BSNL JTO Previous Question Paper June 2008
Number of Questions: 120
Maximum Marks:120
Type of Questions:Objective Type (Multiple Choice)
1. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is
a. Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
b. Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the pointing vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
c. The pointing vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
d. The pointing vector points everywhere radially into the volume between the plates.
2. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
a. Polarization
b. Conductivity
c. Structural homogeneties
d. Ionization
3. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon
a. Boron
b. Indium
c. Germanium
d. Antimony
4. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess
a. High thermal conductivity and high melting point
b. Low thermal conductivity and low melting point
c. High thermal conductivity and low melting point
d. Low thermal conductivity and high melting point
5. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the
a. infrared region
b. ultraviolet region
c. visible region
d. x-ray region
6. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively
a. high and high
b. low and high
c. high and low
d. low and low
7. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress
a. odd harmonics
b. even harmonics
c. fundamental component
d. dc component
8. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
a. mutual inductance between two coils only
b. self inductances of the two coils only
c. mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils
d. none
9. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of
a. paper
b. rubber
c. ceramic
d. Mylar
10. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is
a. always positive
b. always negative
c. sometime positive, sometime negative
d. numerically less than its kinetic energy
11. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no -
a. channel
b. gate
c. P-N junctions
d. substrate
12.The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge over the normal strain gauge is that
a. it is more sensitive
b. it is more linear
c. it is less temperature dependent
d. it’s cost is low
13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by
a. thermally generated electrons and holes
b. diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
c. migration of minority carriers across the junction
d. flow of drift current
14. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter
a. recombine with holes in the base
b. recombine in the emitter itself
c. pass through the base to the collector
d. are stopped by the junction barrier
15. The value of r when a transistor is biased to cut off is -
a. 0.5
b. 0
c. 1.0
d. 0.8
16. A UJT can
a. be triggered by any one of it’s three terminals
b. not be triggered
c. be triggered by two of its three terminal only
d. be triggered by all of its terminals only
17. An SCR can only be turned off via it’s
a. cathode
b. anode
c. gates
d. none
18. Gold is often diffused into silicon DN junction devices to
a. increase the recombination rate
b. reduce the recombination rate
c. make silicon a direct gap semiconductor
d. make silicon semi-metal
19. With n nodes and b branches a network will have
a. (b + n) links
b. b – n + 1 links
c. b – n – 1 links
d. b + n + 1 links
20. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be
a. 7
b. 9
c. 10
d. 45
21. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give
a. an output power which is one – quarter of the input power
b. an output power which is one – half of the input power
c. an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage
d. an output power which is 0.707 of the input power
22. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer -
a. the terminals are kept shorted
b. critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals
c. the terminals are kept open circuited
d. it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals
23. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series and R1 and shunt arm R2?
1. R1 = 147W 2. R1 = 153W
3. R2 = 1.5W 4. R2 = 3750W
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
24. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294mH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is
a. 49w
b. 60w
c. 70w
d. 140w
25. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
26. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network
1. Z11 = Z22 2. h12 = h21
3. Y12 = -Y21 4. BC – AD = -1
then the network is reciprocal if and only if
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. 4 alone is correct
27. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are
a. will become half
b. will remain high
c. will become double
d. cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known
28. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and uniform charge density d in vacuum is-
Ans. 5.4×109xQ2/r where Q=4/3(pie.r3d
29. Maxwell’s divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by
Ans. y
30. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 l at frequency f and if it’s radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then it’s radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be
a. R/2 ohms
b. R ohms
c. 2R ohms
d. 4R ohms
31. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include
a. TE111 and TM111
b. TE011 and TM011
c. TE022 and TM111
d. TE111 and TM011
32. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then it’s efficiency will be nearly
a. 0.19
b. 0.81
c. 0.97
d. 1.19
33. If an isolated conducting sphere in air has radius = 1/ 4pqe0 it capacitance will be
a. Zero
b. IF
c. 4pF
d. OF
34. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in it’s characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHz signal then if ‘d’ is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then
a. d = 1.5 cm
b. d is less then 1.5 cm
c. d is greater than 1.5 cm
d. d = 3cm
35. When a dipole antenna of l/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5 W then the efficiency of the antenna is
a. 0.89159 %
b. 8.9159 %
c. 89.159 %
d. 891.59 %
36. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally
a. 5 KHz
b. 15 KHz
c. 75 KHz
d. 200 KHz
37. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is
a. sinusoidal
b. square
c. rectangular
d. triangular
38. Strain gauge is
a. not a transducer
b. an active transducer
c. not an electronic instrument
d. none
39. A high Q coil has
a. large band width
b. high losses
c. low losses
d. flat response
40. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is
a. 1.810%
b. 0.181%
c. 18.10%
d. 0.0018%
41. The ‘h’ parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for
a. High frequency, large signal operation
b. High frequency, small signal operation
c. Low frequency, small signal operation
d. Low frequency, large signal operation
42. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on -
a. Values of input in the past and in the future
b. Values of input at that time and in the past
c. Values of input at that time and in the future
d. None
43. A iron cored choke is a
a. Linear and active device
b. Non linear and passive device
c. Active device only
d. Linear device only
44. Pointing vector wattmeter uses
a. Seebeck effect
b. Ferranti effect
c. Induction effect
d. Hall effect
45. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense ?
a. Thermocouple
b. Piezoelectric pick – up
c. Photo voltaic cell
d. LCD
46. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is
a. Converter system
b. Inverter
c. Chopper
d. Thyristor
47. It is a unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode
a. SCR
b. PCR
c. VCR
d. DCR
48. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a
a. constant voltage source
b. constant current source
c. constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source
d. resistance
49. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of
a. electrons only
b. electrons or holes
c. electrons and holes
d. holes only
50. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to secondary are respectively
a. ferrite: 20: 1
b. laminated iron: 1: 1
c. ferrite: 1: 1
d. powdered iron: 1: 1
51. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a
a. 1 phase full converter
b. 3 phase half wave converter
c. 3 phase semi converter
d. 3 phase full converter
52. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is
a. square wave
b. triangular wave
c. step function
d. pulsed wave
53. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with center tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is
a. 100V
b. 141.4V
c. 200V
d. 282.8V
54. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying
a. T keeping Ton constant
b. Ton keeping T constant
c. Toff keeping T constant
d. None of the above
55. From the hot metal surface electrons escape because
a. of change of state from metal to gas due to heat.
b. of change of stats from gas to metal.
c. the energy supplied is greater than the work function
d. the energy is greater than Fermi level.
56. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is -
a. amplifier
b. triode
c. diode
d. transistor
57. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is
a. Either cathode
b. Either anode
c. The central tap on the high voltage secondary
d. Either plate
58. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will
a. Amplify the noise as much as the signal
b. Reduce the noise
c. Increase the noise
d. Not effect the noise
59. Match the given feedback circuit with it’s proper nomenclatures
a. Current series feedback
b. Current shunt feedback
c. Voltage series feedback
d. Voltage shunt feedback
60. Class A amplifier is used when
a. No phase inversion is required
b. Highest voltage gain is required
c. dc voltages are to be amplified
d. Minimum distortion is desired
61. Identify the correct match for the given transistor
a. Enhancement type P channel MOSFET
b. Depletion type N channel MOSFET
c. Enhancement type N channel MOSFET
d. Depletion type P channel MOSFET
62. In case a signal band limited to fm is sampled at a rate less than 2fm, the constructed signal will be
a. Distortion less
b. Small in amplitude
c. Having higher frequencies suppressed
d. Distorted
63. Quad 2 input AND gates IC No is
a. 7411
b. 7404
c. 7400
d. 7408
64. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as
a. left shift register
b. right shift register
c. shift registers
d. none of the above
65. The expression ABC can be simplified to
Ans. A + B + C
66. An ideal power supply consist of
a. Very small output resistance
b. Zero internal resistance
c. Very large input resistance
d. Very large output resistance
67. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by
68. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both
a. count pulses
b. store binary operation
c. shift registers
d. made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip
69. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as
a. 1111101
b. 0001 0010 0101
c. 7D
d. None of the above
70. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits required is
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 200
71. On differentiation unit impulse function results in
a. Unit parabolic function.
b. Unit triplet.
c. Unit doublet.
d. Unit ramp function.
72. Read the following;
i. Routh Hermitz’s criterion is in time domain.
ii. Root locus plot is in time domain.
iii. Bode plot is in frequency domain.
iv. Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain.
a. 2, 3, and 4 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. All four are correct.
73. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function.
a. 150
b. 450
c. 300
d. 600
74. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is
a. Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain.
b. Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action.
c. Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback.
d. Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action.
75. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function
a. -40dB/dec to -20dB/dec
b. 40dB/dec to 20dB/dec
c. -20dB/dec to -40dB/dec
d. 40dB/dec to -20dB/dec
76. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by
Number of asymptotes of its root loci is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
77. In a closed – loop transfer function
the imaginary axis intercepts of the root loci will be
78. Considering the following statement:
In a magic tee
1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other
2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm
3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm
4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other.
Of these statements
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 1 and 4 are correct
d. 2 and 3 are correct
79. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called
a. ANIK
b. EARLY BIRD (Intel sat -1)
c. WESTAR
d. MOLNIYA
80. — watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite
a. 100
b. 500
c. 2000
d. 1000
81. The ripple factor in an LC filter
a. Increases with the load current
b. Increases with the load resistance
c. Remains constant with the load current
d. Has the lowest value
82. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their
a. Language digits
b. Access digits
c. Area codes
d. Central office codes
83. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because
a. it is move noise immune than other modulation systems
b. compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power
c. its use avoids receiver complexity
d. no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity
84. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be
a. linear amplifier
b. harmonic generators
c. class C power amplifiers
d. class B untuned amplifiers
85. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on
a. maximum power of the transmitter
b. pulse repetition frequency
c. width of the transmitted pulse
d. sensitivity of the radar receiver
86. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to
a. equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace.
b. help vertical synchronization
c. help horizontal synchronization.
d. simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse
87. The frequency range 30MHz – 300MHz is
a. medium frequency
b. very high frequency
c. super high frequency
d. Infrared frequency
88. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide
a. TE
b. TM
c. TEM
d. HE
89. Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at
a. upto 18kms from earth
b. from 18 to 70 km
c. 70 to 500 km
d. above 500 km
90. A two cavity klystron tube is a
a. velocity modulated tube
b. frequency modulated tube
c. Amplitude modulated tube
d. simple triode
91. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get
a. doubled
b. quadrupted
c. unchanged
d. halved
92. Which one is a cross field tube
a. Klystron
b. Reflex Klystron
c. Magnetron
d. TWT
93. The degree of coupling depends on
a. size of hole
b. location of holes
c. size and location of holes
d. not depend on size or location of hole
94. The thermal noise depends on
a. direct current through device
b. resistive component of resistance
c. reactive component of impedance
d. load to connected
95. The charge on a hole is
Ans. 1.6×10-19
96. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier
a. is tuned above the stations incoming frequency
b. amplifies the output of local oscillator
c. is fixed tuned to one particular frequency
d. can be tuned to various isolate frequencies
97. A duplexer is used to
1) couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference
2) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator
3) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver
4) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference
98. Intel’s 8085 microprocessor chip contains
a. seven 8 bit registers
b. 8 seven bits registers
c. seven 7
d. eight 8
99. Boolean algebra is based on
a. numbers
b. logic
c. truth
d. symbols
100. When A = 0, B = 0, C = 1 then in 2 input logic gate we get – - gate
a. XOR
b. AND
c. NAND
d. NOR
101. With the beginnings of space travel, we entered a new – -
a. Era of great history
b. List
c. Book
d. Year
102. An – - though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad.
a. Funny poem
b. Newspaper article
c. Orthodox talk
d. Elegy
103. If stare is glance so gulp is
a. Sip
b. Tell
c. Salk
d. Admire
104. He hardly works means
a. The work is hard
b. He is hard
c. The work is easy
d. He works very little
105. Give the opposite word for pulchritude
a. antipathy
b. unsightliness
c. inexperience
d. languor
106. Nanometre is – - – - part of a metre.
a. Millionth
b. Ten millionth
c. Billionth
d. Ten billionth
107. Malaria affects
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Intestine
d. Lungs
108. Sindhu Rakshak is a/an
a. Aircraft carrier
b. Submarine
c. Multiple-purpose fighter
d. Anti-aircraft gun
109. With which subject is “Dada Saheb Phalke Award” associated?
a. Best film director
b. Best musician
c. Best documentary
d. Best work relating to promotion of Indian film Industry
110. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus?
a. Aryabhatta
b. Newton
c. Einstein
d. Archimedes
111. In which state is Kanha Park situated?
a. M.P.
b. U.P.
c. Assam
d. W. Bengal
112. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day?
a. 24th October
b. 4th July
c. 8th August
d. 10th December
113. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of
a. Gupta architecture
b. Rashtrakuta architecture
c. Chalukya architecture
d. Chola architecture
114. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by
a. Joint sitting of the two Houses
b. President of India
c. Prime Minister of India
d. By a special committee for the purpose
115. Which of the following is not the work of Kalidasa?
a. Meghdoot
b. Raghuvansha
c. Sariputra Prakarma
d. Ritushamhara
116.Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of
a. Akbar the Great
b. Mahmud Ghaznvi
c. Shah Jahan
d. Alauddin Khilji
117. The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ have been taken from
a. Vedas
b. Bhagwad Gita
c. Mundaka Upanishada
d. Mahabharata
e. None of these
118. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?
