BSNL JTO 2005 YEAR SOLVED PAPER

When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of -
a) Each of them increases
b) Each of them decreases
c) Copper increases and germanium decreases
d) Copper decreases and germanium increases
Answer: d)
When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instrument can be used -
a) VTVM
b) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c) Moving iron voltmeter
d) Digital multimeter
Answer: b)

When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at room temperature then –
a) Both will have equal value of resistivity
b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity
c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon
d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium
Answer: d)

When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = 0; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4
Answer: b)

For the n-type semiconductor with n = Np and p = , the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes –
a) drop back to acceptor impurity states
b) drop to donor impurity states
c) Virtually leave the crystal
d) recombine with the electrons
Answer: d)

The location of lighting arrestor is –
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is –
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
Answer: a)

Telemetering is a method of –
a) Counting pulses sent over long distances
b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None
Answer: c)

When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1´ 106 kg/cm2 and R is 100 ohms then the value of DR will be -
a) 2W
b) 3W
c) 4W
d) 1W
Answer: d)

As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –
a) Becomes zero
b) Abruptly decreases
c) Abruptly increases
d) Remains constant
Answer: d)

11. One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is –
a) Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric pick up
c) Photo-Voltaic cell
d) LCD
Answer: d)

When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is –

a) Common base
b) Common collector
c) Common emitter
d) Emitter follower
Answer: a)

In a JFET gates are always –
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) unbiased
d) none
Answer: c)

The main factor which differentiate a DE MOSFET from an E only MOSFET is the absence of –
a) insulated gate
b) electrons
c) channel
d) P-N junction

An SCR conducts appreciable current when –
a) Anode and gate are both negative with respect to cathode
b) Anode and gate are both positive with respect to cathode
c) Anode is negative and gate is positive with respect to cathode
d) Gate is negative and anode is positive with respect to cathode

Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is -
a) An indirect band gap semiconductor
b) A direct band gap semiconductor
c) A wide band gap semiconductor
d) A narrow band gap semiconductor

An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be –
a) 111V
b) 100V
c) 90.09V
d) 70.7V
Answer: b)

When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is –

a) 5W
b) 10 W
c) 15 W
d) 20 W
Answer: a)

In the ac bridge shown in the given figure, the value of Rx and Cx at balance will be

Answer:

Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –
a) Z11 = Z22
b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22
c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21
d) Z12 = Z21
Answer: d)

BSNL GE-JTO Exam QuestionsPrevious

1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency parallel circuit is -
a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Resistive
d) None

2. Which of the following are piezo-electric substances-
a) Barium titanate
b) Lead titanate
c) Lead zirconate
d) All the above

3. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) The maximum number of input channels
b) The minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) The internal clock period
d) The minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

4. In a P-type semiconductor, the conductivity due to holes (=sp) is equal to (e=charge of hole, mp = hole mobility, P = hole concentration)-
a)
b)
c) P.e. mp
d)

5. When a small amount of Cu is added to a Ni conductor, then the –
a) Resistivity of Ni will decrease at all temperatures because Cu is better conductor than Ni
b) Residual resistivity of Ni at low temperatures will increase as Cu atoms acts as defect centers
c) Resistivity of Ni will increase at all temperatures as Cu destroys the periodicity of Ni and acts as defects
d) Resistivity of Ni remains unaltered as Cu atoms give the same numbers of free electrons as Ni atoms

6. A coil would behave as -
a) An inductor at high frequencies
b) A capacitor at very low frequencies
c) A capacitor at very high frequencies
d) A resonator at high frequencies

7. The law that induced emf and current always oppose the cause producing them was discovered by -
a) Maxwell
b) Faraday
c) Lenz
d) Fleming

8. A ‘trimmer’ capacitor is a variable capacitor used for -
a) ‘Tunning up’ a radio for best sensitivity
b) Tunning a radio to different stations
c) Changing the original capacitance by several hundred Pico farads
d) Eliminating whistling in a transistor radio

9. In panel wiring, solid wire is preferred to standard wire because it -
a) Can carry more current
b) Can be shaped better
c) Uses less chopper
d) Has better insulation

10. FET’s have similar properties to –
a) PNP transistors
b) NPN transistors
c) Thermionic valves
d) Unijunction transistors

11. The semiconductor strain gauge has gauge factor -
a) 2
b) 10
c) 100
d) 1000

12. AE 139 is a-
a) Tunnel diode
b) Germanium power transistor
c) Photoconductive cell
d) Silicon diode

13. When a zener diode is used in a power supply its function is to maintain a constant -
a) Output voltage
b) Input voltage
c) Output current irrespective of the load resistance
d) supply current

14. The value of g for a transistor in saturation is -
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) very near unity
d) 0.25

15. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a) channel
b) gate
c) P-N junction
d) substrate

16. The gating pulse is removed after firing an SCR than the current in the SCR will –
a) Remain the same
b) Immediately fall to zero
c) Rise up
d) Rise a little and then fall to zero

17. In the fabrication of an integrated circuit, the advantages of ion implantation over diffusion doping are that –
a) Point imperfections are not produced
b) Shallow doping is not possible
c) It is a low temperature process
d) Previous steps in fabrication are affected

18. The alternate mode of a dual trace oscilloscope can be used for displaying –
a) Any two waveforms
b) Two waveforms of relatively high frequency
c) Two waveforms of relatively low frequency
d) One low frequency and one high frequency waveform

19. Attenuator is a –
a) pure resistance network producing a constant attenuation
b) pure resistance network producing a variable attenuation at variable frequencies
c) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at all frequencies
d) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at low frequencies

20. The equivalent circuit of the following circuit is –
21. For the lattice type attenuator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance R is –

22. Thevenin’s equivalent circuit of the network shown in the given figure, between terminals T1 and T2 is –

23. One of the following combinations of open circuit voltage and Thevenins equivalent resistance which represents the Thevenins equivalent of the circuit shown in the given fig. is –
a) 1V, 10W
b) 1V, 1kW
c) 1mV, 1kW
d) 1mV, 10W

24. In the following circuit, the effective resistance faced by the voltage source is –
a) 1W
b) 2W
c) 3W
d) 3.3W

25. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given fig. The resistor will be non-inductive if –

26. One of the following which is a cut set of the graph shown in fig. is –
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
c) 1, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

27. For which value of R the following circuit will deliver maximum to the terminals a and b is –

28. In a coaxial cable, braided copper is used as a -
a) Conductor
b) Shield
c) Dielectric
d) Jacket

29. When the transmission loss for a 3 GHz microwave system over a certain distance is 130 dB and if the frequency is now doubled then the transmission loss will be –
a) 136 dB
b) 133 dB
c) 127 dB
d) 139 dB
30. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed -
a) In the +x direction
b) In the –x direction
c) In the +y direction
d) In the –y direction

31. With reference to the given figure, the signal picked up by the receiving antenna can be increased by increasing-
a) he only
b) hr only
c) both he and hr
d) neither he nor hr

32. Which of the following antennas are frequency independent ?
1. Folded dipole
2. Half wave dipole
3. Parabolic reflector
4. Helical antenna
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 1,2 and 3

33. The reading of digital multimeter are –
a) very difficult
b) confusing
c) convenient
d) none

34. One of the following which does not have the same units as the others –
35. Shaft encoder is used for the measurement of –
a) angular position
b) linear position
c) linear velocity
d) linear acceleration.

36. The materials used in switches, brushes and relays for electrical contact must possess –
a) high thermal conductivity and high melting point.
b) low thermal conductivity and low melting point.
c) high thermal conductivity and low melting point.
d) low thermal conductivity and high melting point.

