relaxable by 3 years for OBC (Non Creamy Layer).
Qualifications: Full time. Bachelor's Degree in Engineering or Technology in Mechanical' Electrical 1 Civil I Electronics I Instrumentation 1 Chemical discipline with at least 60% marks (50% for SC/ST) in aggregate of all years I semesters or equivalent CGPA, from a recognized Indian University I Institute.

How to Apply: The submission of applications will be on-line only through our recruitment website ¬http://careers.bheLin

Important Dates:
Start of Online submission: 19.10.2011
Close of Online submission: 01.11.2011
Last Date for receipt of Hard Copies from far flung areas: 14.11.2011
Last Date: 07.11.2011

For more details Click here

BHEL EXECUTIVE TRAINEE (EEE) PAPER

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) Recruitment

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
(Government of India Undertaking)
BHEL House, Siri Fort, New Delhi-110049

BHEL invites Online Application from young and energetic Graduate Engineers and for recruitment of Engineer Trainees  :

• Engineer Trainee : 800 posts (Mechanical - 550, Electrical - 175, Electronics - 75 ), Stipend : Rs. 20600/- in the training period and will be absorbed as Engineer in the scale of pay of Rs. 24900 - 50500/-, Age : 27 years for Graduate Engineers and 29 years for PG in Engineering.

How to Apply :  Those who wants to apply for the post of Engineer Trainee in BHEL will be required to take the GATE-2012 which are advertised on 11/09/2011. The score of GATE will be utilized by the BHEL for invited candidates for interview.

Candidates need to apply Online from 04/01/2012 at the BHEL website only after registration in GATE-2011.

Application Fee : Rs.500/- for Engieer Trainee and Rs.300/- for Supervisor Trainee to be paid in the SBI throughout the country by prescribed challan only. (SC/ST/PH candidates are exempted from the fee)

Please visit http://careers.bhel.in/bhel/jsp/index.jsp    or all the details and Online submission of application 

BHEL Recruitment of Artisans

BHEL, Tiruchirappalli a major Manufacturing unit with a workforce of over 10,000 employees is looking for Artisans.  The selected candidates will initially be taken as Temporary Employee (Artisan) for a period of one year. On selection, all candidates will be required to undergo training including in allied trades.On successful completion of this period, they will be absorbed in the regular establishment as ARTISAN Gr.IV at the minimum of the scale of pay of Rs.11700-23000/- 

Requirements and Qualification
S.No Post No of Vacancies Qualifications 1   Fitter 200 For Fitter: Matric / SSLC plus National Trade Certificate (NTC) plus National Apprenticeship Certificate (NAC)# in the trade of Fitter or Sheet Metal Worker. For Welder, Electrician and Plumber: Matric / SSLC plus National Trade Certificate (NTC) plus National Apprenticeship Certificate (NAC)# in the respective trades. For Crane Operator cum Rigger: Matric/SSLC plus National Trade Certificate (NTC) plus National Apprenticeship Certificate (NAC)# in Mechanic (Motor Vehicle) trade. For Furnace Operator: Matric/SSLC plus National Trade Certificate (NTC) plus National Apprenticeship Certificate (NAC)# in Forger and Heat Treater trade. 2   Welder 130 3   Crane Operator cum Rigger 110 4   Electrician 20 5   Furnace Operator 10 6   Plumber 5 Total 475 #Candidates belonging to General & OBC categories should have obtained a minimum of 60% marks in both NTC and NAC and candidates belonging to SC/ST categories should have obtained a minimum of 55% marks in both NTC and NAC. Desirable: Working knowledge in Tamil

Selection Process

All Eligible candidates will be invited for objective type Written Test to be held at Tiruchirappalli, for which they may download call letters from the website http://careers.bhel.in. No separate intimation will be sent to the candidates by post. The Question Booklets will be trilingual in English/Hindi/Tamil languages. All Eligible Ex-Servicemen candidates who possess the pass certificate of NTC/NAC or equivalent (% of marks not mandatory) in the relevant trade will be called for written test. On the basis of merit of Written Test marks, candidates will then be invited for Personal Interview in the ratio of 1:3 to the number of vacancies. INFORMATION  ON  WRITTEN  TEST The candidates' performance in the Written Test will determine whether he/she qualifies for further consideration. The Written Test will be of one and half hour (90 minutes) duration and consist of 120 Multiple Choice Objective type questions. The questions are mostly drawn from the curriculum and the practical experience of having performed on the job. The Written Test will consist predominantly of questions to test the candidates' knowledge in the subjects specified as part of minimum educational qualifications for the post and also a few questions to test the aptitude. For each question there will be four options (a, b, c & d) and only one of the option is correct. The candidate will be required to choose the correct answer and indicate choice in the Answer Sheet by shading the appropriate choice. The Answer Sheet is a special OMR (Optical Mark Reader) sheet. For answering the questions, there will be circular spaces in the Answer Sheet. The chosen answer is to be indicated by completely darkening one of the circular spaces with blue / black ball point pen. Any other method of answering will be taken as incorrect. Darken only in the spaces provided. Please do not do any rough work on the answer sheet. For each correct answer the candidate will be assigned one mark, while for each wrong answer 0.25 mark will be deducted. Candidates are therefore advised to ensure adequate care before answering. If more than one option is marked, then it will be treated as incorrect and 0.25 mark will be deducted. Admission to this Test is provisional. The Candidate should satisfy himself/herself regarding possessing the required qualifications (marks, age, caste, etc.) stipulated in the advertisement before applying. Mere appearance in the Test does not entail any claim for the post. The Candidate will be treated as debarred ab-initio in case the essential eligibility criteria are not fulfilled. The Written examination will be held on 26th June 2011 at different venues in Tiruchirappalli.