a. USA
b. USSR
c. China
d. Pakistan
119. “Kathakali” dance is connected with
a. Kerala
b. Rajasthan
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Tamil Nadu
120. The term “Ashes” is associated with
a. Hockey
b. Cricket
c. Soccer
d. none of these
WAY TO YOUR'S CAREER
Sunday, June 6, 2010
BSNL TTA EXAM 2008 PAPER
BSNL TTA EXAM 2008 PAPER
1. If the matrix A = is singular, then ? =a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5
2. A = is symmetric, then x =a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5
3. If A is a 3 x 3 matrix and det(3 A) = k det(A) then k =a) 9 b) 6 c) 1 d) 27
4. If A = , then A-1 =a) b) c) d)
5. If A = then A2 is equal toa) A b) –A c) Null Matrix d) I
6. is aa) rectangular matrix b) singular matrixb) non-singular matrix d) skew-symmetric matrix
7. The slope of the straight line whose inclination with negative x-axis is 120º isa) b) c) 1 d) infinity
8. If two lines whose slopes are m1 and m2 are perpendicular iffa) m1 = m2 b) m1m2 = 0 c) m1m2 = -1 d) m1 + m2 = -1
9. The rate of increase of the radius of a circle is 1 cm/sec, the rate of increase of its area is 4? cm2/sec at a particular instant. The radius at that instant isa) 2 cm b) 3 cm c) 4 cm d) 6 cm
10.If the side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.02 cm/min, the rate at which its area is increasing at the instant when the length of the side is 5 cm isa) 0.2 cm 2/min b) 0.4 cm 2/min c) 0.1 cm 2/min d) 0.6 cm 2/min
11.A particle is moving on a plane according to the distance-time relationship is given by s = t3 + 6t2 + 8t – 4. When its acceleration is 8 m/sec2, its velocity isa) 8 m/sec b) 11 m/sec c) 23 m/sec d) -1 m/sec
12.A stone moves vertically upwards according to the distance-time equation s = 16t – 2t2.The greatest height reached by the stone isa) 4 b) 64 c) 32 d) 96
13.The distance moved by a particle traveling in a straight line in t seconds is given by s = 45t + 11t2 – t3. The time taken by the particle to come to rest isa) 9 sec b) 5 sec c) 3 sec d) 2 sec
14.The distance s described by a particle in time t is given by the relation s = aet + be-t. The acceleration is equal toa) velocity b) the distance traveledc) twice the distance traveled d) the square of the distance traveled
15.The slope of the normal to the curve y = at the point isa) 9 b) -9 c) d)
17.The normal to the curve y = f(x) will be parallel to x-axis ifa) b) c) d)
18.The maximum point of the function 2×3 – 9×2 + 12x isa) x = 0 b) x = 5 c) x = 1 d) x = 2
19.The minimum value of 2×3 – 9×2 + 12x – 4 isa) 1 b) 3 c) 0 d) -2
20.The point of inflection of the function x3 – 3×2 + 3x isa) (1,0) b) (1,1) c) (6,126) d) (-1,-7)
21.Velocity of sound is greatest ina) Solids b) Liquids c) Gases d) None of these
22.If the phase difference between the two waves is 2? during superimposition, then the resultant amplitude isa) Maximum b) Minimum c) Half of maximum d) None of these
23.If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude on superimposition produce a resultant disturbance of the same amplitude, the wave differ in phase bya) b) c) d)
24.The equation of a plane progressive wave is given by y = 2sin?(0.5x – 200t) where x and y are expressed in cm and t in sec. The wave velocity isa) 400 cm/sec b) 300 cm/sec c) 200 cm/sec d) 100 cm/sec
25.Equation of a plane progressive wave is given by y = 0.2 cos ?(0.04t + 0.02x – 1/6). The distance is expressed in cm and time in sec. The minimum distance between two particles separated by phase difference ?/2 is radian isa) 25 cm b) 12.5 cm c) 8 cm d) 4 cm
26.Ultrasonic waves are those waves whicha) Human being can hear b) Human being cannot hearc) Have high velocity d) Have large amplitude
27.It is possible to distinguish between the transverse and longitudinal waves by studying the property ofa) Interference b) Polarization c) Diffraction d) Reflection
28.The following phenomenon cannot be observed for sound wavesa) Refraction b) Polarization c) Diffraction d) Reflection
29.Doppler shift in frequency does not depend upona) Frequency of the wave produced b) Velocity of the sourcec) Velocity of the listener/observer d) Distance between source and listener
30.A source of sound of frequency 450 cycles/second is moving towards a stationary observer with 34 m/s speed. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s then the apparent frequency will bea) 410 cps b) 550 cps c) 500 cps d) 450 cps
31.An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound of frequency n. The apparent frequency heard by him is 2n. If the velocity of sound in air is 332 m/s, then the velocity of observer isa) 166 m/s b) 664 m/s c) 332 m/s d) 1328 m/s
32.The equation of a wave traveling in a string can be written as y = 3 cos ?(100t – x).Its wavelength isa) 100 cm b) 5 cm c) 3 cm d) 2 cm
33.Sound velocity is maximum ina) O2 b) H2 c) He d) N2
34.Phon is the unit ofa) Pitch b) Quality c) Timbre d) Loudness
35.Loudness of sound L and corresponding intensity of sound I are related asa) L = KI2 b) L = KI c) L = K d) L = K log I
36.The index of refraction of a medium is 1.5. If the speed of light in air is 3 x 108 m/s, then its speed in the medium will bea) 2 x 108 m/s b) 1.2 x 108 m/s c) 4 x 108 m/s d) 3.2 x 108 m/s
37.The ratio of intensities of the two waves is given by 4:1. The ratio of amplitudes of two waves isa) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 4:1 d) 1:4
38.Two source of waves are called coherent ifa) Both have the same amplitude by vibrationsb) Both produce waves of different wavelength having constant phase differencec) Both produce waves of same wavelength having constant phase differenced) Both produce waves having the same velocity
39.Which of the following does not support the wave nature of light?a) Interference b) Diffraction c) Polarization d) Photoelectric effect
40.Velocity of light will be minimum ina) Vacuum b) Air c) Water d) Glass
41.Wavelength of light of frequency 100 Hz isa) 2 x 106 m/s b) 3 x 106 m/s c) 4 x 106 m/s d) 5 x 106 m/s
42.A rocket is going away from earth at a speed of 106 m/s. If the wavelength of the light wave emitted by it be 5700 Å, its Doppler’s shift will bea) 200 Å b) 19 Å c) 20 Å d) 0.2 Å
43.Colour of light is known by itsa) Velocity b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) Polarization
44.A rocket is going away from the earth at a speed 0.2c where c = Speed of light. It emits a signal of frequency 4 x 107 Hz. The frequency observed by an observer on the earth will bea) 4 x 106 Hz b) 3.3 x 106 Hz c) 3 x 106 Hz d) 5 x 107 Hz
45.A light wave has a frequency of 4 x 1014 Hz and a wavelength of 5 x 10-7 m in a medium. The refractive index of the medium isa) 1.5 b) 1.33 c) 1.0 d) 0.66
46.Stars are twinkling due to optical phenomenon ofa) Refraction b) Scattering c) Reflection d) Diffraction
47.The splitting of white light into several colours on passing through a glass prism is due toa) Refraction b) Reflection c) Interference d) Diffraction
48.In Bohr’s model, if the atomic radius of the first orbit is ro, then the radius of the fourth orbit isa) 16 ro b) ro c) 4 ro d) ro/16
49.The average binding energy per nucleon in the nucleus of an atom is approximatelya) 8 eV b) 8 MeV c) 8 KeV d) 8 Volt
50.The mass equivalent of 931 MeV energy isa) 1.66 x 10-20 kg b) 1.66 x 10-27 kgc) 6.02 x 10-24 kg d) 6.02 x 10-27 kg
51.The energy equivalent to 1 a.m.u. isa) 931 MeV b) 931 eV c) 931 KeV d) 9.31 MeV
52.The ratio of kinetic energy and total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit isa) + 2 b) – 1 c) + 1 d) – 2
53.The size of an atom is of the order ofa) 1 Å b) 1 fermi c) 1 nm b) 1 micron
54.The mass defect per nucleon is calleda) Packing fraction b) Binding Energyc) Ionization Energy d) Excitation Energy
55.Nuclear Binding Energy is equal toa) Mass of Nucleus b) Mass defect of Nucleusc) Mass of Proton d) Mass of Neutron
56.The Pfund series of Hydrogen spectrum lies in the region\a) Infrared b) Visible c) Ultraviolet d) X-Ray
57.The number of neutrons in 92U238 isa) 92 b) 238 c) 330 d) 146
58.The energy required to remove an electron in a hydrogen atom from n = 10 state isa) 136.0 eV b) 13.60 eV c) 1.36 eV d) 0.136 eV
59.The angular momentum of electron in nth orbit is given bya) b) c) d)
60.The rest energy of an electron isa) 510 MeV b) 51 MeV c) 931 MeV d) 93.1 MeV
61.In the lowest energy level of hydrogen atom, the electron has the angular momentuma) ?/h b) h/? c) h/2? d) 2?/h
62.Laser is working in the principle ofa) Stimulated emission of radiation b) Spontaneous emission of radiationc) Population inversion d) Normal population
63.The output beam of Ruby Laser has the wavelength ofa) 6943 Å b) 6328 Å c) 6300 Å d) 5500 Å
64.In the He-Ne Laser , the He-Ne in the mixture ofa) 10:1 b) 2:1 c) 4:1 d) 5:1
65.The full form of LIDAR isa) Light Amplitude and Rangingb) Light Detection and Rangingc) Light Defect and Rangingd) Laser Detection and Ranging
66.Which one of the following is solid state laser?a) Nd:YAG Laser b) He-Ne Laser c) CO2 Laser d) GaAs Laser
67.Populaton Inversion is achieved by means ofa) Optical pumping b) Gas pumpingc) Mechanical pumping d) Solid pumping
68.GRASERS area) Galium Arsenide Lasers b) Gamma Ray Lasersc) General Ranging Lasers d) Gallium Radium Lasers
69.LASER Beam isa) Highly monochromatic b) Highly Intensec) Highly Coherent d) All of the above
70.Which one of the following cannot be used as a pulsed device?a) CFA b) BWO c) TWT d) Magnetron
71.Klystron works in the principle ofa) Velocity Modulation b) Amplitude Modulationc) Frequency Modulation d) Phase Modulation
72.Strapping in Magnetron is used toa) prevent mode jumping b) ensure bunchingc) improve the phase focusing effect d) prevent cathode back heating
73.Which is not a TWT slow wave structurea) Coupled cavity b) helix c) ring bars d) periodic permanent magnet
74.30 to 300 MHz frequency range is categorized asa) MF b) VHF c) UHF d) SHF
75.Find the centre of the circle whose two extremities of diameter are (2,3) & (4,-1) isa) (3,1) b) (6,8) c) (3,-2) d) (-6,8)
76.The centre and radius of the circle x2+y2+4x–6y+2=0 area) (-2,3) & 5 b) (-2,3) & 5 c) (2,-3) & 5 d) (2,-3) & 2
77.The angle between the straight lines x + 2y -3 = 0 & 2x + 4y -4 = 0 isa) ? = 90º b) ? = 60º c) ? = 0º d) ? = 45º
78.The condition for the pair of straight lines ax2+2xy+by2+2x+2y+3=0 to be perpendicular isa) h2–ab = 0 b) ab = 2 c) a+b = 0 d) a-b = 0
79.The particular integral of +3 + 2y = 2e-x isa) 2xe-x b) 2e-x c) x2e-x d) xe-x
80.The particular integral of +4 + 4y = 3sin2x isa) – cos2x b) cos2x c) sin2x d) 3xcos2x
81.The complementary function of (D2+3)y = e-x isa) Ae x + Be x b) (A+Bx) e xc) A cos3x + B sin3x d) A cos x + B sin x
82.The solution of (D2-2D-15)y = 0 isa) y = Ae3x + Be5x b) y = Ae-3x + Be-5xc) y = Ae5x + Be-3x d) y = Ae-5x + Be3x
83.The particular integral of + y = 3 isa) 3 b) x/3 c) 3/y d) -3
84.The area bounded by x2 = 2y, the x-axis and the lines x = 1 and x = 3 isa) b) c) d)
85.The area of the curve y = sin x bounded by the x-axis from x = 0 to x = 2? isa) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0
86.The area enclosed by the curve xy = 8 and x-axis from x = 1 to x = 4 isa) 8 log 2 b) 16 log 2 c) 4 log 2 d) 2 log 4
87.The area bounded by the curve x = 3y2 – 9 and the lines x = 0, y = 0 and y = 1 isa) 8 b) c) d) 3
88.When the area enclosed by the curve y = and the x-axis from x = 0 and x = 4 is rotated about the x-axis, the volume generated isa) b) c) d)
89.The area included between the curve y = x – x2 and the x-axis revolves about the x-axis. The volume generated by the area isa) b) c) d)
90.If the area enclosed between the curve y2 = x3 + 5x and the x-axis from x = 2 to x = 4 is revolved about the x-axis, the volume of the solid generated isa) 45? b) 90? c) 120? d) 60?
91.a) 12 b) 0 c) 6 d) 18
92. =a) sin-1x b) cos-1x c) tan-1x c) cot-1x
93.a) log f(x) b) 2 c) f(x) d) f(x)/294.a) sec x b) tan x c) cos x d) cot x
95.The acceleration of a particle at any time t is given by 3×2 – 2x + 1, then the velocity of the particle at any time isa) x3 -2x 2 + x b) x3 -x 2 + x c) x 2 + x d) x 2 + x +1
96.The Laplace transform of f(t) = t2 e-3t isa) b) c) d)
97.The Laplace transform of f(t) = 1 + cos2t isa) b) c) d)
98.The Laplace transform of unit step function isa) b) c) 1 d)
99.The initial value of the function F(S) =a) 1 b) 0 c) 2 d)
100.The inverse Laplace transform of isa) e-t b) 1-e-t c) 1- et d) 2(1+ e-t)
101.The inverse Laplace transform of isa) et cos2t b) et sin2t c) e-t cos2t d) e-t sin2t
102.(1+i)3 is equal toa) 3 + 3i b) 1 + 3i c) 3 – 3i d) 2i – 2
103.The value of i13+i14+i15+i16 isa) 0 b) -1 c) i d) –i
104. The polar form of complex number -1- i isa) 2(cos + i sin ) b) 2(cos + i sin )b) 2(cos – i sin ) d) 2(cos + i sin )
105.The modulus of a complex number isa) b) 2 c) 1 d)
106.The value of (3+?+3?2)4 isa) 16 b) 16 ? c) -16 ? d) 0
107.The value of isa) cos 2? + i sin 2? b) cos ? + i sin ?c) cos ? – i sin ? d) cos 26? + i sin 26?
108.The value of the fourier coefficient bn for the function f(x) = cosx defined in (-?, ?) isa) 0 b) 1 c) ? d) -2 ?