37. Capacitive transducer is superior to inductive type for the measurement of displacement because of –
a) absence of non-linearity
b) high frequency response
c) small size
d) high accuracy

38. When a RLC series circuit has R=1ohm, L=1H and C = 1F then the damping ratio on the circuit will be-
a) more than unity
b) unity
c) 0.5
d) zero

39. The sensitivity of an electromagnetic digital flow meter can be increased by increasing –
a) the circumferential width of rotor teeth
b) the radial depth of rotor teeth
c) the thickness of rotor teeth
d) the number of teeth

40. A moving iron instrument –
a) is an unpolarised meter
b) has not a fixed coil
c) both a and b
d) none

41. A linear displacement transducer of the digital type generally uses –
a) straight binary code
b) BCD
c) Gray code
d) hexadecimal code

42. The output open circuit voltage divided by the input current for a two port reciprocal network is equal to-
a) B
b) Z12
c) 1/y12
d) h12

43. The ac bridge shown in the given figure if balanced is Z1 = 100 Ð300 Z2 = 150Ð00, Z3 = 250 Ð 400 and Z4 is equal to –
a) 375Ð700
b) 375Ð-700
c) 150Ð00
d) 150 Ð200

44. The given figure represents the variation of electric field E –
a) Due to a spherical volume charge Q = Q1 + Q2
b) Due to two concentric shells of charge Q1 and Q2 uniformly distributed over spheres of radii R1 and R2
c) Due to two point charges Q1 and Q2 located at any two points ‘r’
d) In a single spherical shell of charges Q uniformly distributed Q = Q1 + Q2

45. In a SCR anode current flows over a narrow regain near the gate during-
a) delay time tr
b) rise time tr and spread time to
c) td and t0
d) td and tr

46. For a 3-phase six-pulse diode rectifier, the average output voltage in terms of maximum value of line voltage Vm is

47. In an inverter with fundamental ouctput frequency of 50 Hz, if third harmonic is eliminated, then frequencies of other components in the output voltage wave in Hz would be-
a) 250, 350, 450, high frequencies
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350, 550
d) 50, 100, 200, 250.

48. Number of SCRs in a 3 phase full converter working during overlap is-
a) 1 from positive group 1 from negative group
b) 2 from positive group 1 from negative group
c) 1 from positive group 2 from negative group
d) 2 from positive group 2 from negative group

49. For a 3 phase bridge inverter in 1800 conduction mode. In the given fig the sequence of SCR conduction in the first two steps beginning with the initiation of thyristor is-
a) 6, 1, 2, and 2, 3, 1
b) 2,3,1 and 3,4,5
c) 3,4,5 and 5,6,1
d) 5,6,1 and 6,1,2

50. For the lattice type atten uator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance Rv is-

51. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a) A resonant circuit is used as load)
b)The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive.
d)None of the above.

52. The low impedance of a dynamic loud speaker is a result of -
a) a large field magnet
b) the few turns of the voice coil
c) a large paper cone with big loud speakers
d) None of the above

53 The value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 na) The value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180 C would be-
a) 8mA
b) 160 nA
c) 1 mA
d) 7.84 mA

54. A certain percentage of negative feedback does not yield a fixed reduction in gain because it depends on-
a) Transistor configuration
b) Ambient temperature
c) Initial value of gain
d) Leakage current of the transistor

55. Crossover distortion occurs in — amplifiers-
a) Push pull
b) Class A
c) Class B
d) Class AB

56. The power gain of an amplifier is 80 db) The half power frequency f1 and f2 are the frequency where gain has fallen to —dB-
a) 40
b) 77
c) 0
d) 80/Ö2

57. In the given fig the overall voltage gain in the amplifier is -
a) Zero
b) 1
c) 1000
d) 100000

58. A two stage amplifier is required to have an upper cut off frequency of 2MHz and a lower cut off frequency 30Hz. The upper and lower cut off frequencies of individual stage are approximately-
a) 4MHz, 60Hz
b) 3MHz, 20Hz
c) 3MHz, 60Hz
d) 4MHz, 20Hz

59. Number of possible states in a circuit with n- FLIPFLOPS is-
a) Nn
b) 3n
c) 10n
d) 2n

60. In a digital voltmeter the largest number that can be read is –
a) 0999
b) 1999
c) 2999
d) 9999

61. The complement of the Boolean expression is-

62. The binary division 110002 ¸ 1002 gives –
a) 110
b) 1100
c) 11
d) 101

63. Time required by TTL circuit to switch from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0 is about –
a) 10 ms
b) 10 ns
c) 100 ms
d) 50 ns

64. Identify the wrong statement ?
a) 111002 – 100012 = 001012
b) 15E16 = 35010
c) 8110 = 1010012
d) 37.48 = 111 111.100

65. Type of radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a) Monopulse radar
b) MTl radar
c) Tracking radar
d) pulse radar

66. Asynchronous sequential circuits are seldom designed to operate in the pulse mode because –
a) the amplitude of input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
b) the duralion of the input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
c) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit is cheaper than pulse mode asynchronous circuit
d) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit has a higher speed of operation than the pulse mode asynchronous circuit.

67. Identity the transferred electron device-
a) BARITT diode
b) IMPATT diode
c) Gunn diode
d) Step recovery diode

68. In a closed loop system the loop transfer function is given by
The angle of departure of the root locus at S = -1+ J is-
a) Zero
b) 900
c) -900
d) -1800

69. The transfer function of a plant is
For a step input it is required that the response settles to within 2% of its final value. The plant setting time is –
a) 20 sec
b) 40 sec
c) 35 sec
d) 45 sec
BSNL GE JTO Recruitment Question paper previous years exam last. 2007 2008
70. The transfer function and states in a linear feedback system shown in given fig. are respectively –

a) strictly stable and not stable
b) strictly stable and stable
c) not strictly stable and stable
d) not stable and not stable.

71. What is the steady state-error corresponding to a unit step input if the magnitude plot for a transfer function is shown in figure

72. Mark the correct effect in respect of addition of a pole to the system loop transfer function?
1. The root locus is pulled to the right.
2. The system response becomes slower.
3. The steady state error increases.
of these statements-
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct

73. In a feedback control system the polar plot of the open-loop transfer function intersects the real axis at – 2. The gain margin of the system is -
a) –5 dB
b) 0 dB
c) 6 dB
d) 40 dB

74. The unity feedback system for K is
the imaginary axis is-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 48

75. The constant M loci plot is symmetrical width respect to-
a) real axis and imaginary axis
b) M =1 straight line and the real axis
c) M =1 straight line and the imaginary axis
d) M = 1 straight line and the imaginary axis

76. Identify the wrong statement-
a) Attenuation of satellite signals gain and varies almost inversely with the angle of elevation.
b) At present4/6 GHz Geostationary satellites are being parked in Geosynchronous orbits at least 100 apart.
c) The distance between satellite and earth station varies slightly with angle of elevation.
d) The angle of elevation depends on latitude of the earth station and the difference in longitude between earth station and the satellite.