BHEL 2010 PAPER

1. Sintered and tungsten carbides can be machined by: = EDM

2. What kind of abrasive cut off wheel should be used to cut concrete, stone and masonry? =Diamond grit.

3. In break-even analysis, total cost consists of: = Fixed cost + Variable cost.

4. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is : =deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.

5. PERT is: = event oriented technique

6. Bar charts are suitable for: = minor works.

7. ? on a PERT/CPM chart represents: = a significant event representing some mile-stone

8. Electron volt is the unit of : = Energy.

9. Seamless tubes are made by?

10. Reheating in gas turbine results in: = increase of work ratio and decrease of thermal efficiency.

11. Why DC current is not used in transformer?

12. What is the purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines: = to convert the kinetic energy into pressure energy.

13. A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1m and penetrates the sand to 1m. what is the resistance force of the sand?

14. Two cars travel in the same direction at 40km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in the opposite direction at 60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between the two cars?

15. A projectile is fired at an angle ? to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when ? is . =450

16. An elevator weighing 1000kg attains an upward velocity of 4m/sec in two seconds with uniform acceleration. The tension in the supporting cables will be = 1200kg.

17. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5m from the wall. What should be the co-efficient of friction between ladder and floor so that it remains in equilibrium. = 0.21

18. A car is moving with a velocity of 60km/hr and possesses energy of 5×105 joules. The mass of the car will be. =3000kg.

19. If l is the span of a light suspension bridge whose each cable carries total weight (w) and the central diop is y, the horizontal pull at each support is: = wl/y OR

20. A beam of length l, having uniform load w kg/unit length is supported freely at the ends. The moments at mid span will be: = wl2/8.

21. A boiler shell 200cm dia and plate thickness 1.5cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5MN/m2, then the hoop stress will be. = 100N/m2

22. 100KW is to be transmitted by each of two separate shafts. A is turning at 250rpm and B at 300rpm. Which shaft must have greater diameter.: = B

23. Two identical leaf springs of spring constant k are arranged like cantilevers in parallel and attached at free end by a spring of spring constant k. The equivalent spring constant of combination is; = 1.5k.

24. Automobile steering gear is an example of: = lower pair.

25. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor parallel, but intersect is. = Universal coupling.

26. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to. = 1.41

27. A perfect gas at 270C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is = 3270C

28. An engine operates between temperature of 9000K and T2 and another engine between T2 and 8000K. For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be. = 6500K

29. Internal energy of a substance depends on = Temperature

30. Work done in compressing 1kg of gas adiabatically from p1,V1,T1 to p2, V2, T2 is equal to = Cv(T2-T1)

31. The unit of entropy is = J/kg 0K

32. Indicated power of a 4-stroke engine is equal to = pLAN/2

33. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine : a) 2 stroke petrol engine b)4 stroke petrol engine c) Diesel engine d) steam engine e) Gas turbine. = (d)

34. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the: a) exhaust will be smoky b) piston rings would stick into piston grooves c) exhaust temperature will be high d) engine starts overheating e) all of the above. = (e)

35. The spark plug gap is normally maintained at: = 0.45 to 0.6mm

36. A distributor in spark ignition engines performs the function of : = Providing the correct firing order in engine

37. Which of the following does not relate to C.I. engine:: a) fuel pump b) fuel injector c) governor d) carburetor e) flywheel = (d)

38. Air fuel ratio in a jet engine is = 60:1

39. What is the value of Prandtl No.?

40. In domestic refrigerator, the tubes at the back of the refrigerator are: a) evaporator b) condenser c) capillary tubes d)………

41. Which refrigerants has the highest critical point temperature. = Freon-11

42. Wet bulb temperature is. = indication of amount of moisture in air

43. On psychrometric chart, dry bulb temperature lines are. = Vertical

44. Surface tension has the units. = newtons/m

45. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the. = centroid of the displaced volume of fluid

46. A pressure of 25m of head of water is equal to. =245kN/m2

47. For a submerged body to be in stable equilibrium, the centre of gravity should be. =Below the centre of buoyancy.

48. The actual velocity at vena contracta for flow through an orifice from a reservoir of height H=?. =Cvv2gH

49. A body weighing 2kg in air weights 2.5kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is. = 6

50. In a free vortex motion: = each particle moves in a circular path with a speed varying inversely as the distance from the centre.

51. A centrifugal pump has speed-1000rpm, Flow-1200l.p.m, Head-20m, Power-5H.P. If its speed is increased to 1500rpm, new flow will be.: = 1800l.p.m

52. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is: = the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load and with the wicket gates wide open.