109. The value of the fourier coefficient a0 for the half range series for f(x) defined in (0, ?) isa) a0 = b) a0 =c) a0 = d) 0
110.The value of the fourier coefficient an for the function f(x) is odd isa) 0 b) an =c) an= d) a0 =
111.The value of the fourier coefficient bn for the function f(x) is even isa) 0 b) bn =c) bn = d) bn =
112.If u = exy then xa) u b) u logeu c) logeu d) ueu
113.If u = then the value of isa) b) 0 c) x+y d) -1114.If u = sin-1 , then the value of isa) b) c) d)
115.If u = xy, then isa) y/x b) xyx-1 c) yxy-1 d) xy-1
116. Given = = 6 and . = 18, the angle between and isa) b) c) d)
117.( – ) x ( + ) =a) 2 x b) x c) 2 x d) 2 – 2
118.The volume of the parallelepiped whose three coterminous edges are represented by the vectors + , + , + isa) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
119.The value of p such that the vectors -2 + 3 , 4 +3 – and 11 +p + 7 are coplanar isa) -7 b) 0 c) -12 d) 12
120.Reverberation of sound meansa) existence of sound in a roomb) vibration of sound wavesc) existence of sound eventhough the source of sound is cutoffd) strong echoes
121.Ultrasonic waves can be produced bya) Piezo-electric effect b) Inverse Piezo-electric effectc) Magnetostriction effect d) Both b & c
122.The Sabine’s formula for reverberation time isa) T = b) T =c) T = d) T = 0.16 aAS
1. If the matrix A = is singular, then ? =a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5
2. A = is symmetric, then x =a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5
3. If A is a 3 x 3 matrix and det(3 A) = k det(A) then k =a) 9 b) 6 c) 1 d) 27
4. If A = , then A-1 =a) b) c) d)
5. If A = then A2 is equal toa) A b) –A c) Null Matrix d) I
6. is aa) rectangular matrix b) singular matrixb) non-singular matrix d) skew-symmetric matrix
7. The slope of the straight line whose inclination with negative x-axis is 120º isa) b) c) 1 d) infinity
8. If two lines whose slopes are m1 and m2 are perpendicular iffa) m1 = m2 b) m1m2 = 0 c) m1m2 = -1 d) m1 + m2 = -1
9. The rate of increase of the radius of a circle is 1 cm/sec, the rate of increase of its area is 4? cm2/sec at a particular instant. The radius at that instant isa) 2 cm b) 3 cm c) 4 cm d) 6 cm
10.If the side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.02 cm/min, the rate at which its area is increasing at the instant when the length of the side is 5 cm isa) 0.2 cm 2/min b) 0.4 cm 2/min c) 0.1 cm 2/min d) 0.6 cm 2/min
11.A particle is moving on a plane according to the distance-time relationship is given by s = t3 + 6t2 + 8t – 4. When its acceleration is 8 m/sec2, its velocity isa) 8 m/sec b) 11 m/sec c) 23 m/sec d) -1 m/sec
12.A stone moves vertically upwards according to the distance-time equation s = 16t – 2t2.The greatest height reached by the stone isa) 4 b) 64 c) 32 d) 96
13.The distance moved by a particle traveling in a straight line in t seconds is given by s = 45t + 11t2 – t3. The time taken by the particle to come to rest isa) 9 sec b) 5 sec c) 3 sec d) 2 sec
14.The distance s described by a particle in time t is given by the relation s = aet + be-t. The acceleration is equal toa) velocity b) the distance traveledc) twice the distance traveled d) the square of the distance traveled
15.The slope of the normal to the curve y = at the point isa) 9 b) -9 c) d)
17.The normal to the curve y = f(x) will be parallel to x-axis ifa) b) c) d)
18.The maximum point of the function 2×3 – 9×2 + 12x isa) x = 0 b) x = 5 c) x = 1 d) x = 2
19.The minimum value of 2×3 – 9×2 + 12x – 4 isa) 1 b) 3 c) 0 d) -2
20.The point of inflection of the function x3 – 3×2 + 3x isa) (1,0) b) (1,1) c) (6,126) d) (-1,-7)
21.Velocity of sound is greatest ina) Solids b) Liquids c) Gases d) None of these
22.If the phase difference between the two waves is 2? during superimposition, then the resultant amplitude isa) Maximum b) Minimum c) Half of maximum d) None of these
23.If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude on superimposition produce a resultant disturbance of the same amplitude, the wave differ in phase bya) b) c) d)
24.The equation of a plane progressive wave is given by y = 2sin?(0.5x – 200t) where x and y are expressed in cm and t in sec. The wave velocity isa) 400 cm/sec b) 300 cm/sec c) 200 cm/sec d) 100 cm/sec
25.Equation of a plane progressive wave is given by y = 0.2 cos ?(0.04t + 0.02x – 1/6). The distance is expressed in cm and time in sec. The minimum distance between two particles separated by phase difference ?/2 is radian isa) 25 cm b) 12.5 cm c) 8 cm d) 4 cm
26.Ultrasonic waves are those waves whicha) Human being can hear b) Human being cannot hearc) Have high velocity d) Have large amplitude
27.It is possible to distinguish between the transverse and longitudinal waves by studying the property ofa) Interference b) Polarization c) Diffraction d) Reflection
28.The following phenomenon cannot be observed for sound wavesa) Refraction b) Polarization c) Diffraction d) Reflection
29.Doppler shift in frequency does not depend upona) Frequency of the wave produced b) Velocity of the sourcec) Velocity of the listener/observer d) Distance between source and listener
30.A source of sound of frequency 450 cycles/second is moving towards a stationary observer with 34 m/s speed. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s then the apparent frequency will bea) 410 cps b) 550 cps c) 500 cps d) 450 cps
31.An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound of frequency n. The apparent frequency heard by him is 2n. If the velocity of sound in air is 332 m/s, then the velocity of observer isa) 166 m/s b) 664 m/s c) 332 m/s d) 1328 m/s
32.The equation of a wave traveling in a string can be written as y = 3 cos ?(100t – x).Its wavelength isa) 100 cm b) 5 cm c) 3 cm d) 2 cm
33.Sound velocity is maximum ina) O2 b) H2 c) He d) N2
34.Phon is the unit ofa) Pitch b) Quality c) Timbre d) Loudness
35.Loudness of sound L and corresponding intensity of sound I are related asa) L = KI2 b) L = KI c) L = K d) L = K log I
36.The index of refraction of a medium is 1.5. If the speed of light in air is 3 x 108 m/s, then its speed in the medium will bea) 2 x 108 m/s b) 1.2 x 108 m/s c) 4 x 108 m/s d) 3.2 x 108 m/s
37.The ratio of intensities of the two waves is given by 4:1. The ratio of amplitudes of two waves isa) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 4:1 d) 1:4
38.Two source of waves are called coherent ifa) Both have the same amplitude by vibrationsb) Both produce waves of different wavelength having constant phase differencec) Both produce waves of same wavelength having constant phase differenced) Both produce waves having the same velocity
39.Which of the following does not support the wave nature of light?a) Interference b) Diffraction c) Polarization d) Photoelectric effect
40.Velocity of light will be minimum ina) Vacuum b) Air c) Water d) Glass
41.Wavelength of light of frequency 100 Hz isa) 2 x 106 m/s b) 3 x 106 m/s c) 4 x 106 m/s d) 5 x 106 m/s
42.A rocket is going away from earth at a speed of 106 m/s. If the wavelength of the light wave emitted by it be 5700 Å, its Doppler’s shift will bea) 200 Å b) 19 Å c) 20 Å d) 0.2 Å
43.Colour of light is known by itsa) Velocity b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) Polarization
44.A rocket is going away from the earth at a speed 0.2c where c = Speed of light. It emits a signal of frequency 4 x 107 Hz. The frequency observed by an observer on the earth will bea) 4 x 106 Hz b) 3.3 x 106 Hz c) 3 x 106 Hz d) 5 x 107 Hz
45.A light wave has a frequency of 4 x 1014 Hz and a wavelength of 5 x 10-7 m in a medium. The refractive index of the medium isa) 1.5 b) 1.33 c) 1.0 d) 0.66
46.Stars are twinkling due to optical phenomenon ofa) Refraction b) Scattering c) Reflection d) Diffraction
47.The splitting of white light into several colours on passing through a glass prism is due toa) Refraction b) Reflection c) Interference d) Diffraction
48.In Bohr’s model, if the atomic radius of the first orbit is ro, then the radius of the fourth orbit isa) 16 ro b) ro c) 4 ro d) ro/16
49.The average binding energy per nucleon in the nucleus of an atom is approximatelya) 8 eV b) 8 MeV c) 8 KeV d) 8 Volt
50.The mass equivalent of 931 MeV energy isa) 1.66 x 10-20 kg b) 1.66 x 10-27 kgc) 6.02 x 10-24 kg d) 6.02 x 10-27 kg
51.The energy equivalent to 1 a.m.u. isa) 931 MeV b) 931 eV c) 931 KeV d) 9.31 MeV
52.The ratio of kinetic energy and total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit isa) + 2 b) – 1 c) + 1 d) – 2
53.The size of an atom is of the order ofa) 1 Å b) 1 fermi c) 1 nm b) 1 micron
54.The mass defect per nucleon is calleda) Packing fraction b) Binding Energyc) Ionization Energy d) Excitation Energy
55.Nuclear Binding Energy is equal toa) Mass of Nucleus b) Mass defect of Nucleusc) Mass of Proton d) Mass of Neutron
56.The Pfund series of Hydrogen spectrum lies in the region\a) Infrared b) Visible c) Ultraviolet d) X-Ray
57.The number of neutrons in 92U238 isa) 92 b) 238 c) 330 d) 146
58.The energy required to remove an electron in a hydrogen atom from n = 10 state isa) 136.0 eV b) 13.60 eV c) 1.36 eV d) 0.136 eV
59.The angular momentum of electron in nth orbit is given bya) b) c) d)
60.The rest energy of an electron isa) 510 MeV b) 51 MeV c) 931 MeV d) 93.1 MeV
61.In the lowest energy level of hydrogen atom, the electron has the angular momentuma) ?/h b) h/? c) h/2? d) 2?/h
62.Laser is working in the principle ofa) Stimulated emission of radiation b) Spontaneous emission of radiationc) Population inversion d) Normal population
63.The output beam of Ruby Laser has the wavelength ofa) 6943 Å b) 6328 Å c) 6300 Å d) 5500 Å
64.In the He-Ne Laser , the He-Ne in the mixture ofa) 10:1 b) 2:1 c) 4:1 d) 5:1
65.The full form of LIDAR isa) Light Amplitude and Rangingb) Light Detection and Rangingc) Light Defect and Rangingd) Laser Detection and Ranging
66.Which one of the following is solid state laser?a) Nd:YAG Laser b) He-Ne Laser c) CO2 Laser d) GaAs Laser
67.Populaton Inversion is achieved by means ofa) Optical pumping b) Gas pumpingc) Mechanical pumping d) Solid pumping
68.GRASERS area) Galium Arsenide Lasers b) Gamma Ray Lasersc) General Ranging Lasers d) Gallium Radium Lasers
69.LASER Beam isa) Highly monochromatic b) Highly Intensec) Highly Coherent d) All of the above
70.Which one of the following cannot be used as a pulsed device?a) CFA b) BWO c) TWT d) Magnetron
71.Klystron works in the principle ofa) Velocity Modulation b) Amplitude Modulationc) Frequency Modulation d) Phase Modulation
72.Strapping in Magnetron is used toa) prevent mode jumping b) ensure bunchingc) improve the phase focusing effect d) prevent cathode back heating
73.Which is not a TWT slow wave structurea) Coupled cavity b) helix c) ring bars d) periodic permanent magnet
74.30 to 300 MHz frequency range is categorized asa) MF b) VHF c) UHF d) SHF
75.Find the centre of the circle whose two extremities of diameter are (2,3) & (4,-1) isa) (3,1) b) (6,8) c) (3,-2) d) (-6,8)
76.The centre and radius of the circle x2+y2+4x–6y+2=0 area) (-2,3) & 5 b) (-2,3) & 5 c) (2,-3) & 5 d) (2,-3) & 2
77.The angle between the straight lines x + 2y -3 = 0 & 2x + 4y -4 = 0 isa) ? = 90º b) ? = 60º c) ? = 0º d) ? = 45º
78.The condition for the pair of straight lines ax2+2xy+by2+2x+2y+3=0 to be perpendicular isa) h2–ab = 0 b) ab = 2 c) a+b = 0 d) a-b = 0
79.The particular integral of +3 + 2y = 2e-x isa) 2xe-x b) 2e-x c) x2e-x d) xe-x
80.The particular integral of +4 + 4y = 3sin2x isa) – cos2x b) cos2x c) sin2x d) 3xcos2x
81.The complementary function of (D2+3)y = e-x isa) Ae x + Be x b) (A+Bx) e xc) A cos3x + B sin3x d) A cos x + B sin x
82.The solution of (D2-2D-15)y = 0 isa) y = Ae3x + Be5x b) y = Ae-3x + Be-5xc) y = Ae5x + Be-3x d) y = Ae-5x + Be3x
83.The particular integral of + y = 3 isa) 3 b) x/3 c) 3/y d) -3
84.The area bounded by x2 = 2y, the x-axis and the lines x = 1 and x = 3 isa) b) c) d)
85.The area of the curve y = sin x bounded by the x-axis from x = 0 to x = 2? isa) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0
86.The area enclosed by the curve xy = 8 and x-axis from x = 1 to x = 4 isa) 8 log 2 b) 16 log 2 c) 4 log 2 d) 2 log 4
87.The area bounded by the curve x = 3y2 – 9 and the lines x = 0, y = 0 and y = 1 isa) 8 b) c) d) 3
88.When the area enclosed by the curve y = and the x-axis from x = 0 and x = 4 is rotated about the x-axis, the volume generated isa) b) c) d)
89.The area included between the curve y = x – x2 and the x-axis revolves about the x-axis. The volume generated by the area isa) b) c) d)
90.If the area enclosed between the curve y2 = x3 + 5x and the x-axis from x = 2 to x = 4 is revolved about the x-axis, the volume of the solid generated isa) 45? b) 90? c) 120? d) 60?
91.a) 12 b) 0 c) 6 d) 18
92. =a) sin-1x b) cos-1x c) tan-1x c) cot-1x
93.a) log f(x) b) 2 c) f(x) d) f(x)/294.a) sec x b) tan x c) cos x d) cot x
95.The acceleration of a particle at any time t is given by 3×2 – 2x + 1, then the velocity of the particle at any time isa) x3 -2x 2 + x b) x3 -x 2 + x c) x 2 + x d) x 2 + x +1
96.The Laplace transform of f(t) = t2 e-3t isa) b) c) d)
97.The Laplace transform of f(t) = 1 + cos2t isa) b) c) d)
98.The Laplace transform of unit step function isa) b) c) 1 d)
99.The initial value of the function F(S) =a) 1 b) 0 c) 2 d)
100.The inverse Laplace transform of isa) e-t b) 1-e-t c) 1- et d) 2(1+ e-t)
101.The inverse Laplace transform of isa) et cos2t b) et sin2t c) e-t cos2t d) e-t sin2t
102.(1+i)3 is equal toa) 3 + 3i b) 1 + 3i c) 3 – 3i d) 2i – 2
103.The value of i13+i14+i15+i16 isa) 0 b) -1 c) i d) –i
104. The polar form of complex number -1- i isa) 2(cos + i sin ) b) 2(cos + i sin )b) 2(cos – i sin ) d) 2(cos + i sin )
105.The modulus of a complex number isa) b) 2 c) 1 d)
106.The value of (3+?+3?2)4 isa) 16 b) 16 ? c) -16 ? d) 0
107.The value of isa) cos 2? + i sin 2? b) cos ? + i sin ?c) cos ? – i sin ? d) cos 26? + i sin 26?
108.The value of the fourier coefficient bn for the function f(x) = cosx defined in (-?, ?) isa) 0 b) 1 c) ? d) -2 ?
109. The value of the fourier coefficient a0 for the half range series for f(x) defined in (0, ?) isa) a0 = b) a0 =c) a0 = d) 0
110.The value of the fourier coefficient an for the function f(x) is odd isa) 0 b) an =c) an= d) a0 =
111.The value of the fourier coefficient bn for the function f(x) is even isa) 0 b) bn =c) bn = d) bn =
112.If u = exy then xa) u b) u logeu c) logeu d) ueu
113.If u = then the value of isa) b) 0 c) x+y d) -1114.If u = sin-1 , then the value of isa) b) c) d)
115.If u = xy, then isa) y/x b) xyx-1 c) yxy-1 d) xy-1
116. Given = = 6 and . = 18, the angle between and isa) b) c) d)
117.( – ) x ( + ) =a) 2 x b) x c) 2 x d) 2 – 2
118.The volume of the parallelepiped whose three coterminous edges are represented by the vectors + , + , + isa) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
119.The value of p such that the vectors -2 + 3 , 4 +3 – and 11 +p + 7 are coplanar isa) -7 b) 0 c) -12 d) 12
120.Reverberation of sound meansa) existence of sound in a roomb) vibration of sound wavesc) existence of sound eventhough the source of sound is cutoffd) strong echoes
121.Ultrasonic waves can be produced bya) Piezo-electric effect b) Inverse Piezo-electric effectc) Magnetostriction effect d) Both b & c
122.The Sabine’s formula for reverberation time isa) T = b) T =c) T = d) T = 0.16 aAS
BSNL TTA EXAM 2007
BSNL TTA (Telecom Technical Assistant) EXAM December 2007
Section A – Electrical
Number of Questions: 50
Maximum Marks: 250
Time Allowed: 90 Minutes
Negative Marking: Yes
Type of Questions: Objective Type (Multiple Choice)
SECTION (ELECTRICAL)
1. In a D.C. generator, if the brushes are given a small amount of forward shift, the effect of armature is
a. Totally demagnetizing
b. Totally magnetizing
c. Partly demagnetizing and partly cross magnetizing
d. Totally cross magnetizing
2. The air gap between stator and armature of an electric motor is kept as small as possible
a. To get a stronger magnetic field
b. to improve the air circulation
c. To reach the higher speed of rotation
d. To make the rotation easier.
3. Two series motors are coupled. One motor runs as generator and other as motor. The friction losses of the two machines will be equal when
a. Both operates at same voltage
b. Both have same back emf
c. Both have same speed
d. both have same excitation
4. Plugging of D.C. motor is normally executed by
a. Reversing the field polarity
b. Reversing the armature polarity
c. Reversing both the armature and field polarity
d. Connecting a resistance across the armature.