77 The Voltage Vo of the given circuit is-
a) 5V
b) 3.1 V
c) 2.5 V
d) Zero

78. An antenna has 40 antenna resistance and 60W radiation resistances. The efficiency of the antenna is -
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%

79. The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a) Carrier frequency
b) Pulse repetition frequency
c) Antenna rotation rate
d) Transmitted power

80. Interlacing used in television is for-
a) produce the illusion of motion.
b) ensures that all the lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones.
c) simplify the vertical sync pulse train
d) avoid flicker

81. The best system for accurate tracking if the target cross section is changing is-
a) lobe switching
b) sequential lobing
c) conical scanning
d) monopulse

82. In a single stage differential amplifier, the output effect voltage is basically dependent on the mismatch of-
a) VBE, IB and b
b) VBE and IB
c) IB and b
d) VBE and b

83. Antenna elevation angle at the ground station for satellite communication is always kept above 50 to-
a) Minimise the sky noise temperature
b) Reduce the effect of oxygen and water vapor absorption on the antenna noise temperature
c) Minimise the slant range
d) Increase the visibility of the satellite

84. In Hybrid wave-
a) Both electric and magnetic fields are purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
b) Only electric field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
c) Only magnetic field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
d) Neither electric nor magnetic fields are transverse to direction of propagation of the wave

85. Balometer technique is used to measure –
a) Frequency
b) Low power
c) Attenuation
d) Phase shift

86. In fast switching circuits we use –
a) Klystron tube
b) Tunnel diode
c) Magnetron tube
d) PIN diode

87. PIN diode is used as –
a) Low noise mixer
b) Microwave detector
c) Balance mixer
d) Phase shifter

88. A periodic fluctuation of current passing through n type GaAS specimen when applied voltage exceeds critical value-
a) Gauss’s law
b) Faraday’s law
c) GUNN effect
d) Doppler effect

89. LOS distance can be increased by –
a) Increasing height of transmitting antenna
b) Increasing height of receiving antenna
c) Increasing height of bath
d) LOS distance can not be increased

90. Which fading produces serious distortion of modulated signal-
a) Selective
b) Polorisation
c) Interference
d) Slow fading

91. 8085 mP is a processor of -
a) 8 bit
b) 10 bit
c) 32 bit
d) None

92. The Bit position of AC flog in flog register is-
a) D2
b) D4
c) D6
d) D7

93. In which arithmatic operation CY flog do not affect even if result is larger than 8 bit-
a) INR B
b) ADD A, B
c) SUB A, B
d) None

94. A stock means-
a) an 8 bit register in microprocessor
b) a 16 bit memory address in memory
c) a 16 bit register in microprocessor.
d) a set of memory location in memory reserved for storing information temporarily.

95. RIM instruction-
a) checks pending interupts
b) sets the interupt mask
c) resets the RST interupt
d) none of above

96. A signal generated by microprocessor to provide timing of various operation is transmited through-
a) address bus.
b) data bus
c) control bus
d) in buit signal no need to transmit

97. On execution of RAL-
a) Each bit is shifted right to the adjacent position bit Do becomes Dy
b) Each bit is shifted right to adjacent position bit Do becomes the carry bit and carry bit is shifted into DT
c) Each bit is shifted to adjacent left position. Bit DT becomes Do
d) Each bit is shifted to the adjacent left postion. Bit DT becomes the carry bit and the carry bit is shifted into Do

98. A frequency divider can be designed with help of-
a) Monostable
b) Bistable
c) Astable
d) Quasistable

99. The not allowed condition for NAND gate SR FF is-
a) S = 0 R = 0
b) S = 0 R = 1
c) S = 1 R = 0
d) S = 1 R = 1
BSNL Recruitment Question Paper for GE JTO free. BSNL Placement Examination Paper previous years 2006 2007 2008 2009 sample paper. solutions / answer keys coming soon!
100. In IC resistors are formed from p-type semiconductor are –
a) thin film
b) thick film
c) hybrid
d) monolithic

101. Give the tense of the following sentence-
He walked to the garden.
a) Present
b) Past
c) Future
d) None

102. You may go there if you want to. Here, the modal auxiliary ‘may’ indicates-
a) obligation
b) politeness
c) possibility
d) request

103. What type of a sentence is this?
His findings were imroved and built apon.
a) Simple
b) Comound
c) Complex
d) None of the above

104. The manager is usually strict but in Madhav’s case he decided to be-
a) direct
b) fair
c) excused
d) lenient

105. Find the word which is wrongly spelt-
a) possession
b) ocassion
c) profession
d) procession

106. “Dow Jones” is -
a) Name of the national museum in London
b) Bridge over River Thames
c) New York Stock Index
d) New Olympic champion in cycling

107. The term “Ashes” is associated with-
a) Hockey
b) Cricket
c) soccer
d) None of these

108. “Kathakali” dance is connected with-
a) Kerala
b) Rajasthan
c) Uttar Predesh
d) Tamil nadu

109. Among the following Miss India Universe 2001 is-
a) Ms Sara corner
b) Ms Maheshwari Thiagarajan
c) Ms Celina Jetley
d) None of the these

110. Maharashtra Bhusan Award for the year 2000 – 2001 by the state government goes to -
a) Sanjay Manjrekar
b) Vinod Kambli
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Praveen Sharma

111. Who was Sworn in as the chief Justice of India-
a) Mr. S. Krishnaswamy
b) Mr.A.K. Mehra
c) Mr. J.K. Naidu
d) Mr. S.P. Bharucha

112. Which one of the following tennis competitions is not included in GRAND SLAM?
a) Wimbeldon
b) U.S open
c) French open
d) Australian open

113. The first Korean to win the Japan open badminton tournament is -
a) Lee Hyun – II
b) Marleen Renders
c) Shang Pee
d) Emma Yan

114. India launched first satellite by the name-
a) Bhaskara
b) Aryabhatt
c) INSAT
d) APPLE

115. Which state in India is called the “garden of spices”?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Tamil Nadu

116. The new CEO and the president of the Infosys Technology is –
a) N. R. Narayan Murth
b) Nandan Nilekani
c) SD Shibulal
d) M. Subbarao

117. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabh-
a) 6 members
b) 9 members
c) 12 members
d) 15 members

118. King of Nepal is-
a) Prince Gyanendra
b) Prince Dipendra
c) Prince Birendra
d) Prince Devendra

119. The famous paper which gandhigi edited to propagate his ideas-
a) Khadi
b) Swadeshi
c) Harijan
d) Satyagraha

120. The length of the pitch in the cricket is-
a) 22 meters
b) 25 yards
c) 50 feet
d) 22 yards

NALCO GET/MT EXAM APTITUDE QUESTION PAPER

1. Canary islands

are dependencies of ?
(a) Spain
(b) Portugal
(c) Germany
(d) U.K.
Ans : a

2. The Strait which separates Asia from North America is
(a) The Bering Strait
(b) The Palk Strait
(c) The Strait of Gibraltar
(d) The Strait of Malacca
Ans : a

3. Long treeless grassy palms are characteristics of
(a) Campos
(B) Llanos
(c) Pampas
(d) Prairies
Ans : d

4. Which of the following is not a desert?
(a) Gobi
(b) Kalahari
(c) Sahara
(d) Cotopaxi
Ans : d

5. The highest waterfall of the world is ?
(a) Niagara Falls
(b) Boyomar Falls
(c) Salto Angel Falls
(d) Khone Falls
Ans : c

6. Amongst the following, which is the largest island?
(a) England
(b) Japan
(c) Borneo
(d) New Guinea
Ans : d

7. Which is the world’s largest desert?
(a) Sahara
(b) Gobi
(c)Thar
(d)Takala Makan
Ans : a

8. Which of the following is the largest river in the
world?
(a) Nile
(b) Congo
(c) Ganges
(d) Amazon
Ans : d

9. Which of the following is the highest plateau in the word?
(a) Colorado Plateau
(b) Pamir Plateau
(c) Patagonia Plateau
(d) Potwar Plateau
Ans : b

10. Niagara Falls are in ?
(a) Australia
(b) U.K.
(c) South Africa
(d) USA
Ans : d

11. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a)Algeria -Niger
(b) Brazil -Amazon
(c) Iraq -Tigris
(d) Myanmar –Irrawady
Ans : a

12. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is ?
(a) 2Km
(b) 3Km
(c) 4Km
(d) 5Km