53. 10m of water column is equal to = 100kN/m2

54. M.I. of a circular area about an axis perpendicular to the area is: = pr4/2

55. To transmit power from one rotation shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting, use: = Spiral gear.

56. A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and another gear having 25 teeth revolves around it, the centre lines of both gears being joined by an arm. How many revolutions will be made by gear of 25 teeth for one revolution of arm. = 5 rev.

57. The secondary critical speed of a shaft occurs at: = twice the speed of primary critical speed.

58. Brittle coating technique is used for: = experimental stress analysis.

58. Factor of safety is the ratio of: = yield stress/working stress.

59. Type of gear used for non-intersection perpendicular shafts: = Hypoid gears.

60. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding: = Chromium & Nickel

61. The product of Cupola is called: = cast iron

62. Brinell tester uses a hardness steel ball of size: = 10mm.

BHEL PLACEMENT PAPER 2010

1. An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-
a.) Asian development Bank
b.) World Bank
c.) Swiss Bank
d.) Reserve Bank of India
Ans : A

2. India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on-
a.) May 18, 1975
b.) May 20, 1974
c) May 17, 1974
d.) May 17, 1974
Ans : A

3. Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.
a.) 1908
b.) 1910
c.) 1913
d.) 1914
Ans :C

4. Durand cup is associated with-
a.) Hockey
b.) Tennis
c.) Football
d.) Badminton
Ans : C

5. “Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these
a.) Subhash Chandra Bose
b.) Jawaharlal Nehru
c.) Lajpat Rai
d.) Bhagat Singh
Ans :B

6. Speed of sound is maximum in-
a. ) Water
b.) Air
c.) Steel
d.) Vacuum
Ans :C

7. The function of World Bank is to-
a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economy
b.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates
c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments
d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade
Ans :A

8. The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be-
a.) AND
b.) OR
c.) NAND
d.) X-OR
Ans :D

9. A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into-
a.) NAND
b.) NOR
c.) AND
d.) NOPE.
Ans :A

10. High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help of
a.) interpreter
b.) compiler
c.) operating
d.) system
Ans :B

11. Microprogramming is a technique
a.) for programming the microprocessor
b.) for writing small programs efficiently
c.) for programming the control steps of computer
d.) for programming o/p / i/p
Ans :C

12. What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction
a.) z = 0, cy = 0
b.) z = 0, cy = 1
c.) z = 1, cy = 0
d.) z = 1, cy = 1
Ans :C

13. 8085 mP has no. of addressing modes-
a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5
Ans :C

14. How many general purpose registers 8085mp-
a.) 4
b.) 6
c.) 8
c.) 10
Ans :B

15. The difference between TWT & klystron is –
a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time
c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact
d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact
Ans :A

16. In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.
a). port 4
b). port 3
c.) port 2.
d.) port 3 & 4.
Ans :A

17. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be-
a.) 200 A
b.) 170.7 A
c.) 141.4 A
d.) 70.7 A
Ans :B

18. In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters
a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction
c.) step up device
d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device
In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch. S is closed at t = 0 the maximum value of current and the time at which it reaches this value are respectively.
Ans :a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS

19. In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of

a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
b.) Silicon (Si)
c.) Copper (Cu)
d.) Germanium (Ge)
Ans :A

20. If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch ‘s’ and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be –

a.) cos50tA
b.) 2A
c.) 2cos100tA
d.) 2sin50tA
Ans : B

21. A relatively permanent information is stored in
a. ) ROM
b.) RAM
c.) PROM
d.) Volatile memory
Ans :C

22. The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –
a.) l
b.) l/4
c.) l/2
d.) l/8
Ans :B

23. In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load –

a.) 5
b.) 6.5
c.) 8
d.) 9
Ans :B

24. A typical optical fibre has –
a.) High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding
b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
c.) Both a and b
d.) None
Ans :B

25. The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –
a.) Triac
b.) UJT
c.) Diac
d.) SCR
Ans : D

BHEL Engineers Trainee Exam Pattern

Test pattern :

• 240 Multiple Choice Objective Type Questions
• Every question will carry 1 mark. Negative marking to the extent of 0.2 marks per wrong answer will be applicable.
• Time Duration-2 Hours 30 Minutes
• Test is designed to assess the candidate's Professional ( Technical) Knowledge of the chosen Engineering Discipline and Higher Aptitude covering area like Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, Logical thinking, English usage, General Awareness.

Sample questions :

In the following question, pick the choice whose meaning is opposite to the word shown in capitals.
1. HOI POLLOI:
(1) Cannibalism (2) Tyranny (3) The past (4) Aristocracy (5) Capitalist

In the following question, the descriptive sentence is aptly described by just one word. Select the choice which give the meaning most appropriately:
2. One who talks in his sleep:
(1) Somniloquist (2) Somnivocalist (3) Somnambulist (4) Somnalesist (5) None of these

In each question below you will find three words. The first two words are related to each other in some way. The third word is also related in the same way to one of the four alternatives marked as:
3. REMAIN : STAY LEAVE: ?
(1) Good-bye (2) Run (3) Farewell (4) Depart

BHEL Mechanical Engineering Paper

BHEL Engineer Trainee written test in Mechanical stream. In Mechanical Branch there were a total of 240 questions. 120- Technical questions in Mechanical Engineering. 120- General Apptitude questions. (Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, Logical thinking, English usage).