5. Transformer oil transformer provides
a. Insulation and cooling
b. B. Cooling and lubrication
c. Lubrication and insulation
d. Insulation, cooling and lubrication
6. Leakage fluxes of transformer may be minimized by
a. Reducing the magnetizing current to the minimum
b. Reducing the reluctance of the iron core to the minimum
c. Reducing the number of primary and secondary turn to the minimum
d. Sectionalizing and interleaving the primary and secondary windings
7. Electric power is transformed upon one coil to other coil in a transformer
a. Electrically
b. Electro Magnetically
c. Magnetically
d. Physically
8. The most suitable and economical connection for small high voltage transformer is-
a. Star- Delta connection
b. Delta- Delta connection
c. Delta- Star connection
d. Star- Star connection
9. An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at
a. Unity power factor
b. Leading power factor
c. Lagging power factor
d. Either lagging or leading power factor
10. In an A.C. machine, the armature winding is kept stationary while the field winding is kept rotating for the following rason
a. Armature handles very large currents and high voltages
b. Armature friction involving deep slots to accommodate large coils is easy if armature is kept stationary
c. Ease of cooling the stator than rotor
d. None of the above.
11. In a synchronous motor, the torque angle is the
a. Angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles
b. Angle between the magnetizing current and back emf
c. Angle between the supply voltage and back emf
d. None of the above
12. A 3-phase synchronous motor is said to be “floating” when it operates
a. On no load and without loss
b. On constantly varying load
c. On pulsating load
d. On high load and variable supply voltage
13. Speed of synchronous motor depends upon
a. Number of poles
b. Supply frequency
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
14. Imbalance in the shaft of an induction motor occurs due to
a. Slip rings
b. Overheating of winding
c. Non uniform of air gap
d. Rigid consturcion
15. Squirrel cage induction motor has
a. Zero starting torque
b. Very small starting torque
c. Medium starting torque
d. Very high starting torque
16. The principle of operation of a 3-phase induction motor is similar to that of a
a. Synchronous motor
b. Repulsion – start induction motor
c. Transformer with a shorted secondary
d. Capacitor – start, induction – run motor
17. The speed/load characteristics of a universal motor are similar to those
a. D.C. shunt motor
b. D.C. series motor
c. A.C. motor
d. None of the above
18. Single phase A.C. motor generally used for vacuum cleaners is
a. Universal motor
b. Repulsion motor
c. Hysteresis motor
d. Reluctance motor
19. Buchholz relay is used for the protection of
a. Switch yard
b. Transformers
c. Alternators
d. Transmission lines
20. The type of braking used in traction system is
a. Mechanical braking
b. Electro – pneumatic braking
c. Vacuum braking system
d. All the above
21. The function of processing zenger diode in a UJT circuit used for triggering of SCRs is to
a. Expedite the generation of triggering pulses
b. Delay the generation of triggering pulses
c. Provide a constant voltage to UJT to prevent erratic firing
d. Provide a variable voltage to UJT as the source voltage changes
22. The frequency of a ripple in the output voltage of a 3 – phase semi converter depends upon
a. Firing angle and load resistance
b. Firing angle and supply frequency
c. Firing angle and load inductance
d. Only on load circuit parameters
23. The SCR is turned off when the anode currents falls below
a. Forward current rating
b. Break – over voltage
c. Holding current
d. Latching
24. V4 characteristics of emitter of a UJT is
a. Similar to CE with linear and saturation region
b. Similar to FET with a linear and pinch of region
c. Similar to tunnel diode in some respects
d. Linear between the peak point and valley point
25. A transformer works on
a. DC
b. AC
c. AC & DC both
d. Neither AC not DC
26. Which of the following device is used in transformer?
a. Tube light
b. Electric heater
c. Mobile phone
d. Rectifier module
27. Earth electrodes can be in the form of
a. rods or piper
b. stripes
c. plates
d. any of above
28. Carbone or metal brushes are used in
a. DC generators only
b. AC generators only
c. Both AC & DC generation
d. None of above
29. Energy is lost due to Joule’s heating effects in winding of transformer. This is called
a. Copper loss
b. Eddy current loss
c. Flux loss
d. None
30. In refrigeration cycle heat is lost in
a. Cooling coil
b. Condenser
c. Compressor
d. Expansion valve
31. The power factor of AC circuit is
a. R/X
b. R/Z
c. Z/R
d. Zero
32. Silicon controlled output is good if ripple factor is
a. Switch
b. Transformer
c. Amplifier
d. None of above
33. The rectifier output is good if ripple factor is\
a. More
b. Less
c. Constant
d. None of above
34. Protective relays can monitor large AC current by means of
a. Current transformer
b. Potential transformer
c. Micro transformer
d. None of above
35. The combines AM of two similar batteries connected in parallel is:
a. halved
b. doubled
c. remain constant
d. none of above
36. The current in circuit having 5 V EMI source and 10 Ohm resistance is:
a. 2 Amp
b. 50 Amp
c. 5 Amp
d. ½ Amp
37. The chopper is a device to change
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Frequency
d. None of these
38. The power consumption, in case of centrifugal loads (like pump, fan, blower etc) is proportional to:
a. speed
b. square of speed
c. cube of speed
d. none of these
39. Which of these need to be measured after rewinding the motor:
a. no load current
b. air gap
c. winding resistance
d. all of the above
40. Five percent increase in supply frequency will change the synchronous speed of motor by:
a. -5%
b. +5%
c. -10%
d. +10%
41. Which of the following is the best inverter?
a. square wave inverter
b. sine wave inverter
c. pure sine wave inverter
d. triangular wave inverter
42. For driving a motor in a tape recorder or record player, the motor used is generally:
a. a synchronous motor
b. a hydraulic motor
c. an induction motor
d. a dc series motor
43. The DC motor starter used with a constant speed shunt motor is:
a. 2 point starter
b. 3 point starter
c. 4 point starter
d. 5 point starter
44. A commutator in a DC motor converts
a. AC to DC
b. DC to AC
c. Both AC to DC and DC to AC
d. None of these
45. Two transformers running in parallel will share the load according to their:
a. leakage reactance
b. pu impedance
c. efficiency
d. rating
46. The size of the Earth Wire is determined by:
a. the ampere capacity of the service wires
b. the atmospheric conditions
c. the voltage of service wires
d. none of these
47. The function of lightning arrester is:
a. to limit the short circuit fault current
b. to provide path to high voltage surge to earth
c. to reduce arcing
d. none of these
48. Surge protector provide:
a. high impedance to normal voltage
b. low impedance to surge
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of these
49. Earthing is necessary to give protection against
a. voltage fluctuation
b. overloading
c. danger of electric shock
d. high temperature of conductors
50. The primary function of fuse is to
a. protect the appliance
b. open the circuit
c. prevent excessive current
d. protect the line
Section C – Network Filters and Transmission Lines
Number of Questions: 50
Maximum Marks: 250
Section (Network Filters and Transmission Lines)
1. Pick up wrong statement
(a) A group of interconnected individual components known as circuit elements is called a network.
(b) A humped network is an arrangement of physically separate resistors, inductors and capacitors.
(c) Distributed network is one, which the resistive, inductive and capacitive effects are inseparable for network analyses.
(d) A branch is a network having four elements.
2. Kirchoff’s laws for networks are:
(a) The algebraic sum of branch currents meeting at any node is zero.
(b) The algebric sum of voltage drops in any set of branches forming a closed circuit or loop must be equal to zero.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) and (b)
3. Mutually coupled circuit is a circuit which is:
(a) Bilateral
(b) Unilateral
(c) None of these
(d) Either (a) or (b)
4. Duality is a
(a) Transformation in which current and voltages are interchanged
(b) Active sources become passive sources
(c) Passive sources become active sources
(d) Both (b) and (c)
5. Combined inductance of two inductors L1 and L2 connected and voltages are interchanged
(a) L1 + L2
(b) (L1 + L2)/ L1
(c) (L1 + L2) / (L1 X L2)
(d) (L1 X L2) / (L1 + L2)
6. Normal analysis techniques are based on
(a) Thevenin’s theorem
(b) Tellegan’s theorem
(c) Superposition theorem
(d) Kirchoff’s Law
7. Two voltage sources can be connected in parallel when they are equal in
(a) Magnitude
(b) Frequency
(c) Phase
(d) All the above
8. The kirchoff’s law fail in
(a) Linear circuits
(b) Non-linear circuits
(c) Lumped parameter circuits
(d) Distributed parameter circuits
9. Which of the following is a nonreciprocal network ?
(a) A network consisting of all resistances
(b) A network consisting of all capacitances
(c) A network consisting of all inductances
(d) A transistor model
10. When two systems obey equations of the same form the systems are said to be
(a) Similar system
(b) Identical system
(c) Analogous system
(d) Digital system
11. For a highly selective circuit
(a) It must have large value of Q
(b) It must have high value of capacitance to produce resonance at fixed frequency
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
12. A network consisting of four terminals is called a
(a) One port network
(b) Two port network
(c) Four port network
(d) None of the above
13. Driving point of a network is
(a) A port where voltage or current source is connected
(b) A terminal where load is connected
(c) A port where load is connected
(d) None of the above
14. Ceramic filters are similar in construction to
(a) Crystal filters
(b) Crystal ladder filters
(c) Crystal lattice
(d) Mechanical filters
15. When two port networks are connected in parallel the resultant
(a) Z parameters are the some of individual parameters
(b) Y- parameters are the some of individual parameters
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
16. Electric wave filters
(a) Allow electric signals with specified frequency range
(b) Suppress signals outside a specified range
(c) Both (a) and (b) occurs simultaneously
(d) Either (a) or (b) occur at a time
17. A cascade connection of low pass filter and high pass filter is called
(a) Band pass filter
(b) Band elimination filter
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
18. The response of a network is decided by the location of
(a) Its poles
(b) Its zeros
(c) Either (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
19. Example of two port network is
(a) Transformer
(b) Transmission line
(c) Bridge circuit and transistor circuit
(d) All of the above
20. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is called
(a) Universal circuit
(b) Reversible circuit
(c) Unilateral circuit
(d) Bilateral circuit
21. Distortion in transmission line is due to
(a) Delay distortion
(b) Phase distortion
(c) Frequency distortion
(d) All the above
22. The general parameters distributed along a transmission line are
(a) R&L only
(b) L&C only
(c) C&G only
(d) R, L, C&G
23. Phase distortion is prominently caused by
(a) circuit transients
(b) non linear characteristics
(c) linearity
(d) none
24. The voltage or current from the receiving end towards the sending end, decreasing in amplitude with increasing distance from the load is called
(a) incident wave
(b) medium wave
(c) reflected wave
(d) none of above
25. E.M. Waves of UHF is propagated efficiently via
(a) parallel wire transmission lines
(b) open wire transmission lines
(c) wave guides
(d) coaxial cables
26. Norton theorem is valid for network containing only
(a) linear elements
(b) no linear elements
(c) resistance
(d) reactance
27. The maximum power is absorbed by one network from other, joined to it at two terminals when the impedance of one is
(a) complex conjugate of other
(b) square root of other
(c) same as other
(d) none of above
28. The decrease in effective conductor cross section at high frequencies
(a) decrease the conductor resistance
(b) increase the conductor resistance
(c) no change in conductor resistance
(d) none of above
29. Voltage standing wave ratio lies in the range
(a) 0 to 1
(b) 1 to infinity
(c) 0 to infinity
(d) -1 to +1
30. Attenuators have applications
(a) in AC circuits only
(b) in DC circuits only
(c) in AC as well DC circuits
(d) in low frequency circuits only
31. In an network
(a) the number of tree branches is equal to the number of links
(b) the number of tree branches cannot be equal to the number of links
(c) the number of tree branches has no relation with the number of links branches
(d) none of these
32. In open line transmission systems, attenuation is more at
(a) lower frequencies
(b) medium frequencies
(c) higher frequencies
(d) remains constant
33. a power ratio 100 is equivalent to
(a) 10 dB
(b) 20 dB
(c) 50 dB
(d) 100 dB
34. The velocity factor for small widely spaced conductors such as open wire line in air is very nearly
(a) 0.66
(b) 0.98
(c) 0.82
(d) 0.76
35. Transmission of power to a load over a transmission line achieves optimum value when standing wave ratio (SWR) becomes
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 10
36. The VSWR in a short circuited loss less transmission line equals
(a) infinity
(b) unity
(c) zero
(d) none of above
37. The velocity factor of a transmission line
(a) is always greater than unity
(b) depend upon the permittivity of the surrounding medium
(c) is lease for air medium
(d) is governed by skin effect
38. Which of the following is not correct
(a) voltage source is an active element
(b) current source is a passive element
(c) resistance is a passive element
(d) conductance is a passive element
39. A network is said to be nonlinear if it does not satisfy
(a) superposition condition
(b) homogeneity condition
(c) both superposition and homogeneity conditions
(d) associative condition
40. An capacitor with zero initial condition at t = 0+ act as a
(a) short circuit
(b) open circuit
(c) current source
(d) voltage source
41. An inductor stores energy in
(a) electrostatic field
(b) electromagnetic field
(c) magnetic field
(d) core
42. In series LCR circuits, at resonance,
(a) current is maximum, power factor is zero
(b) current is maximum, power factor is unity
(c) current is minimum, power factor is unity
(d) none of above
43. In an RCL series circuit, during resonance, the impedance will be
(a) zero
(b) minimum
(c) maximum
(d) none of above
44. When a source is delivering maximum power to load, the efficiency of the circuit is always
(a) 50%
(b) 75%
(c) 100%
(d) None of above
45. In a linear network, when the ac input is doubled, the ac output becomes
(a) two times
(b) four times
(c) half
(d) one forth
46. A passive network has
(a) current sources but no voltage sources
(b) voltage sources but no current sources
(c) both current and voltage sources
(d) no voltage or current sources
47. Two resistances are connected in parallel and each dissipates 50 waits. The total power supplied by the source is
(a) 25 watts
(b) 50 watts
(c) 100 watts
(d) 200 watts
48. Three bulbs of 60 watts each are connected is parallel across 220v, 50 Hz supply. If one bulb burns out
(a) only remaining two will operate
(b) remaining two will not operate
(c) all of three will operate
(d) there will be heavy current from the supply
49. The amplitude of an audio signal is 10 and that of carrier wave is 50. Percentage modulation is:
(a) 0.2
(b) 20
(c) 5
(d) 60
50. The main advantage of PCM system is:
(a) lower bandwidth
(b) lower power
(c) lower noise
Section A – Electrical
Number of Questions: 50
Maximum Marks: 250
Time Allowed: 90 Minutes
Negative Marking: Yes
Type of Questions: Objective Type (Multiple Choice)
SECTION (ELECTRICAL)
1. In a D.C. generator, if the brushes are given a small amount of forward shift, the effect of armature is
a. Totally demagnetizing
b. Totally magnetizing
c. Partly demagnetizing and partly cross magnetizing
d. Totally cross magnetizing
2. The air gap between stator and armature of an electric motor is kept as small as possible
a. To get a stronger magnetic field
b. to improve the air circulation
c. To reach the higher speed of rotation
d. To make the rotation easier.
3. Two series motors are coupled. One motor runs as generator and other as motor. The friction losses of the two machines will be equal when
a. Both operates at same voltage
b. Both have same back emf
c. Both have same speed
d. both have same excitation
4. Plugging of D.C. motor is normally executed by
a. Reversing the field polarity
b. Reversing the armature polarity
c. Reversing both the armature and field polarity
d. Connecting a resistance across the armature.
5. Transformer oil transformer provides
a. Insulation and cooling
b. B. Cooling and lubrication
c. Lubrication and insulation
d. Insulation, cooling and lubrication
6. Leakage fluxes of transformer may be minimized by
a. Reducing the magnetizing current to the minimum
b. Reducing the reluctance of the iron core to the minimum
c. Reducing the number of primary and secondary turn to the minimum
d. Sectionalizing and interleaving the primary and secondary windings
7. Electric power is transformed upon one coil to other coil in a transformer
a. Electrically
b. Electro Magnetically
c. Magnetically
d. Physically
8. The most suitable and economical connection for small high voltage transformer is-
a. Star- Delta connection
b. Delta- Delta connection
c. Delta- Star connection
d. Star- Star connection
9. An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at
a. Unity power factor
b. Leading power factor
c. Lagging power factor
d. Either lagging or leading power factor
10. In an A.C. machine, the armature winding is kept stationary while the field winding is kept rotating for the following rason
a. Armature handles very large currents and high voltages
b. Armature friction involving deep slots to accommodate large coils is easy if armature is kept stationary
c. Ease of cooling the stator than rotor
d. None of the above.