13. Which one of the following countries has the longest international boundary with India?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Bhutan
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Ans : c

14. Adam’s bridge connects
(a) Amman and Damascus
(b) Dhanushkodi (Ramesvararn) and Talaimannar
(c) Israel and Jerusalem
(d) Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
Ans : b

15 Hawaiian Islands are located in
(a) South Pacific Ocean
(b) North Pacific Ocean
(c) South Atlantic Ocean
(d) North Atlantic Ocean
Ans : b

16 The Ocean between America and Europe is called
(a) Pacific
(b) Arctic
(c) Atlantic
(d) Southern
Ans : c

17. Ljublajana is a part of
(a)Yugoslavia
(b) Portugal
(c)Romania
(d) Russia
Ans : a

18. Fiji islands are a part of
(a)Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(c)Polynes
(d) Australasia
Ans : a

19. The Strait connecting Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal is
(a) Bering strait
(b) Dover Strait
(c) Palk Strait
(d) Vermosa Strait
Ans : a c

20. Myanmar is a new name of
(a) Burma
(b) Philippines
(c) Thailand
(d) Vietnam
Ans : a

21. Of the following, the country which is not in Oceania is
(a)Fiji
(b) Barbados
(c)New Zealand
(d) Papua New Guinea
Ans : c

22. Which of the following is the deepest lake?
(a)Lake Victoria
(b)Caspian Sea
(c)Lake Superior
(d) Lake Baikal
Ans : d

23. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Baghdad -Tigris
(b) Cairo -Rhine
(c)London -Thames
(d)New York –Hudson
Ans : b

24. The Hawaii islands are the top of submerged
(a) block mountains
(b) folded mountains
(c) volcanic mountains
(d) dome mountains
Ans : c

25. Which is the largest Gulf in the world?
(a) The Gulf of Cambay
(b) The Persian Gulf
(c) The Gulf of Mexico
(d )None of these
Ans : c

26. The Great Barrier Reef is
(a) Conglomeration of corals in Australian waters
(b) Mountain range in Utah, U.S.A.
(c) Salt hills of Afghanistan
(d) Sub -Oceanic mountain in South China Sea
Ans : a

27. The hottest place in the world is
(a)Teheran,Iran
(b) Jaisalmer, India
(c)Dallol, Ethiopia
(d) Azizia,Libya
Ans : c

28. The country that has the greatest length of the day during summer is
(a) Australia
(b) Mexico
(c) Nigeria
(d) Norway
Ans : c

29. The climate of a place depends upon
(a) its distance from the equator
(b) its height above sea level
(c) Both the above
(d) Neither of the above
Ans : c

30. The maximum temperature in Thar desert during the month of May is between (in Degree centigrade)
(a) 35-37
(b) 37-39
(c) 40-43
(d) 43- 45
Ans : c

31. The Greeks classified the world climates into
1. Torrid zone or tropical climate
2. Temperate zone or moderate climate
3. Frigid zone or cold climate
Which of the following factors formed the basis of this classification ?
(a) Temperature
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Precipitation
(d) Wind direction
Ans : a

32. A place having an average temperature of 27 C and an annual rainfall of over 200 cm,
it could be ?
(a)Tehran
(b) Singapore
(c)Nagpur
(d) Moscow
Ans : b

33. Assertion (A) :Vegetation is the Index of climate
Reason (R) :Rainfall and temperature predominantly affect the type of vegetation.In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans : a

34. Extensive subsistence agriculture is
(a) Farming on the slopes of Western Ghats
(b) Farming in the thickly populated areas
(c) Farming in the thinly populated areas
(d) Farming in the forests of equatorial region
Ans : c

35.If there is high rainfall, abundant sunshine, gently sloping land and well drained soil, for which crop are the conditions most suitable?
(a) Jute
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Tea
Ans : d

36. Which of the following soils is very hard to cultivate?
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Sandy
Ans : a

37. Sucrose content in sugarcane decreases
(a) if frost occurs during the process of ripening
(b) if high rainfall occurs during the period of growth of the plant
(a) if there is high temperature during the time of ripening
(d) if there is fluctuation in temperature during the period of growth of the plant
Ans : b

38. The important feature of shifting cultivation is
(a) Cultivation by transplantation
(b) Cultivation of Leguminous crops
(a) Change of Cultivation site
(d) Rotating of crops
Ans : c

39. Fertility of soil can be improved by
(a) Adding living earthworms
(b) Adding dead earthworms
(c) Removing dead earthworms
(d) Removing living earthworms and adding dead earthworms
Ans : a

40. The crop associated with retting process is
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Jute
(d) Cotton
Ans : c

41. In which of the following regions plantation agriculture is largely practised?
(a)Subtropical
(b) Semi-arid
(c)Tropical
(d) Temperate
Ans : c

42. World’s largest producer of jute is
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Burma
(c) India
(d) Pakistan
Ans : c

43. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term transhumance?
(a) Economy that solely depends upon animals
(b) Farming in which only one crop is cultivated by clearing hill slopes
(c) Practice of growing crops on higher hill slopes in summer and foothills in winter
(d) Seasonal migration of people with their animals up and down the mountains
Ans : d

44. The barriers that can prevent small farmers in many nations from participating in the green revolution include
(a) money for investment
(b) education
(c) small size of farms
(d) all the above
Ans : d

45. Which of the following refers to ‘Green Manure’?
(a) Adding NPK fertilizers to the soil
(b) Growing leguminous crops and ploughing it
(c) Adding farmyard manure
(d) Applying slurry manure obtained from Gobar gas plants
Ans : b

46. Which of the following is not a cash crop
(a) Cotton
(b) Groundnut
(c) Jowar
(d) Jute
Ans : c

47. Which of the following types of soils have a marked capacity to retain water?
(a) Desert soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Red soil
(d) Regur soil
Ans : d

48. The ideal climatic conditions for the cultivation of rice are
(a) Rainfall above 100cm, temperature above 25’ C
(b) Cool and moist climate for the entire crop period
(c) Rainfall below 100cm, temperature below 25’ C
(d) Warn and dry climate during the entire crop period
Ans : a

49. Which crop is generally sown to restore and maintain soil fertility?
(a) Barley
(b) Jowar
(c) Maize
(d) Pulses
Ans : d

50. Which of the following countries consumes more fish than any other country in the world?
(a) Japan
(b) Great Britain
(c) France
(d) China
Ans : a

SAIL MANAGEMENT TRAINEE EXAM PAPER

1. How many cards of E type are inserted in brown envelopes?
* Nil
* One
* Answer is: Two
* Three
* Data inadequate

2. Which of the following combinations of the type of cards and the number of cards is definitely correct in respect of yellow-coloured envelopes?
* A-2, B-I, C-2
* B-I, C-2. D-2
* A-2, E-l, D-2
* Answer is: A-3, B-1 C-1
* None of these

3. Which of the following combinations of types of cards and the number of cards and colour of envelope is definitely correct?
* Answer is: C-2, D-1, E-2, Brown
* C-1,D-2,E-2,Brown
* B-2, D-2, A-I, Red
* A-2,B-2,C-1,Yellow
* None of these

4. Which of the following combinations of colour of the envelope and the number of cards is definitely correct in respect of E type cards?
* Red-2, Brown-l
* Red-1,Yellow-2
* Red-2, Yellow- 1
* Yellow-1,Brown-2
* Answer is: None of these

5. “Forty per cent of our products are sold in rural area, fifty-three per cent are sold in semi-urban area, sixty per cent of employees are from rural area.” Which of the following statements is definitely true?
* The company’s products are purchased only by its employees and their family.
* The company does not desire to recruit urban employees.
* The company’s products are required in big urban cities and metro areas.
* The company holds approximately 90% of the market share in its product line.
* Answer is: None of these