The questions were mainly asked in

Thermodynamics

Engineering Mechanics

Theory of machines

Production tech


[One Mark for correct answer, 1/5th for wrong answer. Five choices were given]

Some Questions asked in Exam:


1)Unit of Entropy (J/kg K or kJ/kg K)?

2)A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1 m and penetrates the sand into for 1 m. What is the resistance force given by sand?

3)Ratio of specific heats of air ? (1.41)

4)A body weighs 3 kg in air. If it is submerged in a liquid, it weighs 2.5 kg. What is the specific gravity of the liquid ?

5)Two cars travell in same direction at 40 km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in a opposite direction in 60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between them?

6)A simple problem involing in hoops stress. For sphere: M= [3/2]*p*V* [density of pressure vessel material/Maximum working stress it can tolerate] For Thin walled pressure walls: Hoops stress or stress in the radial direction =p*r/2t?

7) A problem in force calculation in a body moving in a inclined surface?

8)Composition of bronze?
ans. Copper+zinc.

9) Compostion of stainless steel.?
ans. iron+chromium+nickel+carbon.

10) CI is manifactured in which process?
ans. cupola process

11)What percentage of carbon is preset in pig iron?
ans. 4.5 to 6%.

12)Water is available at 10m height. What is the pressure available?
ans= pressure=density*g*height;
p=1000*9.81*10;
p=98100N/m2.

13)What will happen if the speed of the centrifugal pump doubles?

14)The unit eV is widely used in ?
ans. Nuclear and atomic physics.

15)What will happen to the resistance, when the diameter of the conductor is doubled?

16)The power comsumed by a electrical device is 1000W at 250V, What is the resistance in the device?
ans. Power= Voltage*current,
Current=Power/Voltage,
Current,I=1000/250=4
amps. V=IR,
Therefore R=250/4=62.5 ohms.

17)Why DC current is not used in transformer?

18)On what principle the sonar/ radar works?

19)Bending moment diagram for the UDL is in what shape?

20)Function of the distributor in petrol vehicles?
ans. Spark timing.

21)Which is not present in CI engines?
ans. carburrettor.

22)What will happen if one cylinder recieves more amount of fuel spray from injectors than other injectors?

23)Purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines?

ans. The purpose of a draft tube is toconvert some of the kinetic energy of the flow from the runner (the rotating part of the turbine) intopressure energy and thereby increase the efficiency ofthe hydro power turbine.

24)What is the effect or reheater in the gas turbine?

The advantage of reheater is significantly increased thrust; the
disadvantage is it has very high fuel consumption and inefficiency.

25)Problems involving with fricition coefficient.

26)Factor of safety = Yeild stress/Working stress.

27)Which is the example of non parallel power transmission (Universal coupling)?

28)For perpendicular shafts worm gear is used?

29)A planet gear with 25 teeth is meshed with a sun gear of 100 teeth. Both are connected using a arm. How many rotations are needed for planet gear to complete one rotation around the sun gear?

30)What is equivalent spring constant for spring in parallel?

31) Some questions was asked related to boundary layer and vortex flow.

32) 5 questions were asked in PERT, Process planning, Product planning, Break even analysis.

33)How are tungsten and sintered composite materials are machined?
(Electro Discharge Machining, EDM)

General Apptitude:

There are 120 questions .

English:

Detect the words with wrong spellings (5 questions).
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words(5 questions).
Two reading comprehensions were given(10 questions).
Find the error in the sentence (8 questions).

Reasoning:

Seating arrangement problems.
Find the relation between them.

Quantitative ability:

50% of the questions are from basic geometry .

BHEL ENGINEER TRAINEE EXAM 2009

EXAM HELD ON : 10-08-2009 AT SECUNDERABAD

Details of the written test:

It comprises of 2 sections technical (120) and aptitude (120), total 240(Test duration 150 minutes).
Paper is easy and many are direct questions, only factor concerned is the time.

SECTION-I----TECHNICAL
1. Critical load acting axially on a long column
Ans: (pi)2*E*I/L2

2. Relation between moment of area and radius of gyration
Ans: I=AK2

3. Cup shaped components are produced using which operation
Ans: drawing

4. A sheet of Al alloy having 2mm thickness is welded using which process
Ans: TIG

5. Two gears having teeth 18 and 40 and center distance 56.what is the module?

6. In thick cylinders, which of the following is true[*S stands for sigma*] (a) St>Sr (b) St=Sr (c)St

7. In a plane stress condition, if the centre of Mohrs circle coincides with the origin then which is true .the relation between Sx and Sy is asked