11. In a synchronous motor, the torque angle is the
a. Angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles
b. Angle between the magnetizing current and back emf
c. Angle between the supply voltage and back emf
d. None of the above
12. A 3-phase synchronous motor is said to be “floating” when it operates
a. On no load and without loss
b. On constantly varying load
c. On pulsating load
d. On high load and variable supply voltage
13. Speed of synchronous motor depends upon
a. Number of poles
b. Supply frequency
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
14. Imbalance in the shaft of an induction motor occurs due to
a. Slip rings
b. Overheating of winding
c. Non uniform of air gap
d. Rigid consturcion
15. Squirrel cage induction motor has
a. Zero starting torque
b. Very small starting torque
c. Medium starting torque
d. Very high starting torque
16. The principle of operation of a 3-phase induction motor is similar to that of a
a. Synchronous motor
b. Repulsion – start induction motor
c. Transformer with a shorted secondary
d. Capacitor – start, induction – run motor
17. The speed/load characteristics of a universal motor are similar to those
a. D.C. shunt motor
b. D.C. series motor
c. A.C. motor
d. None of the above
18. Single phase A.C. motor generally used for vacuum cleaners is
a. Universal motor
b. Repulsion motor
c. Hysteresis motor
d. Reluctance motor
19. Buchholz relay is used for the protection of
a. Switch yard
b. Transformers
c. Alternators
d. Transmission lines
20. The type of braking used in traction system is
a. Mechanical braking
b. Electro – pneumatic braking
c. Vacuum braking system
d. All the above
21. The function of processing zenger diode in a UJT circuit used for triggering of SCRs is to
a. Expedite the generation of triggering pulses
b. Delay the generation of triggering pulses
c. Provide a constant voltage to UJT to prevent erratic firing
d. Provide a variable voltage to UJT as the source voltage changes
22. The frequency of a ripple in the output voltage of a 3 – phase semi converter depends upon
a. Firing angle and load resistance
b. Firing angle and supply frequency
c. Firing angle and load inductance
d. Only on load circuit parameters
23. The SCR is turned off when the anode currents falls below
a. Forward current rating
b. Break – over voltage
c. Holding current
d. Latching
24. V4 characteristics of emitter of a UJT is
a. Similar to CE with linear and saturation region
b. Similar to FET with a linear and pinch of region
c. Similar to tunnel diode in some respects
d. Linear between the peak point and valley point
25. A transformer works on
a. DC
b. AC
c. AC & DC both
d. Neither AC not DC
26. Which of the following device is used in transformer?
a. Tube light
b. Electric heater
c. Mobile phone
d. Rectifier module
27. Earth electrodes can be in the form of
a. rods or piper
b. stripes
c. plates
d. any of above
28. Carbone or metal brushes are used in
a. DC generators only
b. AC generators only
c. Both AC & DC generation
d. None of above
29. Energy is lost due to Joule’s heating effects in winding of transformer. This is called
a. Copper loss
b. Eddy current loss
c. Flux loss
d. None
30. In refrigeration cycle heat is lost in
a. Cooling coil
b. Condenser
c. Compressor
d. Expansion valve
31. The power factor of AC circuit is
a. R/X
b. R/Z
c. Z/R
d. Zero
32. Silicon controlled output is good if ripple factor is
a. Switch
b. Transformer
c. Amplifier
d. None of above
33. The rectifier output is good if ripple factor is\
a. More
b. Less
c. Constant
d. None of above
34. Protective relays can monitor large AC current by means of
a. Current transformer
b. Potential transformer
c. Micro transformer
d. None of above
35. The combines AM of two similar batteries connected in parallel is:
a. halved
b. doubled
c. remain constant
d. none of above
36. The current in circuit having 5 V EMI source and 10 Ohm resistance is:
a. 2 Amp
b. 50 Amp
c. 5 Amp
d. ½ Amp
37. The chopper is a device to change
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Frequency
d. None of these
38. The power consumption, in case of centrifugal loads (like pump, fan, blower etc) is proportional to:
a. speed
b. square of speed
c. cube of speed
d. none of these
39. Which of these need to be measured after rewinding the motor:
a. no load current
b. air gap
c. winding resistance
d. all of the above
40. Five percent increase in supply frequency will change the synchronous speed of motor by:
a. -5%
b. +5%
c. -10%
d. +10%
41. Which of the following is the best inverter?
a. square wave inverter
b. sine wave inverter
c. pure sine wave inverter
d. triangular wave inverter
42. For driving a motor in a tape recorder or record player, the motor used is generally:
a. a synchronous motor
b. a hydraulic motor
c. an induction motor
d. a dc series motor
43. The DC motor starter used with a constant speed shunt motor is:
a. 2 point starter
b. 3 point starter
c. 4 point starter
d. 5 point starter
44. A commutator in a DC motor converts
a. AC to DC
b. DC to AC
c. Both AC to DC and DC to AC
d. None of these
45. Two transformers running in parallel will share the load according to their:
a. leakage reactance
b. pu impedance
c. efficiency
d. rating
46. The size of the Earth Wire is determined by:
a. the ampere capacity of the service wires
b. the atmospheric conditions
c. the voltage of service wires
d. none of these
47. The function of lightning arrester is:
a. to limit the short circuit fault current
b. to provide path to high voltage surge to earth
c. to reduce arcing
d. none of these
48. Surge protector provide:
a. high impedance to normal voltage
b. low impedance to surge
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of these
49. Earthing is necessary to give protection against
a. voltage fluctuation
b. overloading
c. danger of electric shock
d. high temperature of conductors
50. The primary function of fuse is to
a. protect the appliance
b. open the circuit
c. prevent excessive current
d. protect the line
Section C – Network Filters and Transmission Lines
Number of Questions: 50
Maximum Marks: 250
Section (Network Filters and Transmission Lines)
1. Pick up wrong statement
(a) A group of interconnected individual components known as circuit elements is called a network.
(b) A humped network is an arrangement of physically separate resistors, inductors and capacitors.
(c) Distributed network is one, which the resistive, inductive and capacitive effects are inseparable for network analyses.
(d) A branch is a network having four elements.
2. Kirchoff’s laws for networks are:
(a) The algebraic sum of branch currents meeting at any node is zero.
(b) The algebric sum of voltage drops in any set of branches forming a closed circuit or loop must be equal to zero.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) and (b)
3. Mutually coupled circuit is a circuit which is:
(a) Bilateral
(b) Unilateral
(c) None of these
(d) Either (a) or (b)
4. Duality is a
(a) Transformation in which current and voltages are interchanged
(b) Active sources become passive sources
(c) Passive sources become active sources
(d) Both (b) and (c)
5. Combined inductance of two inductors L1 and L2 connected and voltages are interchanged
(a) L1 + L2
(b) (L1 + L2)/ L1
(c) (L1 + L2) / (L1 X L2)
(d) (L1 X L2) / (L1 + L2)
6. Normal analysis techniques are based on
(a) Thevenin’s theorem
(b) Tellegan’s theorem
(c) Superposition theorem
(d) Kirchoff’s Law
7. Two voltage sources can be connected in parallel when they are equal in
(a) Magnitude
(b) Frequency
(c) Phase
(d) All the above
8. The kirchoff’s law fail in
(a) Linear circuits
(b) Non-linear circuits
(c) Lumped parameter circuits
(d) Distributed parameter circuits
9. Which of the following is a nonreciprocal network ?
(a) A network consisting of all resistances
(b) A network consisting of all capacitances
(c) A network consisting of all inductances
(d) A transistor model
10. When two systems obey equations of the same form the systems are said to be
(a) Similar system
(b) Identical system
(c) Analogous system
(d) Digital system
11. For a highly selective circuit
(a) It must have large value of Q
(b) It must have high value of capacitance to produce resonance at fixed frequency
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
12. A network consisting of four terminals is called a
(a) One port network
(b) Two port network
(c) Four port network
(d) None of the above
13. Driving point of a network is
(a) A port where voltage or current source is connected
(b) A terminal where load is connected
(c) A port where load is connected
(d) None of the above
14. Ceramic filters are similar in construction to
(a) Crystal filters
(b) Crystal ladder filters
(c) Crystal lattice
(d) Mechanical filters
15. When two port networks are connected in parallel the resultant
(a) Z parameters are the some of individual parameters
(b) Y- parameters are the some of individual parameters
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
16. Electric wave filters
(a) Allow electric signals with specified frequency range
(b) Suppress signals outside a specified range
(c) Both (a) and (b) occurs simultaneously
(d) Either (a) or (b) occur at a time
17. A cascade connection of low pass filter and high pass filter is called
(a) Band pass filter
(b) Band elimination filter
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
18. The response of a network is decided by the location of
(a) Its poles
(b) Its zeros
(c) Either (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
19. Example of two port network is
(a) Transformer
(b) Transmission line
(c) Bridge circuit and transistor circuit
(d) All of the above
20. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is called
(a) Universal circuit
(b) Reversible circuit
(c) Unilateral circuit
(d) Bilateral circuit
21. Distortion in transmission line is due to
(a) Delay distortion
(b) Phase distortion
(c) Frequency distortion
(d) All the above
22. The general parameters distributed along a transmission line are
(a) R&L only
(b) L&C only
(c) C&G only
(d) R, L, C&G
23. Phase distortion is prominently caused by
(a) circuit transients
(b) non linear characteristics
(c) linearity
(d) none
24. The voltage or current from the receiving end towards the sending end, decreasing in amplitude with increasing distance from the load is called
(a) incident wave
(b) medium wave
(c) reflected wave
(d) none of above
25. E.M. Waves of UHF is propagated efficiently via
(a) parallel wire transmission lines
(b) open wire transmission lines
(c) wave guides
(d) coaxial cables
26. Norton theorem is valid for network containing only
(a) linear elements
(b) no linear elements
(c) resistance
(d) reactance
27. The maximum power is absorbed by one network from other, joined to it at two terminals when the impedance of one is
(a) complex conjugate of other
(b) square root of other
(c) same as other
(d) none of above
28. The decrease in effective conductor cross section at high frequencies
(a) decrease the conductor resistance
(b) increase the conductor resistance
(c) no change in conductor resistance
(d) none of above
29. Voltage standing wave ratio lies in the range
(a) 0 to 1
(b) 1 to infinity
(c) 0 to infinity
(d) -1 to +1
30. Attenuators have applications
(a) in AC circuits only
(b) in DC circuits only
(c) in AC as well DC circuits
(d) in low frequency circuits only
31. In an network
(a) the number of tree branches is equal to the number of links
(b) the number of tree branches cannot be equal to the number of links
(c) the number of tree branches has no relation with the number of links branches
(d) none of these
32. In open line transmission systems, attenuation is more at
(a) lower frequencies
(b) medium frequencies
(c) higher frequencies
(d) remains constant
33. a power ratio 100 is equivalent to
(a) 10 dB
(b) 20 dB
(c) 50 dB
(d) 100 dB
34. The velocity factor for small widely spaced conductors such as open wire line in air is very nearly
(a) 0.66
(b) 0.98
(c) 0.82
(d) 0.76
35. Transmission of power to a load over a transmission line achieves optimum value when standing wave ratio (SWR) becomes
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 10
36. The VSWR in a short circuited loss less transmission line equals
(a) infinity
(b) unity
(c) zero
(d) none of above
37. The velocity factor of a transmission line
(a) is always greater than unity
(b) depend upon the permittivity of the surrounding medium
(c) is lease for air medium
(d) is governed by skin effect
38. Which of the following is not correct
(a) voltage source is an active element
(b) current source is a passive element
(c) resistance is a passive element
(d) conductance is a passive element
39. A network is said to be nonlinear if it does not satisfy
(a) superposition condition
(b) homogeneity condition
(c) both superposition and homogeneity conditions
(d) associative condition
40. An capacitor with zero initial condition at t = 0+ act as a
(a) short circuit
(b) open circuit
(c) current source
(d) voltage source
41. An inductor stores energy in
(a) electrostatic field
(b) electromagnetic field
(c) magnetic field
(d) core
42. In series LCR circuits, at resonance,
(a) current is maximum, power factor is zero
(b) current is maximum, power factor is unity
(c) current is minimum, power factor is unity
(d) none of above
43. In an RCL series circuit, during resonance, the impedance will be
(a) zero
(b) minimum
(c) maximum
(d) none of above
44. When a source is delivering maximum power to load, the efficiency of the circuit is always
(a) 50%
(b) 75%
(c) 100%
(d) None of above
45. In a linear network, when the ac input is doubled, the ac output becomes
(a) two times
(b) four times
(c) half
(d) one forth
46. A passive network has
(a) current sources but no voltage sources
(b) voltage sources but no current sources
(c) both current and voltage sources
(d) no voltage or current sources
47. Two resistances are connected in parallel and each dissipates 50 waits. The total power supplied by the source is
(a) 25 watts
(b) 50 watts
(c) 100 watts
(d) 200 watts
48. Three bulbs of 60 watts each are connected is parallel across 220v, 50 Hz supply. If one bulb burns out
(a) only remaining two will operate
(b) remaining two will not operate
(c) all of three will operate
(d) there will be heavy current from the supply
49. The amplitude of an audio signal is 10 and that of carrier wave is 50. Percentage modulation is:
(a) 0.2
(b) 20
(c) 5
(d) 60
50. The main advantage of PCM system is:
(a) lower bandwidth
(b) lower power
(c) lower noise
Saturday, June 5, 2010
AP GENCO JAO SYLLABUS
AP GENCO SYLLABUS FOR THE COMPETITIVE TEST FOR THE RECRUITMENT OF
JUNIOR ACCOUNTS OFFICER
PART-A (ACCOUNTANCY INCLUDING ADVANCED ACCOUNTANCY)
1. Basic concepts and conventions – Accounting process up to and including preparation
of Final Accounts.
2. Bank Reconciliation
3. Bills of Exchange
4. Errors and their rectification
5. Consignments
6. Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves
7. Self-balancing ledgers
8. Royalties, Hire Purchase and Installment systems
9. Accounts from incomplete records
10. Accounts of Non-Trading concerns
11. Partnership Accounts (including Admission, Retirement, death and dissolution)
12. Branch Accounts
13. Company Accounts – issue and forfeiture of shares and debentures – redemption of
debentures – bonus shares – Final Accounts
14. Amalgamation, Absorption and Reconstruction
15. Valuation of goodwill and shares
16. Ratio Analysis
17. Accounting standards
18. Financial Statement Analysis
19. Working Capital
20. Funds Flow and Cash flow
PART-B (COST ACCOUNTING)
1. Fundamentals
2. Materials
3. Labour Costs
4. Overheads
5. Methods of costing
a. Unit or output costing
b. Job and contract costing
c. Operating Costing
d. Process costing
6. Marginal Costing
7. Standard Costing and Variance analysis
8. Budgetary control
PART-C(AUDITING)
1. Fundamentals
2. Internal Check and Control
3. Vouching and Verification
4. Audit of Companies
5. Divisible Profits
6. Audit and Investigation
The test is of two hours duration. The test will be objective type with multiple choice questions with only one answer being
correct among the four alternatives suggested.
A separate OMR (Optical Mark Reader) answer sheet will be provided to the candidates.
The candidate has to indicate his answer to each question by darkeing the appropriate bubble with a HB pencil.
JUNIOR ACCOUNTS OFFICER
PART-A (ACCOUNTANCY INCLUDING ADVANCED ACCOUNTANCY)
1. Basic concepts and conventions – Accounting process up to and including preparation
of Final Accounts.