6. “We do not advertise, our product speaks for itself.”— Statement of manufacturer of two-wheeler ‘BJA’.
Which of the following, if true, would support and strengthen this statement?
(i) The prices of BJA two-wheelers are on higher side.
(ii) ‘BJA’ has won award for Quality Control Systems.
(iii) The BJA two-wheeler is sleek-looking and has good colours.
(iv) The salaries of BJA employees are better than government services.
* Only (i) and (ii)
* Answer is: Only (ii) and (iii)
* Only (iii) and (iv)
* Only (i), (ii) and (iiii)
* None of these

Directions (Q. 7-13): Read the following in formation carefully and answer the following questions:
Following are the criteria for organizing interview of such candidates as have been selected from the promotion to officer’s grade from assistant grade in the PRS Industrial Group Limited:
The candidate to be called for interview must:
(i) be a graduate with minimum 50% marks.
(ii) have minimum five years’ experience in the clerical cadre job.
(iii) have obtained at least ‘C’ ratings in performance (speed of work) and the quality of work each during the last three years. For this five ratings A, 8, C, D and E-have been created on the basis of ”Performance Appraisal Report” with the lowest ratings of A and the highest ratings of E.
(iv) have obtained at least ‘D’ ratings in the approach of work (dependability) and in the flexibility of work each for his/her works in the last three years. For this, seven ratings A, B,C, D, E, F and G have been formulated on the basis of “Performance Appraisal Report” with lowest ratings of A and the highest ratings of G.
However, in case of a candidate who fulfills all other criteria EXCEPT

(a)(i) above, but has passed Graduation Exam and has got ‘E’ ratings in the approach of work in the last three years, may be referred to the Assistant Manager (Personnel).
(b) (ii) above, but has experience of three years in clerical cadre job and has got at least ‘D’ ratings in the quality of work for his/her works in the last three years, may be referred to the Deputy Manager (Personnel).

Based on these criteria and information provided against each candidate, decide the course of action. You are not to assume anything. If the data provided are not adequate to decide the given course of action, your answer will be “Data inadequate”. All the candidates fulfill the criterion of age. V Give answer
(1) if data are inadequate (2) if not to be selected (3) if selected for the interview (4) if case is referred to the Assistant Manager (5) if case is referred to the Deputy Manager

7. Mohammed Sheikh is a brilliant post-graduate in Science and has secured 63% and5 marks in graduation and post graduation respectively. He has ‘E’ grade for dependability and flexibility inPerformance Appraisal Report for last four years. He has got ‘C’ rating for quality of work and speed of work. He joined the Bank four years ago.
* data are inadequate
* Answer is: not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

8. Kiran Bala is a young lady and laborious assistant who joined this organisation six years ago after passing B. Commerce Exam. The ratings being given to her for the last 4 years are ‘D’ and ‘C’ respectively for quality of work and speed of work. She is one of the leaders of the clerks. She has got ‘D’ ratings for flexibility of work for the last 5 years.
* Answer is: data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

9. Marks details missing Mandar Rhave has passed his Graduation in Science and Diploma in Business Management with 58% and 62% respectively. lie is good player of chess. His rating on PAR are ‘D’ for ‘dependability’ and ‘flexibility’ whereas he has ‘C’ rating for ‘quality of work’ and ‘D’ rating for ‘speed of work’ for the last 4 years.
* Answer is: data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

10. Joining Date missing Anubhav Rege is with the company for last seven years. For the last 4 years he has ‘D’ rating for ‘quality of work’, ‘C’ rating for ‘speed of work’, ‘F’ rating for ‘dependability’ and ‘D’ rating for ‘flexibility’. His marks in graduation and post-graduation are 46% and 50% respectively. He is very fond of cultural activities
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* Answer is: case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

12. Shivasundaram has got ‘D’ rating since he joined the bank three years ago on quality of work, speed of work, dependability and flexibility. He has passed his graduation and post graduation with 52% and 47% marks respectively. Shivasundaram is a popular employee because of his social activities.
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* Answer is: case is referred to the Deputy Manager

12. Seema Mukhi is working in the clerical cadre for last five-and-a-half years. She has got ‘D’ and ‘E’ ratings respectively on ‘flexibility’ and ‘dependability’ and ‘C’ rating for ‘quality of work’ and ‘speed of work’ for last four years. She has obtained 55% and 48% at SSC and graduation respectively.
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* Answer is: case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

13. Anthony Cruz is a sportsman and is Vice-Captain of cricket team of PRS Industries Ltd. He is working with the company for last seven years in theclerical cadre. The rating being given to him for the last 3 years is ‘C’ and ‘D’ grade for quality of work and speed of work respectively. Similarly, he has ‘D’ grade for dependability and flexibility in PAR. He is an Arts graduate with 54% of marks
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* Answer is: selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

Directions (Q. 14-18): In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3) (4) and (5) is the correct answer.

14. Statement: “A rare opportunity to be a professional while you are at home..— An advertisement for computer-literate housewives by a computer company
Assumptions: I. Some housewives simultaneously desire to become professional.
IL Computer industry is growing at a fast pace.
III. It is possible to be a professional as well as a housewife.
* Only I and II
* Only II and III
* Answer is: Only I and III
* Only II
* None of these

15. Statement: India’s economic growth has come at a terrible price of increased industrial and vehicular pollution.
Assumptions: I. Pollution is a part of industrial society.
II. Indian economic growth is based on only industrial growth.
Ill. A country desires economic growth with manageable side-effects.
* only I
* Only II
* Answer is: Only I and III
* Only III
* None of these

16. Statement: Efforts to develop technologies more appropriate to the needs of the poorest sections of society need to be further intensified. Assumptions: I: Nothing is impossible if proper efforts are made. II. Technology needs are different for different sections of society. III It is possible to develop appropriate technologies for various economic sections of the society.
* Only I
* Only III
* Only II
* Answer is: Both II and III
* None of these

17. Statement: “We have the distinction of being the only company in India as well as the second in the world to have won an ISO 9002 quality certification in our line of business”- Statement of company X’s Chairman. Assumptions: I. There were not many companies in the line of business of Company ‘X’. II Getting ISO 9002 in the line of business of Company “X’ is not easy. III. The company ‘X’ desires to expand its business.
* Only I
* Only II
* Only III
* Answer is: Only II and III
* None of these

18. Its Difficult to get and Chairman is highlighting this fact only to expand business Statement: Co-operative social relationships contribute to develop individual potentialities. Assumptions: I Every society desires to prosper. II. Individuals desire to develop their potential. III It is possible to create and maintain co-operative environment in a society.
* Answer is: Only II and III
* Only II and I
* Only I and III
* Only II
* None of these

19. In a school class there are 65 children boys outnumber the girls by 21. How many girls are in the class .
* 21
* Answer is: 22
* 26
* 28
* None of these

20. John had appointment in Delhi .He Reached there on Sunday. He found that he was three days earlier than the meeting day. If he had reached on the following Friday how many days late would he has been.

* one day
* Answer is: two days
* three days
* four days
* None of these

SAIL PREVIOUS PAPER

Steel Authority of India (SAIL)

1. If ‘JANTA’ is coded as ‘26’ and DEPOSIT as ‘52’. How can be the code number for ‘JANTA DEPOSIT SCHEME’?
1. 265276
2. 265213
3. 265287
4. 2652104

2. If SALEM is coded as RZKDL, how can MADRAS be coded?
1. NZESZR
2. LZESZT
3. LZCQZR
4. NBESBT

3. WCYB : AZBX : : ? : CGFE
1. DGEF
2. EFGD
3. EGFD
4. GFDE

4. EXPLOSION : DEBRIS : : ?
1. Train : Car
2. Bruise : Fall
3. Television : Dial
4. Locusts : Holocaust

5. Madness is to brain as paralysis is to
1. arms
2. face
3. body
4. nerves

Directions (Q 6-8): Below are given four statements. On the basis of these statements, answer the following questions.
Statements:
1. Ram and Sham play chess and cards.
2. Sham and Pappu play cards and carom.
3. Pappu and Sudhir play carom and ludo.
4. Ram and Sudhir play ludo and chess.

6. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and carom
1. Ram
2. Sham
3. Pappu
4. Sudhir

7. Name the boy who plays cards, carom and ludo
1. Sudhir
2. Pappu
3. Sham
4. Ram

8. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and ludo
1. Ram
2. Sham
3. Pappu
4. Sudhir

9. Madhubala is taller than Mugdha but shorter than Geeta who is not as tall as Raveena. Sudha is shorter than Geeta but not as short as Mugdha. Who among them is the shortest?
1. Sudha
2. Mugdha
3. Madhubala
4. Data inadequate

10. How many such symbols are there in the following series, which are immediately preceded by an even number and immediately followed by an odd number?
8 4 * 3 5 6 $ 5 8 7 % 9 4 3 # 7 6 2? 3 4 6 ? 3 8 9 4 $ 5 9
1. Three
2. Five
3. Four
4. Six

Directions (Q. 11-13): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences, which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer as:
1. if the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
2. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given.
3. if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
4. if the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts given.
5. if the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
In the overall economy of India, agriculture is the largest sector of economic activity. It plays a crucial role in the country’s economic development by providing food to its people and raw materials to industry. It accounts for the largest share to the national income. The share of the various agricultural commodities, animal husbandry and ancillary activities has been more than 40 percent of the fifties, it actually contributed about half of the national output.

11. Agriculture is the mainstay of Indian economy.

12. The contribution of agricultural sector has decreased in recent years.

13. Agriculture is the only source of income in India.

Directions (Q 14-16): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(1) if only assumption I is implicit.
(2) if only assumption II is implicit.
(3) if either I or II is implicit.
(4) if neither I nor II is implicit.
(5) if both I and II are implicit.

14. STATEMENT:
“Use chlorine tablets for drinking water.” A notice by municipal authority.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. To drink water without using chlorine tablets is hazardous.
II. Municipal authority is providing chlorine tablets.

15. STATEMENT:
If we provide primary education to children of poor families and arrange good attendance in primary schools, then it will be a great achievement in the field of education
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. Children of poor families do not go to good schools.
II. Children of poor families do not go to school regularly.

16. STATEMENT:
Chief Minister has cancelled all his programmes in Allahabad and he has left for capital by air A news.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. These types of news are always in headlines.
II. There is an air-route between Allahabad and capital.

17. In a class of 33, 20 play cricket, 25 play football and 18 play hockey. 15 play both cricket and football, 12 play football and hockey and 10 play cricket and hockey. If each student plays at least one game, how many students play only cricket?
1. 8
2. 6
3. 4
4. 2

18. mn _ m _ nm _ nm _ n
1. mmmm
2. nnnn
3. mnmn
4. nmnm

Directions (Q 19-20): Given below are pairs of events ‘R’ and ‘S’. You have to read both the events ‘R’ and ‘S’ and decide their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in ‘R’ and ‘S’ are true and you will not assume anything beyond the given information in deciding the answer.
Give answer as:
1. If ‘R’ is the effect and ‘S’ is its immediate principal cause.
2. If ‘R’ is the immediate and principal cause and ‘S’ is its effect.
3. If ‘R’ is its effect but ‘S’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
4. If ‘S’ is an effect but ‘R’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
5. None of these

19. Event (R): Private bus operators are making good money these days.
Event (S): Delhi Transport Corporation has increased the fare due to hike in diesel price.

20. Event (R): The price of Personal Computer (PCs) have fallen in recent months.
Event (S): Some school children are showing great interest in learning computer.

Directions (Q 21-22): In this category of questions, a pair of words is given, which is followed by four pairs of words as alternatives. A candidate is required to select the pair in which the words bear the same relationship which each other as the words of the given pair bear or, a third part is given, and you are required to select the fourth part.

21. ‘DCBA’ is related to ‘ZYXW’ in the same way as ‘HGFE’ is related to
1. RSTU
2. VUTS
3. STVU
4. UVST

22. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ?
1. 41
2. 65
3. 56
4. 60

23. CASSOCK is to PRIEST as GRADUATE is to
1. Gown
2. Cap
3. Tie
4. Coat

Directions (Q 24): Make a meaningful word. Use the 2nd, 4th, 6th, 7th letters of the Capitalised word. Indicate the second letter of the so formed new word.

24. SPECULATION
1. A
2. D
3. L
4. P

25. Which does not cope with others in the following?
1. navigator
2. sailor
3. pilot
4. narrator

Directions (Q 26-28): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer as
1. if only conclusion I follows
2. if only conclusion II follows
3. if either I or II follows
4. if neither I nor II follows
5. if both I and II follow

26. STATEMENTS:
1. No table is chair.
2. Some chairs are stools.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tables are not stools.
II. Some stools are not tables.

27. STATEMENTS:
1. All magazines are books.
2. No book is novel.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. No novel is book.
II. No magazine is novel.

28. STATEMENTS:
1. Some tulips are roses.
2. Some roses are daffodils.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tulips are roses.
II. All roses are tulips.

Direction (Q 29-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer as:
1. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

29. Four plays M, N, O and P have been staged on four consecutive days one by one. When play P was staged?
STATEMENT:
I. First play was staged on Friday and immediately after it ‘O’ was staged.
II. There is a gap of one day between N and O.

30. In a certain code language “Pit Lit Nit” means “Red Paint Shirt”. What is the code for “Paint”?
STATEMENT:
I. In that code language “Nit Lit Rit Bit” means “Wash Red Paint Now”.
II. In that code language “Jit Cit Pit” means “Shirt is Dirty”.

31. 23457 + 4236 + 79 = ?
1. 24732
2. 23782
3. 27772
4. 27872
5. None of these

32. 13frac{2}{7} + 4frac{3}{5} + 4frac{5}{7} - ? = 9frac{4}{5}
1.13frac{3}{5}
2. 12frac{4}{5}
3. 13frac{2}{5}
4 14frac{3}{5}
5. 12frac{3}{5}

33. 145 x 55 + 84 x 35 = ?
1. 10495
2. 10365
3. 10685
4. 10915
5. 10725

34. frac{{(53 + 12)}}{{325}} = frac{?}{{(42 + 23)}}
1. 325
2. 75
3. 65
4. 13
5. 31

35. sqrt ? + 624 = 60 % of 1250 99
1. 784
2. 729
3. 576
4. 676
5. 841

36. The greatest 5-digit number which is divisible by 99 is
1. 99999
2. 99990
3. 99909
4. 99099
5. None of these

37. The ratio of 3.5 kg to 280 gm is
1. 2 : 25
2. 4 : 5
3. 25 : 2
4. 5 : 4
5. None of these

38. The compound ratio of 3 : 4, 8 : 15, 25 : 28 is
1. 3 : 28
2. 5 : 14
3. 14 : 5
4. 28 : 3
5. None of these

39. The least among the ratios 5 : 6, 7 : 8, 2 : 3, and 9 : 17 is
1. 5 : 6
2. 7 : 8
3. 2 : 3
4. 9 : 17
5. None of these

40. The ratio of the present ages of father and son is 8 : After 10 years the ratio of their ages would be 2 : the present age of father is
1. 40 years
2. 45 years
3. 50 years
4. 55 years
5. None of these