8. Lames theorem.F1/sinA=F2/sinB=F3/sinC

9. Youngs modulus value for steel=200Gpa

10. Thermal conductivity of silver=400w/m0K

11. Fouling factor formula F.F =1/Udirty-1/Uclean

12. Relation between notch sensitivity factor and theoretical stress concentration factor

13. Effectiveness of heat exchanger definition

14. Reynolds number formula

15. Clinical thermometer is which order system .0,1,2, or 3

16. Piezometric transducer is used to find which signals static or dynamic

17. Peclet number formula=Re*Pr

18. Radiation energy emitted, Eemitted=S*A*T4

19. Which of the following is not related to CI engine
(a) Fuel pump (b) carburetor (c).. (d) none

20. Two connected in series having stiffness K1, K2
Kequivalent=K1*K2/K1+ K2

21. Magnification factor at resonance, MF=1/2zeta

22. Coroilis component value, =2vw

23. Hooks law holds good upto
(a)elastic point (b)UYP(c)LYP(d)Failure

24. Meshing of two gears fail if
(a)materials are different(b)
25. A beam whose one end is fixed and other is free is
(a)cantilever (b)ss(c)Udl(d)none

26. Deflection at the free end of cantilever =PL3/3EI

27. Shear stress, twisting moment given ,find diamaeter.

28. Formula for polar moment of inertia of a hollow shaft

29. Formula for logarithmic decrement

30. A problem based on the above formula

31. Two question on transmissibility(W/Wn ratio )

32. Question from vibration mass,k given cal frequency

33. Two more questions, one each from riveted joints and cotterjoint

34. 1BHN=N/m2

35. Temperature limits, given to find Carnots efficiency

36. Metacentric height is the distance between Metacentre and --------
Ans: Centre of gravity

37. Force and displacement vector given to find out the work done

38. Rota meter is used to find
(a)flow(b)velocity(c)pressure(d)density

In addition, 10-12 were asked from electrical basics.

SECTION-II------- APTITUDE

VERBAL

Antonyms (5)-Facetious, Benign

Synonyms (5)-very easy

Fill in the blanks (5):-a bit tough

2 Comprehension passages

Correction of sentences-(5)

Reasoning (5)

BHEL ENGINEER TRAINEE EXAM 2009

EXAM HELD ON : 11-02-2009 AT TRICHY

NOTE: One Mark for correct answer, 1/5th for wrong answer. Five choices were given

1)Unit of Entropy (J/kg K or kJ/kg K)
2)A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1 m and penetrates the sand into for 1 m. What is the resistance force given by sand.
3)Ratio of specific heats of air. (1.41)
4)A body weighs 3 kg in air. If it is submerged in a liquid, it weighs 2.5 kg. What is the specific gravity of the liquid.
5)Two cars travell in same direction at 40 km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in a opposite direction in 60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between them?
6)A simple problem involing in hoops stress. For sphere: M= [3/2]*p*V*[density of pressure vessel material/Maximum working stress it can tolerate] For Thin walled pressure walls: Hoops stress or stress in the radial direction =p*r/2t
7)A problem in force calculation in a body moving in a inclined surface.
8)Composition of bronze. (Copper+zinc)
9)Compostion of stainless steel.(iron+chromium+nickel+carbon)
10)CI is manifactured in which process. (cupola process)
11)What percentage of carbon is preset in pig iron. (4.5 to 6%)
12)Water is available at 10m height. What is the pressure available? (pressure=density*g*height; p=1000*9.81*10; p=98100N/m2)
13)What will happen if the speed of the centrifugal pump doubles.
14)The unit eV is widely used in ? (Nuclear and atomic physics)
15)What will happen to the resistance, when the diameter of the conductor is doubled?
16)The power comsumed by a electrical device is 1000W at 250V, What is the resistance in the device?
(Power= Voltage*current; Current=Power/Voltage, Current,I=1000/250=4
amps. V=IR, Therefore R=250/4=62.5 ohms)
17)Why DC current is not used in transformer.
18)On what principle the sonar/ radar( I dont remember) works?
19)Bending moment diagram for the UDL is in what shape?
20)Function of the distributor in petrol vehicles? (Spark timing)
21)Which is not present in CI engines? (carburrettor)
22)What will happen if one cylinder recieves more amount of fuel spray from injectors than other injectors?
23)Purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines? (The purpose of a draft tube is toconvert some of the kinetic energy of the flow from the runner (the rotating part of the turbine) intopressure energy and thereby increase the efficiency ofthe hydro power turbine. )
24)What is the effect or reheater in the gas turbine? (The advantage of reheater is significantly increased thrust; the disadvantage is it has very high fuel consumption and inefficiency)
25)Problems in involving with fricition coefficient.
26)Factor of safety = Yeild stress/Working stress.
27)Which is the example of non parallel power transmission (Universal coupling)
28)For perpendicular shafts worm gear is used.
29)A planet gear with 25 teeth is meshed with a sun gear of 100 teeth. Both are connected using a arm. How many rotations are needed for planet gear to complete one rotation around the sun gear?
30)What is equivalent spring constant for spring in parallel?
31) Some questions was asked related to boundry layer and vortex flow.
32) 5 questions were asked in PERT, Process planning, Product planning, Break even analysis.
33)How are tungsten and sintered composite materials are machined? (Electro Discharge Machining, EDM)

General Apptitude:
All the sections were very easy. Basic knowledge is sufficient to attend all the questions. But Keep time factor in mind and increase your speed. There are 120 questions like this!!
English:
--- Detect the words with wrong spellings (5 questions)
---Fill in the blanks with appropriate words(5 questions)
--- Two reading comprehensions were given(10 questions)
---Find the error in the sentence (8 questions)
Reasoning:
--- Seating arrangement problems
--- Find the relation between them
Quantitative ability:
All the questions were very easy.
---50% of the questions are from basic geometry.