2. Bank Reconciliation
3. Bills of Exchange
4. Errors and their rectification
5. Consignments
6. Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves
7. Self-balancing ledgers
8. Royalties, Hire Purchase and Installment systems
9. Accounts from incomplete records
10. Accounts of Non-Trading concerns
11. Partnership Accounts (including Admission, Retirement, death and dissolution)
12. Branch Accounts
13. Company Accounts – issue and forfeiture of shares and debentures – redemption of
debentures – bonus shares – Final Accounts
14. Amalgamation, Absorption and Reconstruction
15. Valuation of goodwill and shares
16. Ratio Analysis
17. Accounting standards
18. Financial Statement Analysis
19. Working Capital
20. Funds Flow and Cash flow
PART-B (COST ACCOUNTING)
1. Fundamentals
2. Materials
3. Labour Costs
4. Overheads
5. Methods of costing
a. Unit or output costing
b. Job and contract costing
c. Operating Costing
d. Process costing
6. Marginal Costing
7. Standard Costing and Variance analysis
8. Budgetary control
PART-C(AUDITING)
1. Fundamentals
2. Internal Check and Control
3. Vouching and Verification
4. Audit of Companies
5. Divisible Profits
6. Audit and Investigation
The test is of two hours duration. The test will be objective type with multiple choice questions with only one answer being
correct among the four alternatives suggested.
A separate OMR (Optical Mark Reader) answer sheet will be provided to the candidates.
The candidate has to indicate his answer to each question by darkeing the appropriate bubble with a HB pencil.
AP TRANSCO A.E. (ELECTRICAL ENGG.) PAPER-2010
TRANSMISSION CORPORATION OF ANDHRA PRADESH LIMITED
Memory based Question paper
For Electrical Engineering (A.E-2010)
Note: If Answer contains * means Answer is may be correct but not sure,
1. Mho relay is usually employed for the protection of
a) Short lines only
b) Medium lines only
c) Long lines only
d) Any line
Ans: Long lines only
2. A modern power semiconductor device IGBT is combines the characteristics of
a) BJT and MOSFET
b) FCT and GTO
c) SCR and MOSFET
d) SCR and BJT
Ans: BJT and MOSFET
3. For a single-phase a.c. to d.c. controlled rectifier to operate in regenerative mode, which of the following conditions should be satisfied?
a) Half –controlled bridge, α less than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
b) Half-controlled bridge, α greater than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
c) Full-controlled bridge, α greater than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
d) Full-controlled bridge, α less than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
Ans: Full-controlled bridge, α greater than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
4. Which is the most suitable power device for high frequency ( more 100 kHz) switching application?
a) Power MOSFET
b) BJT
c) SCR
d) UJT
Ans: Power MOSFET
5. In a thyristor Latching current is ________ than Holding current
a) Equal
b) Less
c) Greater
d) None
Ans: Greater
6. The transfer function of a system is 10/(1+s) when operating as a unity feedback system, the steady state error to a step input will be
a) 0
b) 1/11
c) 10
d) Infinity
Ans: 1/11
7. Which one of the following statements for a dc machine which is provided with inter pole winding (IW) as well as compensating winding (CW) is correct
a) Both IW and CW are connected in series with Armature winding
b) Both IW and CW are connected in parallel with Armature winding
c) IW connected in series but CW is connected in parallel with Armature winding
d) CW connected in series but IW is connected in parallel with Armature winding
Ans: Both IW and CW are connected in series with Armature winding
8. A 0-10 mA PMMC ammeter reads 5mA in a circuit; its bottom control spring snaps out suddenly the meter will now read.
a) 5mA
b) 10mA
c) 2.5mA
d) 0
Ans: 0
9. A dc cumulatively compounded motor delivers rated load torque at rated speed. If series field is short circuited, then the armature current and speed will
a) Both increases
b) Both decreases
c) Increases and decreases
d) Decreases and increases
Ans: Both increases
10. Moving coil in dynamometer wattmeter connected
a) In series with fixed coil
b) Across supply
c) In series with load
d) Across load
Ans: Across supply
11. In an induction machine, if the air gap increased
a) Speed will be reduced
b) Efficiency will be improved
c) Power factor will be lowered
d) Breakdown torque will be reduced
Ans: Power factor will be lowered
12. A CRO screen has ten divisions on the horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin 314t+45 deg)is examined with a line base settings of 5 msec/div, the number of cycles of signal displayed on the screen will be
a) 0.5 cycles
b) 2.5 cycles
c) 5 cycles
d) 10 cycles
Ans: 2.5 cycles
13. A 3-phase 50HZ SCIM takes a power input of 30 KW at its full load speed of 1440 rpm. Total stator losses are 1 KW. The slip and rotor ohmic losses at full load are
a) 0.02, 600 W
b) 0.04, 580 W
c) 0.04, 1160 W
d) 0.04, 1200 W
Ans: 0.04, 1160 W
14. Thermocouple is used to measure
a) AC
b) DC
c) Both
d) None
Ans: Both
15. The two watt meters measurement the ratio of two meter readings is –(1-sqrt3):( 1+sqrt3) then the power factor is
a) 1
b) 0.866
c) 0.707
d) 0
Ans: 0.707
16. Hays bridge is used to measure___________ and Schering bridge is used to measure____________
a) Inductance, Inductance
b) Inductance, Capacitance
c) Capacitance, Inductance
d) Resistance, Capacitance
Ans: Inductance, Capacitance
17. When sine wave is given as input to Schmitt trigger then its generates
a) Sine wave
b) Saw tooth wave
c) Triangle wave
d) Square wave
Ans: Square wave
18. In Gauss Seidel method the following factors are influenced for operation
a) Acceleration factor
b) Selection of slack buss
c) Both
d) None
Ans: Selection of slack buss*
19.
i. (X’+Y’) A. Low-pass filter function
ii. (X’Y’) B. Sum
iii. (XY) C. NAND
D. Carry
E.NOR
a) i-C, ii-E, iii-D
b) i-C, ii-E, iii-B
c) i-C, ii-B, iii-D
d) i-C, ii-E, iii-A
Ans: i-C, ii-E, iii-D
20. The phase lead compensation is used to
a) Increase rise time and decrease overshoot
b) Decrease both rise time and overshoot
c) Increase both rise time and overshoot
d) Decrease rise time and increase overshoot
Ans: Decrease rise time and increase overshoot
21. Voltage feed back amplifier is a
a) Shunt-Shunt
b) Shunt-Series
c) Series-Shunt
d) Series- Series
Ans: Shunt-Shunt
22. In microprocessor the next instruction to be executed is stored in
a) Program Counter
b) Stack Pointer
c) Memory Pointer
d) Accumulator
Ans: Program Counter
23. The following element retains it energy after source is disconnected
a) Resister
b) Inductor
c) Capacitor
d) Thermistor
Ans:
24. In series RLC circuit at resonant
a) Voltage is in phase with current
b) Current is maximum
c) Inductive reactance = Capacitive reactance
d) All of the above
Ans: All of the above
25.For RC low pass filter R=100 K ohms, C= 5 micro farads then lower cutt of frequency is
a) 1 K HZ
b) 0 HZ
c) 381.3 HZ
d) Infinity
Ans:
26. V=100Sin (1000t+46 deg), I=2Sin (1000t+80 deg) what are the elements in the circuit
a) R=30 ohm, L=30 mH
b) R=30 ohm, C=33.3 micro farads
c) R=40 ohm, L=30 mH
d) R=40 ohm, L=33.3 micro farads
Ans: R=40 ohm, L=33.3 micro farads
27. L=10 mH, I=100Sin50t 0 less than t less than ∏/50 find power
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ans:
28. In dielectric measurement, the dielectric loss is proportional to
a) F
b) V
c) I
d) Vsqr
Ans: Vsqr
29. G(s) = (1-s)/s(s+2) then closed loop transfer function is
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Marginally stable
d) All
Ans: Stable
30. G(s) = (1+0.5s)/(1+s) find which type of net work it is
a) Lead net work
b) Lag net work
c) Lag - Lead net work
d) Lead - Lag net work
Ans: Lag net work
31. Temperature of electrode in Arc furnace is
a) 1000 deg
b) 1500 deg
c) 1500 deg to 3500 deg
d) 4500 deg
Ans:
32. In bode plot the point which separates the lower and upper frequencies is called
a) Critical point
b) Cut-off point
c)
d)
Ans:
33. Nyquest stability is used to determine
a) Absolute Stability
b) Relative Stability
c) Both
d) None
Ans: Both*
34. When 220V dc shunt machine generating the voltage at rated value. If direction of rotation is reversed, then machine will
a) Build up its voltage with same polarity
b) Build up its voltage with opposite polarity
c) No build up of voltage
d) None
Ans: No build up of voltage
35. Over lap Angle depends on_________
a) Load inductance
b) Loa capacitance
c) Source inductance
d) Source capacitance
Ans: Source inductance
36. Area under speed time curve gives
a) Time
b) Speed
c) Distance
d) None
Ans: Distance
37. The regulation of Short Transmission lines depends up on
a) Distance of line
b) Frequency
c) Power factor
d) All
Ans: Power factor
38. Which of the following plant is having lowest load factor?
a) Diesel Plant
b) Pumped storage Plant
c) Thermal Plant
d) Nuclear Plant
Ans: Diesel Plan
39. For SR latch whent the out put is undesirable
a) 0, 0
b) 1, 0
c) 0, 1
d) 1, 1
Ans: 1, 1
40. For interrupting capacitive currents which Circuit Breaker (CB) is used
a) SF6 CB
b) Oil CB
c) Vacuum CB
d) Air blast CB
Ans: Vacuum CB
41. For V/F control, when frequency is increased in transformer
a) Core loss component current increases, Magnetizing component current decreases
b) Core loss component current increases, Magnetizing component current increases
c) Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current decreases
d) Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current increases
Ans: Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current decreases
42. In ceiling fan the angle between auxiliary winding a main winding is
a) 0 deg
b) 90 deg
c) 180 deg
d) 360 deg
Ans: 90 deg
43. In a shaded pole motor, shaded rings are used to
a) Field flux production
b)
c)
d)
Ans: Field flux production
44. Practical method of improving string efficiency
a) Increasing crass arms length
b) Using different size of insulators
c) Using different insulator materials
d) Using of guard rings
Ans: Increasing crass arms length*
45. In which type of fault all 3-phase components are equal
a) L-G
b) L-L
c) L-L-G
d) 3-Phase fault
Ans: 3-Phase fault
46. 11/220 KV 100 MVA transformers, the primary base voltage rating is 10 KV then secondary base KV is
a) 10 KV
b) 220 KV
c) 220/sqrt3
d)
Ans: 220/sqrt3*
47. Water hamming effect is occurs in
a) Surge tank
b) Penstock
c) Turbine
d) Reservoir
Ans: Penstock
48. Transient stability can be improved by
a) By putting series capacitor
b) By using dynamic resister
c) Auto re-closers
d) All of the above
Ans: All of the above
49. If sending end voltage is Vs at no-load in a transmission line then receiving end voltage is if ABCD parameters of line is given
a) Vs
b) Vs/A
c) 0
d) Infinity
Ans: Vs/A
50. Harmonics are eliminated by using
a) Skewing of rotor
b) Distribution winding
c) Short pitch winding
d) All of the above
Ans: All of the above
51. For parallel operation of transformer at no load, then load shared are equal when
a) Impedance is proportional with respect to own KVA rating
b)
c)
d)
Ans: Impedance is proportional with respect to own KVA rating
52. In Induction motor Slip frequency of rotor current, when rotor speed is Nr. Then rotor producing slip field rotates with respect to stator is
a) Slip frequency
b) Nr
c) Ns
d) None
Ans: Ns
53. Good regulation means
a) Less fluctuations from no-load to full-load
b)
c)
d)
Ans: Less fluctuation from no-load to full-load
54. At dead short circuit at terminals of Alternator then the current I is
a) ZPF Lag
b) ZPF lead
c) Unity power factor
d) 0.8 Power factor lag
Ans: ZPF Lag
55. Full scale Ammeter reading is 10 mA, Voltage across Ammeter is 100 mV. Then for 100 A measurements the power loss in the circuit is
a) 1 W
b) 10 W
c) 100 W
d) 1000 W
Ans: 10 W*
56. When Alternator excitation increases and machine is operating at lagging power factor then
a) I increase
b) I decreases
c) No effect on current
d) None
Ans: I increase
57. Flue gases coming out from furnace is first going through
a) Turbine
b) Economizer
c) Air pre-heater
d) Chimney
Ans: Economizer
58. Two alternators rated are 200 KW at 4% regulation, 400 KW 5% regulation operating in parallel at 50HZ , when supply 600 KW the new frequency is
a) 50
b) 49
c) 51.3
d) 47.7
Ans: 47.7
59. Va and Vb are negative sequence component voltages the difference angle between Va and Vb with respect to Va is
a) 240
b) 120
c) 180
d) 360
Ans: 120
60. 4-Quadrent operation of chopper I is positive but V is may be positive are negative operates in which quadrant
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4
Ans: 1 and 4
61. Heat convection, radiation, and conduction all are takes place in
a) Ice
b) Boiler
c) Refrigerator
d) Flue gases in pipe
Ans:
62. When moving iron meter is used to measure d.c current what is the disadvantage
a) It calibration in rms value
b)
c)
d)
Ans:
63. When maximum power transfer to load is
Memory based Question paper
For Electrical Engineering (A.E-2010)
Note: If Answer contains * means Answer is may be correct but not sure,
1. Mho relay is usually employed for the protection of
a) Short lines only
b) Medium lines only
c) Long lines only
d) Any line
Ans: Long lines only
2. A modern power semiconductor device IGBT is combines the characteristics of
a) BJT and MOSFET
b) FCT and GTO
c) SCR and MOSFET
d) SCR and BJT
Ans: BJT and MOSFET
3. For a single-phase a.c. to d.c. controlled rectifier to operate in regenerative mode, which of the following conditions should be satisfied?
a) Half –controlled bridge, α less than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
b) Half-controlled bridge, α greater than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
c) Full-controlled bridge, α greater than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
d) Full-controlled bridge, α less than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
Ans: Full-controlled bridge, α greater than 90°, source of e.m.f. in load
4. Which is the most suitable power device for high frequency ( more 100 kHz) switching application?
a) Power MOSFET
b) BJT
c) SCR
d) UJT
Ans: Power MOSFET
5. In a thyristor Latching current is ________ than Holding current
a) Equal
b) Less
c) Greater
d) None
Ans: Greater
6. The transfer function of a system is 10/(1+s) when operating as a unity feedback system, the steady state error to a step input will be
a) 0
b) 1/11
c) 10
d) Infinity
Ans: 1/11
7. Which one of the following statements for a dc machine which is provided with inter pole winding (IW) as well as compensating winding (CW) is correct
a) Both IW and CW are connected in series with Armature winding
b) Both IW and CW are connected in parallel with Armature winding
c) IW connected in series but CW is connected in parallel with Armature winding
d) CW connected in series but IW is connected in parallel with Armature winding
Ans: Both IW and CW are connected in series with Armature winding
8. A 0-10 mA PMMC ammeter reads 5mA in a circuit; its bottom control spring snaps out suddenly the meter will now read.
a) 5mA
b) 10mA
c) 2.5mA
d) 0
Ans: 0
9. A dc cumulatively compounded motor delivers rated load torque at rated speed. If series field is short circuited, then the armature current and speed will
a) Both increases
b) Both decreases
c) Increases and decreases
d) Decreases and increases
Ans: Both increases
10. Moving coil in dynamometer wattmeter connected
a) In series with fixed coil
b) Across supply
c) In series with load
d) Across load
Ans: Across supply
11. In an induction machine, if the air gap increased
a) Speed will be reduced
b) Efficiency will be improved
c) Power factor will be lowered
d) Breakdown torque will be reduced
Ans: Power factor will be lowered
12. A CRO screen has ten divisions on the horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin 314t+45 deg)is examined with a line base settings of 5 msec/div, the number of cycles of signal displayed on the screen will be
a) 0.5 cycles
b) 2.5 cycles
c) 5 cycles
d) 10 cycles
Ans: 2.5 cycles
13. A 3-phase 50HZ SCIM takes a power input of 30 KW at its full load speed of 1440 rpm. Total stator losses are 1 KW. The slip and rotor ohmic losses at full load are
a) 0.02, 600 W
b) 0.04, 580 W
c) 0.04, 1160 W
d) 0.04, 1200 W
Ans: 0.04, 1160 W
14. Thermocouple is used to measure
a) AC
b) DC
c) Both
d) None
Ans: Both
15. The two watt meters measurement the ratio of two meter readings is –(1-sqrt3):( 1+sqrt3) then the power factor is
a) 1
b) 0.866
c) 0.707
d) 0
Ans: 0.707
16. Hays bridge is used to measure___________ and Schering bridge is used to measure____________
a) Inductance, Inductance
b) Inductance, Capacitance
c) Capacitance, Inductance
d) Resistance, Capacitance
Ans: Inductance, Capacitance
17. When sine wave is given as input to Schmitt trigger then its generates
a) Sine wave
b) Saw tooth wave
c) Triangle wave
d) Square wave
Ans: Square wave
18. In Gauss Seidel method the following factors are influenced for operation
a) Acceleration factor
b) Selection of slack buss
c) Both
d) None
Ans: Selection of slack buss*
19.