41. The ratios of pure milk and water in two vessels are respectively 3 : 1 and 7 : If equal quantities of the mixtures of two vessels are mixed together, then the ratio of pure milk and water in the new vessel is
1. 1 : 2
2. 2 : 1
3. 5 : 3
4. 3 : 5
5. None of these

42. 20% of 30% of 20% of Rs. 850 is
1. Rs. 19.40
2. Rs. 9.80
3. Rs. 10.20
4. Rs. 10.80
5. None of these

43. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, the final value of the number
1. does not change
2. decreases by 2%
3. increases by 4%
4. decreases by 4%
5. None of these

44. The entry ticket to a trade fair was increased by 20%. Due to this the umber of visitors was reduced by 10%. The daily money receipts are then increased by
1. 8%
2. 10%
2. 12%
4. 50%
5. None of these

45. The price of sugar is decreased by 10%. To restore to its original, the new price must be increased by
1. 9frac{1}{{11}}%

2. 10 %
2. 11%
4. 11frac{1}{9}%
5. 15%

46. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a purchaser to obtain 5 kg more sugar for Rs. The price of sugar per kilogram before reduction is
1. Rs. 4.50
2. Rs. 5
3. Rs. 5.50
4. Rs. 8
5. None of these

47. The average age of 30 boys in a class is 16 years. The average of the ages of the boys and the teacher is 17 years. The age of teacher is
1. 37 years
2. 39 years
3. 33 years
4. 47 years
5. None of these

48. The average age of 10 students in a group increases by 0.4 years when a girl of age 6 years is replaced by another girl. The age of the new girl is
1. 16.4 yrs
2. 10 yrs
3. 12 yrs
4. 16 yrs
5. 20 yrs

49. The average height of 25 students in a class is 140 cm. five newly admitted students increase the average height by 1 cm. The average height of the set of 5 new student is
1. 146.2 cm
3. 147 cm
3. 145 cm
4. 146 cm
5. 148 cm

50. Nine men went to a hotel. Eight of them spent Rs. 30 each over their meals and the ninth spent Rs. 20 more than the average expenditure or all the nine. The total money spent by them was
1. Rs. 260
2. Rs. 262.50
3. Rs. 290
4. Rs. 292.50
5. None of these

Answer : First Part 1-5: 4,3,3,4,4,Second Part 6-10: 2,2,1,1,2, Third Part 11-15: 1,3,5,5,5, Fourth Part 16-20: 5,4,2,1,3, Fifth Part 21-25: 2,2,1,3,4 Sixth Part 26-30: 2,5,4,4,4, Seventh Part 31-35: 3,2,4,4,2, Eight Part 36-40: 2,3,2,4,1,Ninth Part 41-45: 2,3,4,1,4,Tenth Part 46-50: 2,4,2,4,4