BHEL MODEL PAPER

Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.

Model question paper

1. For ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS with answers(bolded words)
2. When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms

a.) Resistanceb.) Reactancec.) Impedanced.) None

3. Oscillator crystal are made of –
   a.) Silicon
   b.) Germanium
   c.) Quartz
   d.) None
4. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-a. )Airb. )Ferrite c.) Powdered ion
   d.) Steel
5. If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area ‘A’ and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –
   
   a.)
   b.) C
   c.) 2C
   d.) 4C
6. A superconductor is a –
   a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
   b.) A conductor having zero resistance
   c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
   d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
7. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
   a) 8.05 pF
   b) 10.05pF
   c.) 16.01pF
   d.) 20.01pF
8. Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –
   a.) Inductance
   b.) Capacitance
   c.) Resistance
   d.) None
9. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –
   a.) Resistance in the line
   b.) Capacitor in series with contacts
   c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts
   d.) None
10. RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
    a.) Class ‘A’
    b.) Class ‘b’
    c.) Class ‘C’
    d.) None
11. The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
    a.) High positive
    b.) High negative
    c.) Low positive
    d.) Zero
12. The input gate current of a FET is –
    a.) a few microamperes
    b.) negligibly small
    c.) a few milliamperes
    d.) a few amperes
13. In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –

    
    a.) 25 mA
    b.) 40 mA
    c.) 25/16 mA
    d.) 10 mA

14. A step recovery diode –
    a.) has on extremely short recovery time
    b.) conducts equally well in both directions
    c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator
    d.) is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals
15. In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with V_CC 10V, the value of V_CE (Q) should be approximately-
    a.) 0.1V
    b.) 5V
    c.) 10V
    d) V
16. In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –
    a.) source
    b.) drain
    c.) gate
    d.) none
17. The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –a.) Triacb.) UJT c.) Diac
    d.) SCR
18. A typical optical fibre has –
    a.) High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding
    b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
    c.) Both a and b
    d.) None
19. In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –
    
    a.) 9
    b.) 11
    c.) 10
    d.) 21
20. When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be – a.) 3 – j1 b.) 3 + j9
    c.) 7.5 + j 2.5
    d.) 7.5 – j 2.5
21. In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load – a.) 5 b.) 6.5
    c.) 8
    d.) 9
22. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z₀ is the characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-a.) Z₀ cot h Ölb.) Z₀ cot Öl c.) Z₀ tan h.Ö l
    d.) Z₀ tan Öl
23. The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –a.) lb.) l/4 c.) l/2
    d.) l/8
24. A relatively permanent information is stored in
    a. ) ROM
    b.) RAM
    c.) PROM
    d.) Volatile memory
25. The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to – b.) RC
    c.) 2RC
    d.) 4RC
26. If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch ‘s’ and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be – a.) cos50tA b.) 2A
    c.) 2cos100tA
    d.) 2sin50tA
27. When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R₁, R₂ and R₃ will be respectively – a) 9W, 6W and 6W b.) 6W, 6W and 9W
    c.) 9W, 6W and 9W
    d.) 6W, 9W and 6W
28. When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –
    d.) indeterminate
29. Joule/coulomb is the unit of – a.) Electric field potential b.) Potential c .) Charge
    d.) None of the above
30. The electric field line and equipotential lines-
    a.) Are parallel to each other
    b.)Are one and same
    c.) Cut each other orthogonally
    d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle
31. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z₀ is the characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line
    
32. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X₁ and –X₁ respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-
    a.) In the +x direction
    b.) In the –x direction
    c. ) In the +y direction
    d.) In the –y direction
33. The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-
    a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation
    b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation
    c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
    d. ) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
34. The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-
    a.) TM₀₁
    b.)TE₁₀
    c.) TM₁₁₂
    d.)TE₁₁
35. When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –
    
36. . When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be
    a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value
    b.)Remain the same
    c. )Increase
    d.)Decrease to zero
37. When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z₀ = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
    a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
    b.)An inductance at the load
    c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
    d.)none of the above
38. As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –a.) less accurateb.) more accurate c.) equally accurate
    d.) none.
39. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –a.) VTVMb.) Cathode ray oscilloscope c.) Moving iron voltmeter
    d.) Digital multimeter
40. Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5. c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero
    d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
41. When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm² each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –a.) 11.1b.) 44.2 c.) 52.3
    d.) 66.3
42. The Q of a radio coil –a.) is independent of frequencyb.) increases monotonically as frequency increases c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
    d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
43. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –a.) 0.5b.) 1.5 c.) 2.5
    d.) 1.75
44. The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation) c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
    d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)
45. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
    a.) -200⁰C to 500⁰C
    b.) 0⁰C to 500⁰C
    c.) 500⁰C to 1200⁰C
    d.) 1200⁰C to 2500⁰C
46. In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –
    
    a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
    b.) Silicon (Si)
    c.) Copper (Cu)
    d.) Germanium (Ge)
47. When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –
    a.) 1
    b.) 2
    c.) 3
    d.) 4
48. The circuit symbol for a GTO is
    a. b.
    c. d.
49. In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters
    

    a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
    b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction
    c.) step up device
    d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device

    In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.
    S is closed at t = 0 the
    maximum value of current and the
    time at which it reaches this value are respectively.