i. (X’+Y’) A. Low-pass filter function
ii. (X’Y’) B. Sum
iii. (XY) C. NAND
D. Carry
E.NOR
a) i-C, ii-E, iii-D
b) i-C, ii-E, iii-B
c) i-C, ii-B, iii-D
d) i-C, ii-E, iii-A
Ans: i-C, ii-E, iii-D
20. The phase lead compensation is used to
a) Increase rise time and decrease overshoot
b) Decrease both rise time and overshoot
c) Increase both rise time and overshoot
d) Decrease rise time and increase overshoot
Ans: Decrease rise time and increase overshoot
21. Voltage feed back amplifier is a
a) Shunt-Shunt
b) Shunt-Series
c) Series-Shunt
d) Series- Series
Ans: Shunt-Shunt
22. In microprocessor the next instruction to be executed is stored in
a) Program Counter
b) Stack Pointer
c) Memory Pointer
d) Accumulator
Ans: Program Counter
23. The following element retains it energy after source is disconnected
a) Resister
b) Inductor
c) Capacitor
d) Thermistor
Ans:
24. In series RLC circuit at resonant
a) Voltage is in phase with current
b) Current is maximum
c) Inductive reactance = Capacitive reactance
d) All of the above
Ans: All of the above
25.For RC low pass filter R=100 K ohms, C= 5 micro farads then lower cutt of frequency is
a) 1 K HZ
b) 0 HZ
c) 381.3 HZ
d) Infinity
Ans:
26. V=100Sin (1000t+46 deg), I=2Sin (1000t+80 deg) what are the elements in the circuit
a) R=30 ohm, L=30 mH
b) R=30 ohm, C=33.3 micro farads
c) R=40 ohm, L=30 mH
d) R=40 ohm, L=33.3 micro farads
Ans: R=40 ohm, L=33.3 micro farads
27. L=10 mH, I=100Sin50t 0 less than t less than ∏/50 find power
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ans:
28. In dielectric measurement, the dielectric loss is proportional to
a) F
b) V
c) I
d) Vsqr
Ans: Vsqr
29. G(s) = (1-s)/s(s+2) then closed loop transfer function is
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Marginally stable
d) All
Ans: Stable
30. G(s) = (1+0.5s)/(1+s) find which type of net work it is
a) Lead net work
b) Lag net work
c) Lag - Lead net work
d) Lead - Lag net work
Ans: Lag net work
31. Temperature of electrode in Arc furnace is
a) 1000 deg
b) 1500 deg
c) 1500 deg to 3500 deg
d) 4500 deg
Ans:
32. In bode plot the point which separates the lower and upper frequencies is called
a) Critical point
b) Cut-off point
c)
d)
Ans:
33. Nyquest stability is used to determine
a) Absolute Stability
b) Relative Stability
c) Both
d) None
Ans: Both*
34. When 220V dc shunt machine generating the voltage at rated value. If direction of rotation is reversed, then machine will
a) Build up its voltage with same polarity
b) Build up its voltage with opposite polarity
c) No build up of voltage
d) None
Ans: No build up of voltage
35. Over lap Angle depends on_________
a) Load inductance
b) Loa capacitance
c) Source inductance
d) Source capacitance
Ans: Source inductance
36. Area under speed time curve gives
a) Time
b) Speed
c) Distance
d) None
Ans: Distance
37. The regulation of Short Transmission lines depends up on
a) Distance of line
b) Frequency
c) Power factor
d) All
Ans: Power factor
38. Which of the following plant is having lowest load factor?
a) Diesel Plant
b) Pumped storage Plant
c) Thermal Plant
d) Nuclear Plant
Ans: Diesel Plan
39. For SR latch whent the out put is undesirable
a) 0, 0
b) 1, 0
c) 0, 1
d) 1, 1
Ans: 1, 1
40. For interrupting capacitive currents which Circuit Breaker (CB) is used
a) SF6 CB
b) Oil CB
c) Vacuum CB
d) Air blast CB
Ans: Vacuum CB
41. For V/F control, when frequency is increased in transformer
a) Core loss component current increases, Magnetizing component current decreases
b) Core loss component current increases, Magnetizing component current increases
c) Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current decreases
d) Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current increases
Ans: Core loss component current decreases, Magnetizing component current decreases
42. In ceiling fan the angle between auxiliary winding a main winding is
a) 0 deg
b) 90 deg
c) 180 deg
d) 360 deg
Ans: 90 deg
43. In a shaded pole motor, shaded rings are used to
a) Field flux production
b)
c)
d)
Ans: Field flux production
44. Practical method of improving string efficiency
a) Increasing crass arms length
b) Using different size of insulators
c) Using different insulator materials
d) Using of guard rings
Ans: Increasing crass arms length*
45. In which type of fault all 3-phase components are equal
a) L-G
b) L-L
c) L-L-G
d) 3-Phase fault
Ans: 3-Phase fault
46. 11/220 KV 100 MVA transformers, the primary base voltage rating is 10 KV then secondary base KV is
a) 10 KV
b) 220 KV
c) 220/sqrt3
d)
Ans: 220/sqrt3*
47. Water hamming effect is occurs in
a) Surge tank
b) Penstock
c) Turbine
d) Reservoir
Ans: Penstock
48. Transient stability can be improved by
a) By putting series capacitor
b) By using dynamic resister
c) Auto re-closers
d) All of the above
Ans: All of the above
49. If sending end voltage is Vs at no-load in a transmission line then receiving end voltage is if ABCD parameters of line is given
a) Vs
b) Vs/A
c) 0
d) Infinity
Ans: Vs/A
50. Harmonics are eliminated by using
a) Skewing of rotor
b) Distribution winding
c) Short pitch winding
d) All of the above
Ans: All of the above
51. For parallel operation of transformer at no load, then load shared are equal when
a) Impedance is proportional with respect to own KVA rating
b)
c)
d)
Ans: Impedance is proportional with respect to own KVA rating
52. In Induction motor Slip frequency of rotor current, when rotor speed is Nr. Then rotor producing slip field rotates with respect to stator is
a) Slip frequency
b) Nr
c) Ns
d) None
Ans: Ns
53. Good regulation means
a) Less fluctuations from no-load to full-load
b)
c)
d)
Ans: Less fluctuation from no-load to full-load
54. At dead short circuit at terminals of Alternator then the current I is
a) ZPF Lag
b) ZPF lead
c) Unity power factor
d) 0.8 Power factor lag
Ans: ZPF Lag
55. Full scale Ammeter reading is 10 mA, Voltage across Ammeter is 100 mV. Then for 100 A measurements the power loss in the circuit is
a) 1 W
b) 10 W
c) 100 W
d) 1000 W
Ans: 10 W*
56. When Alternator excitation increases and machine is operating at lagging power factor then
a) I increase
b) I decreases
c) No effect on current
d) None
Ans: I increase
57. Flue gases coming out from furnace is first going through
a) Turbine
b) Economizer
c) Air pre-heater
d) Chimney
Ans: Economizer
58. Two alternators rated are 200 KW at 4% regulation, 400 KW 5% regulation operating in parallel at 50HZ , when supply 600 KW the new frequency is
a) 50
b) 49
c) 51.3
d) 47.7
Ans: 47.7
59. Va and Vb are negative sequence component voltages the difference angle between Va and Vb with respect to Va is
a) 240
b) 120
c) 180
d) 360
Ans: 120
60. 4-Quadrent operation of chopper I is positive but V is may be positive are negative operates in which quadrant
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4
Ans: 1 and 4
61. Heat convection, radiation, and conduction all are takes place in
a) Ice
b) Boiler
c) Refrigerator
d) Flue gases in pipe
Ans:
62. When moving iron meter is used to measure d.c current what is the disadvantage
a) It calibration in rms value
b)
c)
d)
Ans:
63. When maximum power transfer to load is
a) 20 W
b) 50 W
c) 100W
d) 0W
Ans: 0W
64. Find Zbus Parameters
a) Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohmb)
c)
d)
Ans: Z11=Z12=Z21= j0.1 ohm, Z22=j0.3 ohm
65. Find Z11 and Z12
a) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 2 ohmb) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 5 ohm
c) Z11=5 ohm, Z12= 2 ohm
d) Z11=4 ohm, Z12= 3 ohm
Ans:
66. Current in 5 ohm resister is
a) 10 A
b) -10 A
c) 5 A
d) -5 A
Ans: -10 A
67. Find I in the circuit at t=0+
a) 2 A
b) 5 A
c) 7 A
d) 10 A
Ans:
68. Find voltage across inductor at t=0+
a) 0 V
b) 2.5 V
c) 5 V
d) 10 V
Ans: 5 V
69. This wave is applied to the PMMC meter, meter reads
a) 0 V
b) 3 V
c) 2 V
d) 1 V
Ans: 1 V
70. Find Vab
a) Zero
b) 50 at an angle of 90 deg
c) 50 at an angle of 90 deg
d) None
Ans:
71. Find E in the circuit
a) 5 V
b) 10 V
c) 20 V
d) None
Ans: None
72. Vab is reference then angle between Vab and Ib is
a) -15 deg
b) 240 deg
c) 180 deg
d) -45 deg
Ans: -15 deg*
ECIL GET EXAM PAPER
Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL)
Memory based Question paper
For Electrical Engineering
Note: If Answer contains * means Answer is may be correct but not sure,
1. Transformer core are laminated for what purpose?
a)Reduce copper losses
b)Reduce iron losses
c)Reduce eddy current losses
d)Reduce hysteresis losses
Ans: Reduce eddy current losses
2.240V 1-phase 50Hz 10A, 0.8 pf lag energy meter, Revolution/kwh=400 then find speed of the disk in rpm
a)12.8
b)21.1
c)18.1
d)19.2
Ans:12.8
3.1-phase AC supply is given to the ___________in he single phase induction motor
a)Stator
b)Rotor
c)Both
d)None
Ans:Stator
4.Synchronous motor operated at leading pf when
a)Under exited
b)Over exited
c)Normal exited
d)None
Ans:Over exited
5.CMRR=100 dB, Differential mode gain=10 power 4 then find Common mode gain
a)10
b)0.1
c)1
d)10 power 5
Ans:0.1
6.3-phase, 50 Hz 6 pole synchronous motor rotate at
a)1000 rmp
b)1500 rpm
c)1800 rpm
d)3600 rpm
Ans:1000 rpm
7.Nr=727.5 rpm for 3-phase 50 Hz 8 pole induction motor find rotor frequency
a)1.5 Hz
b)50 Hz
c)75 Hz
d)60 Hz
Ans:1.5 Hz
8.3-phase rectifier ripple frequency is_________ if supply frequency is 50 Hz
a)50 Hz
b)100 Hz
c)150 Hz
d)300 Hz
Ans:300 Hz
9.18/9+8-2*5=________ in C
a)0
b)9
c)5
d)7
Ans:0
10.find K G(s)=K/s(s power 2+s+2)(s+3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ans:
11.Find critically damped system
a)1/(S power2+2S+4)
b) 1/(S power2+4S+4)
c) 1/(S power2-2S+4)
d) 1/(S power2-4S+4)
Ans: 1/(S power2+4S+4)
12.C is capacitance of A=10cm*10cm then find C for A=2.5cm*2.5cm
a)C/4
b)C/8
c)C/16
d)C/32
Ans:C/16
13.Ammeter carries 1mA current with internal resistance of 1 Kohm, this meter is used for 10V measurement how much resistance is adding in series to the circuit
a)10kohm
b)9Kohm
c)0.9Kohm
d)1Kohm
Ans:9Kohm
14.Damping torque used in energy meter is
a)Electro static
b)Electro magnetic
c)eddy current
d)None
Ans:eddy current
15.For DC shunt machine applied voltage is half then speed of machine will be
a)Increses and double
b)Decreases and half
c)Decreases lightly
d)No change
Ans: Decreases lightly
16.Y=ABCD+A’BCD+AB’CD+A’B’CD
a)A+B
b)CD
c)C+D
d)AB
Ans:CD
17.Wait status can be achieved in 8085 micro processor by]
a)TRAP
b)DMA
c)HOLD
d)INTR
Ans:HOLD
18.DMA can do
a)Data transfer between memory and I/O devices with out use of processor
b)
c)
d)
Ans: Data transfer between memory and I/O devices with out use of processor
19.Resolution =0.001V for 10V measurement how many bits we need in Analog to digital converters
a)4
b)8
c)16
d)14
Ans:16
20.X-plate 20sin(wt), Y-plate 20sin(wt+a) what value of ‘a’ lissajous pattern is circle
a)0 deg
b)90 deg
c)180 deg
d)360 deg
Ans:90 deg
21.High frequency transformer core is made up of
a)Copper
b)Csat steel
c)Graphite
d)Ferrite
Ans:Ferrite
22.In permanent magnet motor Voltage is
a)Praportional to Speed
b)Praportional to Current
c)
d)
Ans:
23.C is capacitance, L is inductance then Sqr root of(L/C) is
a)Resistance
b)Power factor
c)Voltage drop
d)Reactance
Ans:Resistance
24.For type-2 servo motor can be exited by ramp input then study state error is
a)0
b)1
c)infinity
d)None
Ans:0
25.1/(1+RCS) is exited by step function then
a)Ve(t/RC)
b)Ve(-t/RC)
c)V(1+e(-t/RC))
d)V(1-e(-t/RC))
Ans: Ve(-t/RC)
26. Gain is 10 power 5 and one pole at 100 Hz then band width is
a)1000
b)100
c)100000
d)1
Ans:
27.In CC configuration of amplifier has
a)High input Impedance and low output impedance
b)Low input Impedance and High output impedance
c)Low input Impedance and low output impedance
d)High input Impedance and High output impedance
Ans: High input Impedance and low output impedance
28.load of 100 ohm and step down transformer of 2:1 if load is reflected to primary is
a)100 ohm
b)50 ohm
c)400 ohm
d)500 ohm
Ans:400 ohm
29.20:1 gear box output is 200W then input is
a)10W
b)200W
c)4KW
d)
Ans::