HAL EXAM PAPER

1. Magnetic tapes are suitable to applications:
(a) When only a few records are to be accessed
(b) When most of the records are to be accessed
(c) Only when all the records are to be processed
(d) None of the above
2. A system in which 2 or more cpu’s are interconnnected and share a common Main memory is called:
(a) Pipeline machine
(b) Multifunctional system
(c) Multiprocess
(d) None of these
Q1.Functional Dependency is:-
a)a type of constraint
b)data constraint
c)varies with time
d)none of these
ans:-a
Q2.which of the following is an atomic transaction:?
a)a transaction in which all the instructions are either committed or aborted
b)a transaction which consists of only one instruction
c)a transaction in which all instructions are committed.
d)none of these
ans:- a
Q3.Find the sign-and-magnitude of 22.5625
ans:- 0,1110.1001(check)
Q4. which of the following is/are true about 1's and 2's complements:
i)In 1's complement form. 0 has two representations
ii)in 1's complement, the magnitude of lowest number is equal to the magnitude of highest number
iii)In 2's complement, 0 has two representations
a)i only b)i and ii
c)iii only d)all of these
Q5.if(base
{
cout<<"recovery stable"<
}
else
{
cout<<"recovery unstable"<
}
which of the values will print "recovery stable"?
a)base=8,height=8
b)base=3 height=2
c)base=5 height=3
d)base=4 height=7
ans:-d
Q6.which are the major components of a computer?
a)CPU,monitor,keyboard,RAM,mouse
b)sound card,modem,printer
c)CPU,RAM,sound card
(I don't remember exactly,but the option was a) )
Q7. which of the addressing modes require largest memory access time?
a)Direct
b)Indirect
c)base Index
d)PC relative
ans:b
Q8.Network Protocol doesn't consists of which of the following:
a)character Length
b)baud length
c)BIOS
d)none of these
ans:c
Q9.A token while passing from one token ring network to another requires the services of:
a)a simple bridge
b)a transparent bridge
c)repeater
d)router
ans: b
Q10. some questions were from mathematics like matrix,vectors,differential equations
Q11. vande mataram was derived from the book :
a)an and math
b)geetanjali
c)life of pie
d)none of these
ans:a
Q12.which desert-country pair is correctly matched?
a)Kalahari-Asia
b)Sahara-Australia
c)Gobi-Mongolia
d)Thar-America
ans:c
Q13.who excavated mohenjo-daro :
a)W.C.banerjee
and some more options were there
Q14.calorimeter measures:
a)quantity of heat generated
b)heat radiation
c)temperature
d)none of these
ans:b
29. apttitude ques of pipes and cisterns, compound interest, time and distance, cubes, hcf and lcm, multiplication,
34. there were 4 questions like if A*B represents Ais the son of B, C/D represents Cis the husband of D then how A and D are related.
1) What is the distance between the EHV lines?
a)8m b)11m c)4m d)14m
2) At present how many HVDC lines are there in india?
a)none b)one c)two d)more than two
3) Where is the nuclear located in following places?
ans: i dont remember the answers, but one of them is thalcher(orissa)
4) What is the approximate peak overshoot for a unity feedback system with damping factor 0.6?
a)10% b)5% c)15% d)20%
5) What is the distance between the EHV lines and earth?
a)8m b)11m c)18m d)15m
6) On no load in EHV lines what is the relation between receinving and sending end voltage?
ans: receiving end voltage > sending end voltage
7) What is the surge impedance loading of 400kv line?
ans: 4002/400ohms =400watts
8) similar question with surge impedance given as 160 ohms
ans: 1000watts
9) If both the juctions of transistor are forward biased, in wat region transistor works
ans: saturation region
10) Where is the hydel power plant located in following places?
ans: I dont remember the places
11) self GMD is used in the calculation of_______
a) inductance only
b) inductance and capacitance
c) capacitance only
d) none
12) What is the GMD if the distance between the lines are 6m,6m,12m?
ans: 7.058m( approx)
13) Zero sequence currents doesn't exist in the following fault
a) L-G
b) L-L
c) L-L-G
d) L-L-L-G
Ans: d
14) To avoid arcing connect sutable value of ________ in earthing.
a) capacitance
b) indunctance
c) resistance
d) susceptance
15)There are two to three questions based on Laplace and Inverse Laplace transforms
16)In the following type of conductors the corona is minimum
a) circular
b) stranded
c) helical
d) rectamgular
ans: c
17)When do two wattmeters show same value of opposite readings in two wattmeter method
a) 300 lag
b) 600 lag
c) between 600 and 900 lag
d) zpf lag
ans: d
18) Schering bridge is used to measure
a) frequency
b) inductance
c) capacitance
d) mutual inductance
and: c
19) What is the value of resistance when both length and diameter of the wire are doubled?
ans: halved
20) There is one questions asked on euler's formula..
21) What is the Laplace transform of unit ramp signal?
ans:1/s2
22) What happens to the value of inductance when self GMD is doubled?
23) At what frequency corona loss is more?
a) 50Hz
b) 60Hz
c)
d)
24) What is the largest rating of alternator manufactured in india?
a) 1000MW
b) 500MW
c) 1200MW
d) 250MW
ans:b
25) The response of an RLC circuit for impuse input?
a) exponentially raising
b) sinusoidal
c) exponential falling
d) parabolic
ans: c
26) What is the easier method for finding no. of poles in the right half of s-plane?
a) Niquist plot
b) R-H criterion
c) Root-Locus method
d) Polor plot
ans: b
27) How many no of poles located in the right half of s-plane for the characteristic equation...
28) Burden of current transformers is measured in..
a) Watts
b) Volt Amperes
c) Ampere Hours
d) Joules
29)What is the gate used to get high output when all the inputs are low?
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) Ex-OR
d) Ex-NOR
ans: b
30) Large no of thyristors are used in HVDC transmission to improve______
a) current rating
b) voltage rating
c) Thyristers are available at high ratings
d)
31) What is the line current of a circuit when the current transformer of 1000:5 rating measures 4Amperes?
ans: 800A
32) If the time delay of relay with TMS setting 0.1 is 10 sec, then what is the time delaty when the TMS setting is changed to 0.5
33) How many no of flip-flops are required to get 16 bit counter?
34) _________is connected to reduce frequency errors in ammeter.
a) shunt capacitor
b) series inductance
c) shunt inductance
d)
35)What is the value of ripple factor in Half Wave Rectifier?
a) 1.11
b) 0.8
c) 1.21
d)
36)The principle used in megger?
a) electrostatic effect
b) magnetic effect
c) Induction effect
d)
37)In electrodynamometer type wattmeter the error is due to..
a) pressure coil inductance
b) pressure coil resistance
c)
d)
38) In the following locations where is hydal power plant is not located?
ans: i dont remember the places
39) In distribution lines_____
a) X/R<0.1
b) X/R>10
c) X/R>1
d) X/R<0.01
40) In EHV lines _____
a) X/R=10
b) X/R=100
c)
d)
41) What is the speed of 2 pole alternator at 50Hz frequency?
ans: 3000rpm
42) What is the equivalent decimal no of (624)8
43) What is the binary equivalent of 6.25
44) What is the value of A+AB+B¯ ( B bar)
ans: 1
45) What are the avg and rms values of full wave rectifier
ans: 2Vm/pie, Vm/21/2
46) There is one question based on rank of matrix
47) What is the equivalent of cos(wt+18.750)
a) sin(wt+71.250)
b) sin(wt-71.250)
c) sin(wt+18.250)
d) sin(wt-18.250)
48) The three harmonics will be in phace with each other?_____
a) 3,5,15
b) 2,4,6
c)
d)
ans: a
49) The line current will be equal to phase current in______
ans: delta connection
50) In windmills the frequent problems occur in______
a) mechanical system
b) blades
c) electrodynamic system
d) electric system
51) The machine used in windmills is______
a) alternator
b) induction generator
c)
d)
ans: b
52) Insulators in EHV lines are designed based on_____
a) switching voltages
b) peak voltages
c) corona
d) lightning voltages
ans: a
53) The value of restriking voltage depends on______
a) inductance of line
b) capacitance of line
c) both
d) none
Q1.Functional Dependency is:-
a)a type of constraint
b)data constraint
c)varies with time
d)none of these
ans:-a
Q2.which of the following is an atomic transaction:?
a)a transaction in which all the instructions are either committed or aborted
b)a transaction which consists of only one instruction
c)a transaction in which all insrtuctions are committed.
d)none of these
ans:- a
Q3.Find the sign-and-magnitude of 22.5625
ans:- 0,1110.1001(check)
Q4. which of the following is/are true about 1's and 2's compements:
i)In 1's complement form. 0 has two representations
ii)in 1's complement, the magnitude of lowest number is equal to the magnitude of highest number
iii)In 2's complement, 0 has two representations
a)i only b)i and ii
c)iii only d)all of these
Q5.if(base
{
cout<<"recovery stable"<
}
else
{
cout<<"recovery unstable"<
}
which of the values will print "recovery stable"?
a)base=8,height=8
b)base=3 height=2
c)base=5 height=3
d)base=4 height=7
ans:-d
Q6.which are the major components of a computer?
a)CPU,monitor,keyboard,RAM,mouse
b)sound card,modem,printer
c)CPU,RAM,sound card
(I don't remember exactly,but the option was a) )
Q7. which of the addressing modes require largest memory access time?
a)Direct
b)Indirect
c)base Index
d)PC relative
ans:b
Q8.Network Protocol doesn't consists of which of the following:
a)character Length
b)baud length
c)BIOS
d)none of these
ans:c
Q9.A token while passing from one token ring network to another requires the services of:
a)a simple bridge
b)a transparent bridge
c)repeater
d)router
ans: b
Q10. some questions were from mathematics like matrix,vectors,differential equations
Q11. vande mataram was derived from the book :
a)anand math
b)geetanjali
c)life of pie
d)none of these
ans:a
Q12.which desert-country pair is correctly matched?
a)kalahari-asia
b)sahara-australia
c)gobi-mongolia
d)thar-america
ans:c
Q13.who exavated mohenjo-daro:
a)W.C.banerjee
and some more options were there
Q14.calorimeter measures:
a)quantity of heat generated
b)heat radiation
c)temperature
d)none of these
ans:b

HAL PLACEMENT PAPER 2007

Q1.Functional Dependency is:-
a)a type of constraint
b)data constraint
c)varies with time
d)none of these
ans:-a
Q2.which of the following is an atomic transaction:?
a)a transaction in which all the instructions are either committed or aborted
b)a transaction which consists of only one instruction
c)a transaction in which all instructions are committed.
d)none of these
ans:- a
Q3.Find the sign-and-magnitude of 22.5625
ans:- 0,1110.1001(check)
Q4. which of the following is/are true about 1's and 2's complements:
i)In 1's complement form. 0 has two representations
ii)in 1's complement, the magnitude of lowest number is equal to the magnitude of highest number
iii)In 2's complement, 0 has two representations
a)i only b)i and ii
c)iii only d)all of these
Q5.if(base
{
cout<<"recovery stable"<
}
else
{
cout<<"recovery unstable"<
}
which of the values will print "recovery stable"?
a)base=8,height=8
b)base=3 height=2
c)base=5 height=3
d)base=4 height=7
ans:-d
Q6.which are the major components of a computer?
a)CPU,monitor,keyboard,RAM,mouse
b)sound card,modem,printer
c)CPU,RAM,sound card
(I don't remember exactly,but the option was a) )
Q7. which of the addressing modes require largest memory access time?
a)Direct
b)Indirect
c)base Index
d)PC relative
ans:b
Q8.Network Protocol doesn't consists of which of the following:
a)character Length
b)baud length
c)BIOS
d)none of these
ans:c
Q9.A token while passing from one token ring network to another requires the services of:
a)a simple bridge
b)a transparent bridge
c)repeater
d)router
ans: b
Q10. some questions were from mathematics like matrix,vectors,differential equations
Q11. vande mataram was derived from the book :
a)an and math
b)geetanjali
c)life of pie
d)none of these
ans:a
Q12.which desert-country pair is correctly matched?
a)Kalahari-Asia
b)Sahara-Australia
c)Gobi-Mongolia
d)Thar-America
ans:c
Q13.who excavated mohenjo-daro:
a)W.C.banerjee
and some more options were there
Q14.calorimeter measures:
a)quantity of heat generated
b)heat radiation
c)temperature
d)none of these
ans:b