    

    a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS

50. b.) 50 A, 30 mSc.) 100 A, 62.828 mSd.) 400 A, 31.414 mS
51. 50. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be-
    

    a.) 200 A
    b.) 170.7 A
    c.) 141.4 A
    d.) 70.7 A

52. The transfer function of an amplifier is given by The high 3-db frequency of the amplifier will approximately
    a.) 5850 KHZ
    b.)585 KHZ
    c.) 5850 HZ
    d.)585HZ
53. In comparison to full wave rectifier with two diodes the four divide bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of -
    a). Higher current carrying
    b.)Lower ripple factor
    c.) Higher efficiency
    d.)Lower peak increase voltage require
54. Power output increase in a class-c amplifier-
    a.) If the conduction angle decrease
    b).If the conduction angle increase
    c.) Are not governed by the conduction angle
    d.)None of the above
55. A transistor with h_ie = 1.5 k and h_fe = 75 is used in an emitter follower circuit where R₁ and R₂ are used for normal biasing . Approximate value of it’s current amplification is- a.)75b.)76 c.)75/76
    d.)-75
56. Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
    a.) It is biased almost to saturation
    b.)Its quiescent current is low
    c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
    d.)It is biased well below cut off
57. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
    a.) Direct coupling
    b.)Impedance coupling
    c.) R C coupling
    d.)Transformer coupling
58. In the circuit shown in the given figure R_f provides
    a.) Current series feedback
    b.)Current shunt feedback
    c.) Voltage series feedback
    d.)Voltage shunt feedback
59. Mark the correct relation for the junction transistor
    
60. Data in the serial form can be converted into parallel form by using –a.) PISO shift registerb.) SOIP shift register c.) SIPO shift register
    d.) POIS shift register
61. PROMs are used to store-a.) bulk informationb.) information to be accessed rarely c.) sequence information
    d.) relatively permanent information
62. The horizontal axis in a 3 bit unipolar D/A converter represents-a.) Output bit combinationb.) analog output voltage c.) input bit combination
    d.) none of the above
63. ‘Not allowed’ condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –a.) s = 0, R = 0b.) s = 1, R = 1 c.) s = 0, R = 1
    d.) s = 1, R = 0
64. Name the fastest logic family-a) TTLb.) RTL c.) DCTL
    d.) ECL
65. Equation corresponding to De Morgan’s theorem in Boolean Algebra is – a.) (A+B) (A+B) = AA + AB + BA + BB c.) A + AB = A
    d.) None of the above
66. In the given fig find radix of the system –
    

    a.) 2
    b.) 4
    c.) 6
    d.) 8

67. Modems are used for data transmission telephone lines to –a.) increase the transmission capacityb) improve noice performance c.) incorporate error control coding
    d.) eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal
68. The figure of a control system is shown. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is- a.) b.) 3
    c.) 4
    d.) 5
69. Identify the example of open-loop system-a.) A windscreen wiperb.) Aqualung c.) Respiratory system of an animal
    d.) A system for controlling Anti-rocket missiles.
70. Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-1. (5 – 4e^-2+) u(t)2. (e^-2t +5) (u(t)) 3 .V(t) + 8e^-2t u(t)
    4 . V(t) + 4e^-2t 4(t)
    Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-
    a.) 1&3
    b.) 1&4
    c.) 2&4
    d.) 1&4
71. A system is described by
    

    To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method the following V functions are considered.
    
    Mark the most suitable V-function in this case-
    a.) Only V₁
    b.) Only V₂
    
    c.) Both V₁ and V<sub>2
    
    d.</sub>) Neither V₁ nor v₂

72. Identity the polar plot of a typical type zero system with open loop transfer function
    
    
73. The scattering matrix of a magic –tee shown in the given figure is-
    
74. Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions. 3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
    4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.
    Codes
    a.) 1 and 4
    b.) 2 and 3
    c.) 1 and 3
    d.) 2 and 4
75. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos² (150at)The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds isa.) 150 samples per second b.) 200 samples per second
    c.) 300 samples per second
    d.) 350 samples per second
76. In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.a.) 34 and 106b.) 52. And 88 c.) 106 and 142
    d.) 34 and 142
77. Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –a.) Pulse radarb.) Tracking radar c.) MTI radar
    d.) Mono pulse radar
78. The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
    d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing
79. Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-a.) Compression of the modulating signalb.) Expansion of the modulating signal
    c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
80. In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-a.) reflection from the ionosphereb.) line of sight mode
    c) reflection from the groundd.) diffraction from the stratosphere.
81. Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector toa.) increase the gain of the systemb). increase the bandwidth of the system
    c.) reduce the size of the main reflectord.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
82. In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body. c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
    d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.
83. Circuit in the given figure represents. – a.) an astable multivibrator b.) A monostable multivibrator
    c.) Voltage controlled oscillator
    d.) Ramp generator
84. . . D = r is-a.) Maxwell’s 1^st equationb.) Maxwell’s II equation c.) Maxwell’s III equation
    d.) Maxwell’s IV equation
85. In a rectangular wave-guide which TM mode exists-a.) TM₀₀b.) TM₀₁
    c.) Tm₁₀
    
    d.) TM₁₁
    
86. In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.a). port 4b). port 3 c.) port 2.
    d.) port 3 & 4.
    
87. For high power i.e. 10 w to 50 kw measurement –
    a.) Barometer are used
    b.) Thermisters are used
    c.) Calorimetric technique
    d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used
88. The difference between TWT & klystron is –
    a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
    b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time
    c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact
    d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact
89. Which one is most suitable for transmission through wave guide-
    a.) Hown antennas
    b.) Bioconical antennas
    c.) helical antenna
    d. )Discone
90. The skip distance of microwave is given by –
    a.)
    b. )
    c.)
    d.)
91. How many general purpose registers 8085mp-
    a.) 4
    b.) 6
    c.) 8
    c.) 10
92. 8085 mP has no. of addressing modes-
    a.) 2
    b.) 3
    c.) 4
    d.) 5
93. What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction
    a.) z = 0, cy = 0
    b.) z = 0, cy = 1
    c.) z = 1, cy = 0
    d.) z = 1, cy = 1
94. Microprocessor accept interrupt only if.
    a.) interrupt flip flop disabled.
    b.) when INTA signal is low.
    c. ) interrupt flip flop enabled.
    d.) none of above.
95. Microprogramming is a technique
    a.) for programming the microprocessor
    b.) for writing small programs efficiently
    c.) for programming the control steps of computer
    
    d.) for programming o/p / i/p
96. High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help ofa.) interpreterb.) compiler c.) operating
    d.) system
97. (10110011)₂ = (?)8a.) 253b.) 263 c.) 273
    d.) 283
98. A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into-a.) NANDb.) NOR c.) AND
    d.) NOPE.
99. The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be-a.) ANDb.) OR c.) NAND
    d.) X-OR
100. A symbol of JK flip flop is-
     
101. A demultiplener-a.) has multiple i/p and single o/pb.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
     d.) has single i/p and single o/p
102. . Which of the following best describes the authour`s attitude toward fairy tales ?a.) fascinationb.) open approval. c.) Indulgent tolerance.
     d.) Scornful.
103. What type of sentence is this ?Hurray! We won the matcha.) Exclamatory b.) assertive
     c.) Negative
     d.) Affirmative
104. Before which of the following word will you put ‘a’a.) hourb.) M. A. c.) Umbrella
     d.) Man
105. The noun form of ‘fresh’ is –a.) freshlyb.) freshen c.) fresheners
     d.) fresh itself
106. The word ‘clang’ is an example of –a.) Simileb.) inversion c.) onomatopoeia
     d.) irony
107. The Forbes magazine acclaimed Azim Premji as richest India’s is the chairman of-a.) Pentafour softwareb) Infosys c.) IBM
     d.) Wipro
108. Bharat Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to-a.) Lata Mangeshkar and Zakeer Hussainb.) Zakeer Hussain and Bismillah Khan c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar
     d.) Lata Mangeshkar and Ustad Amzad Ali Khan
109. Mr. George W-Bush takes over as —— President of the united states of America succeeding Mr. Bill Clinton-a.) 42^nd
     b.) 43^rd c.) 40^th
     d.) 45^th
110. New Chief Minister of Pondicherry is-a.) T. Venkat Naidub.) K. Hari Harh c.) N. Rengaswany
     d.) M. Mudliar
111. No court has the jurisdiction to interfere with the election process once set in motion by the Election commission. This is enshrined in Article-a.) 311b.) 329 c.) 356
     d.) 365
112. Ostrich is a-a.) Running birdb.) Flying bird c) Swimming bird
     d.) Migratory bird
113. The main atmospheric gas responsible for green house is-a.) Oxygenb.) Nitrogen c.) Ozone
     d.) Carbon-dioxide
114. Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop-a.) Riceb.) groundnut c.) Sugarcane
     d.) gram
115. The function of World Bank is to-a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economyb.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments
     d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade
116. Speed of sound is maximum in-a. )Waterb.) Air c.) Steel
     d.) Vacuum
117. “Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these-a.) Subhash Chandra Boseb.) Jawaharlal Nehru c.) Lajpat Rai
     d.) Bhagat Singh
118. Durand cup is associated with-a.) Hockeyb.) Tennis c.) Football
     d.) Badminton
119. Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.a.) 1908b.) 1910 c.) 1913
     d.) 1914
120. India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on-a.) May 18, 1975b.) May 20, 1974 c) May 17, 1974
     d.) May 17, 1974
121. An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-a.) Asian development Bankb.) World Bank c.) Swiss Bank
     d.) Reserve Bank of India