Memory based Question paper
For Electrical Engineering
Note: If Answer contains * means Answer is may be correct but not sure,
1. Transformer core are laminated for what purpose?
a)Reduce copper losses
b)Reduce iron losses
c)Reduce eddy current losses
d)Reduce hysteresis losses
Ans: Reduce eddy current losses
2.240V 1-phase 50Hz 10A, 0.8 pf lag energy meter, Revolution/kwh=400 then find speed of the disk in rpm
a)12.8
b)21.1
c)18.1
d)19.2
Ans:12.8
3.1-phase AC supply is given to the ___________in he single phase induction motor
a)Stator
b)Rotor
c)Both
d)None
Ans:Stator
4.Synchronous motor operated at leading pf when
a)Under exited
b)Over exited
c)Normal exited
d)None
Ans:Over exited
5.CMRR=100 dB, Differential mode gain=10 power 4 then find Common mode gain
a)10
b)0.1
c)1
d)10 power 5
Ans:0.1
6.3-phase, 50 Hz 6 pole synchronous motor rotate at
a)1000 rmp
b)1500 rpm
c)1800 rpm
d)3600 rpm
Ans:1000 rpm
7.Nr=727.5 rpm for 3-phase 50 Hz 8 pole induction motor find rotor frequency
a)1.5 Hz
b)50 Hz
c)75 Hz
d)60 Hz
Ans:1.5 Hz
8.3-phase rectifier ripple frequency is_________ if supply frequency is 50 Hz
a)50 Hz
b)100 Hz
c)150 Hz
d)300 Hz
Ans:300 Hz
9.18/9+8-2*5=________ in C
a)0
b)9
c)5
d)7
Ans:0
10.find K G(s)=K/s(s power 2+s+2)(s+3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ans:
11.Find critically damped system
a)1/(S power2+2S+4)
b) 1/(S power2+4S+4)
c) 1/(S power2-2S+4)
d) 1/(S power2-4S+4)
Ans: 1/(S power2+4S+4)
12.C is capacitance of A=10cm*10cm then find C for A=2.5cm*2.5cm
a)C/4
b)C/8
c)C/16
d)C/32
Ans:C/16
13.Ammeter carries 1mA current with internal resistance of 1 Kohm, this meter is used for 10V measurement how much resistance is adding in series to the circuit
a)10kohm
b)9Kohm
c)0.9Kohm
d)1Kohm
Ans:9Kohm
14.Damping torque used in energy meter is
a)Electro static
b)Electro magnetic
c)eddy current
d)None
Ans:eddy current
15.For DC shunt machine applied voltage is half then speed of machine will be
a)Increses and double
b)Decreases and half
c)Decreases lightly
d)No change
Ans: Decreases lightly
16.Y=ABCD+A’BCD+AB’CD+A’B’CD
a)A+B
b)CD
c)C+D
d)AB
Ans:CD
17.Wait status can be achieved in 8085 micro processor by]
a)TRAP
b)DMA
c)HOLD
d)INTR
Ans:HOLD
18.DMA can do
a)Data transfer between memory and I/O devices with out use of processor
b)
c)
d)
Ans: Data transfer between memory and I/O devices with out use of processor
19.Resolution =0.001V for 10V measurement how many bits we need in Analog to digital converters
a)4
b)8
c)16
d)14
Ans:16
20.X-plate 20sin(wt), Y-plate 20sin(wt+a) what value of ‘a’ lissajous pattern is circle
a)0 deg
b)90 deg
c)180 deg
d)360 deg
Ans:90 deg
21.High frequency transformer core is made up of
a)Copper
b)Csat steel
c)Graphite
d)Ferrite
Ans:Ferrite
22.In permanent magnet motor Voltage is
a)Praportional to Speed
b)Praportional to Current
c)
d)
Ans:
23.C is capacitance, L is inductance then Sqr root of(L/C) is
a)Resistance
b)Power factor
c)Voltage drop
d)Reactance
Ans:Resistance
24.For type-2 servo motor can be exited by ramp input then study state error is
a)0
b)1
c)infinity
d)None
Ans:0
25.1/(1+RCS) is exited by step function then
a)Ve(t/RC)
b)Ve(-t/RC)
c)V(1+e(-t/RC))
d)V(1-e(-t/RC))
Ans: Ve(-t/RC)
26. Gain is 10 power 5 and one pole at 100 Hz then band width is
a)1000
b)100
c)100000
d)1
Ans:
27.In CC configuration of amplifier has
a)High input Impedance and low output impedance
b)Low input Impedance and High output impedance
c)Low input Impedance and low output impedance
d)High input Impedance and High output impedance
Ans: High input Impedance and low output impedance
28.load of 100 ohm and step down transformer of 2:1 if load is reflected to primary is
a)100 ohm
b)50 ohm
c)400 ohm
d)500 ohm
Ans:400 ohm
29.20:1 gear box output is 200W then input is
a)10W
b)200W
c)4KW
d)
Ans::
Friday, June 4, 2010
APGENCO AE ELECTRONICS SYLLABUS
APGENCO AE ELECTRONICS SYLLABUS
1. Basics of Circuits and Measurement Systems:
Kirchoff’s laws, mesh and nodal Analysis, Circuit theorems. One-port and two-port Network Function. Static and dynamic characteristics of Measurement Systems. Error and uncertainty analysis. Statistical analysis of data and curve fitting.
2. Transducers, Mechanical Measurement and Industrial Instrumentation:
Resistive, Capacitive, Inductive and piezoelectric transducers and their signal conditioning. Measurement of displacement, velocity and acceleration (translational and rotational), force, torque, vibration and shock. Measurement of pressure, flow, temperature and liquid level. Measurement of pH, conductivity, viscosity and humidity.
3. Analog Electronics:
Characteristics of diode, BJT, JFET and MOSFET. Diode circuits. Transistors at low and high frequencies, Amplifiers, single and multi-stage. Feedback amplifiers. Operational amplifiers, characteristics and circuit configurations, Instrumentation amplifier. Precision rectifier. V-to-I and I-to-V converter. Op-Amp based active filters. Oscillators and signal generators.
4. Digital Electronics:
Combinational logic circuits, minimization of Boolean functions. IC families, TTL, MOS and CMOS. Arithmetic circuits, Comparators, Schmitt trigger, timers and mono-stable multi vibrator. Sequential circuits, flip-flops, counters , shift registers, Multiplexer, S/H circuit, Analog-to-Digital and Digital-to-Analog converters. Basics of number system. Microprocessor applications, memory and input-output interfacing. Microcontrollers.
5. Signals, Systems and Communications:
Periodic and aperiodic signals. Impulse response, transfer function and frequency response of first and second order systems. Convolution, correlation and characteristics of linear time invariant systems. Discrete time system, impulse and frequency response. Pulse transfer function. IIR and FIR filters. Amplitude and frequency modulation and demodulation. Sampling theorem, pulse code modulation. Frequency and time division multiplexing. Amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying and pulse shift keying for digital modulation.
6. Electrical and Electronic Measurements:
Bridges and potentiometers, measurement of R, L and C. Measurements of voltage, current, power, power factor and energy. A.C & D.C current probes. Extension of instrument ranges. Q-meter and waveform analyzer. Digital voltmeter and multi-meter. Time, phase and frequency measurements. Cathode ray oscilloscope. Serial and parallel communication. Shielding and grounding.
7. Control Systems and Process Control:
Feedback principles. Signal flow graphs. Transient Response, steady-state-errors. Routh and Nyquist criteria. Bode plot, root loci. Time delay systems. Phase and gain margin. State space representation of systems. Mechanical, hydraulic and pneumatic system components. Synchro pair, servo and step motors. On-off, cascade, P, P-I, P-I-D, feed forward and derivative controller, Fuzzy controllers.
8. Analytical, Optical Instrumentation:
Mass spectrometry, UV, visible and IR spectrometry, X-ray and nuclear radiation measurements. Optical sources and detectors, LED, laser, Photo-diode, photo-resistor and their characteristics. Interferometers, applications in metrology. Basics of fiber optics.
APGENCO ASSISTANT ENGINEERS (AE) MECHANICAL SYLLABUS
Strength of Materials:
Simple stresses and strains Hooke’s law, elastic constants, stress strain curve of mild steel bars of uniform strength, compound bars, temperature stresses, stresses on oblique planes – principal stresses and strains, Mohr’s stress circle, shear force and bending moment diagrams for beams, bending and shear stresses in beams, deflections of beams, columns and struts, strain energy, torsion of circular shafts and springs.
Fluid Mechanics and Machinery:
Basic fluid properties, fluid static – pressure measurements, buoyancy and flotation, truid Kinematics, fluid dynamics – Euler’s, Bernoulli’s and Impulse momentum equations, laminar and turbulent flows, flow through pipes and losses in pipes, bends, boundary layer theory, compressible fluid flow, impact of jets, Hydraulic turbines and pumps, Ram, accumulator and intensifier.
Material Science and Metallurgy:
Structure and properties of engineering materials, bonding in solids, imperfections in crystals and metals, structure of alloys, manufacture of iron and steel, heat treatment, alloy steels, principles of powder metallurgy.
Theory of Machines:
Displacement, velocity and acceleration analysis of plane mechanisms. dynamic analysis of slider – crank mechanism, gear trains, flyWheels. .
Vibrations:
Free and forced vibrations, effect of damping, resonance. Vibration isolation, critical speeds of shafts.
Design of Machine Elements:
Design for static and dynamic loading, failure theories, fatigue strength, S-N diagram, design of joints, shafts, bearings, gears, brakes, clutches, screws, springs, cranks, piston, gyroscopes, balancing and governors.
Heat Transfer:
Various modes of heat transfer, fins, heat exchangers, LMTD & NTU methods, unsteady state heat conduction, dimensionless parameters, free and forced convective heat transfer, thermal boundary layer, heat Transfer in flow-over flat plates and through Pipes, effect of turbulence, radiative heat transfer, shape factors, network analysis, eondensation and boiling.
Thermodynamics:
Zeroth, first and second laws of thermodynamics, thermodynamics systems and processes, Carnot cycle, Air-standard cycles, irreversibility and availability, properties of pure substances. Psychometry, Refrigeration and Air-conditioning, working principles and their applications.
Applied Thermodynamics:
Classification of compressors and its working principles, Classification of I.C . Engines and its working principles, performances, Design considerations of combustion chambers for C.!. & S.L Engines, knocking, Rating of fuels, Lubrications, Ignition systems.
Turbo machines:
Working principles of gas turbines, steam turbines, Rankine’s cycle. modified Rankine’s cycle, jet propulsion and nozzles.
Metal cutting and Machine tools:
Mechanics of machining, single and multi point cutting tools, tool geometry, tool life, wear, cutting force analysis, micro finishing machines-EDM, ECM and USM, NC machines, jigs and fixtures. Standards of measurements, limits, fits, tolerances, linear and angular measurements, comparators, lathes, drilling, shaping, planning, milling, gear cutting. broaching and grinding machines.
Foundry, Welding and Forging:
Design of patterns moulds and cores, solidification, design consideration of runner, riser and gate. Physics of welding, types of welding and their principles, brazing, soldering, adhesive bonding. Fundamentals of hot and cold working processes, forging, rolling, extrusion, drawing, shearing and bending.
Production and operation management:
Plant layout, material handling, production planning and control, materials, management and work studies, inspections, quality control, cost analysis, operation research, basic concepts of CADI CAM, inventory control
APGENCO AE (ASSISTANT ENGINEERS) CIVIL SYLLABUS
1. Strength of materials and theory of structures:
Simple stresses and strains, Hooke’s Law, elastic constants, stress strain curve of mild steel stresses on oblique planes – Principal stresses and strains, Mohr’s stress circle, temperature stresses, compound bars, shear force and bending moment diagrams for beams, bending and shear stresses in beams, strain energy principles, torsion of circular shafts – Pure torsion and combined with bending and thrust, deflections of simple beams, thin and thick cylinders, columns and struts, direct and bending stresses, trusses, propped cantilevers and fixed beams, arches, cables and
suspension bridges; moving loads and influence lines; static and kinematic indeterminacies, Continuous beams and portal frames-movement distribution, Kani’s and matrix methods. Unsymmetrical Bending and shear Centre.
2. Reinforced Concrete:
Materials – properties, grades and tests, workability and mix design of concrete – basic concepts of working stress and limit state methods of design – Limit state design of beams, slabs, columns, footings. Circular and flat slabs, water tanks, bridges – IRC specifications and loadings, Slabs and T – beam bridges, retaining walls, Pre-stressed concrete – basic concepts, losses and analysis and design of beams including end block.
3. Steel structure:
Rivetted and welded joints, Connections – eccentric and framed, simple and compound beams, tension and compression members, plate and gantry girders, roof trusses, plate girder and truss bridges, water tanks, roof trusses, tubular sections and design, transmission towers, column bases, plastic analysis, basic principles, theorems, methods of analysis, analysis and design of determinate and indeterminate beams and frames.
4. Geo-Technical Engineering:
Origin and classification of soils, three phase system, basic definitions and relations, effective stress. Permeability, capillarity and seepage of soils, flownets, flow through earthen dams, compressibility, consolidation and compaction of soils, shear strength, stability of slopes, earth pressures and retaining walls, stress distribution in soils, settlement analysis, subsurface exploration and site investigations, bearing capacity of soils, shallow and deep foundations, pile foundations.
5. Other Topics:
Elements of surveying – Chain, plane table, compass and theodolite, leveling, building materials and construction, formwork, CPM and PERT.
6. Fluid Mechanics and Machinery:
Properties of fluids, pressure measurement fluid statics, buoyancy and flotation, fluid kinematics and fluid dynamics, orifices and mouthpieces, notches and weirs, laminar and turbulent flows, flow through pipes, forces on immersed bodies, flow in open channels, impact of jets, Hydraulic turbines and pumps, dams, power houses, hydrology and hydro power plants.
1. Basics of Circuits and Measurement Systems:
Kirchoff’s laws, mesh and nodal Analysis, Circuit theorems. One-port and two-port Network Function. Static and dynamic characteristics of Measurement Systems. Error and uncertainty analysis. Statistical analysis of data and curve fitting.
2. Transducers, Mechanical Measurement and Industrial Instrumentation:
Resistive, Capacitive, Inductive and piezoelectric transducers and their signal conditioning. Measurement of displacement, velocity and acceleration (translational and rotational), force, torque, vibration and shock. Measurement of pressure, flow, temperature and liquid level. Measurement of pH, conductivity, viscosity and humidity.
3. Analog Electronics:
Characteristics of diode, BJT, JFET and MOSFET. Diode circuits. Transistors at low and high frequencies, Amplifiers, single and multi-stage. Feedback amplifiers. Operational amplifiers, characteristics and circuit configurations, Instrumentation amplifier. Precision rectifier. V-to-I and I-to-V converter. Op-Amp based active filters. Oscillators and signal generators.
4. Digital Electronics:
Combinational logic circuits, minimization of Boolean functions. IC families, TTL, MOS and CMOS. Arithmetic circuits, Comparators, Schmitt trigger, timers and mono-stable multi vibrator. Sequential circuits, flip-flops, counters , shift registers, Multiplexer, S/H circuit, Analog-to-Digital and Digital-to-Analog converters. Basics of number system. Microprocessor applications, memory and input-output interfacing. Microcontrollers.
5. Signals, Systems and Communications:
Periodic and aperiodic signals. Impulse response, transfer function and frequency response of first and second order systems. Convolution, correlation and characteristics of linear time invariant systems. Discrete time system, impulse and frequency response. Pulse transfer function. IIR and FIR filters. Amplitude and frequency modulation and demodulation. Sampling theorem, pulse code modulation. Frequency and time division multiplexing. Amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying and pulse shift keying for digital modulation.
6. Electrical and Electronic Measurements:
Bridges and potentiometers, measurement of R, L and C. Measurements of voltage, current, power, power factor and energy. A.C & D.C current probes. Extension of instrument ranges. Q-meter and waveform analyzer. Digital voltmeter and multi-meter. Time, phase and frequency measurements. Cathode ray oscilloscope. Serial and parallel communication. Shielding and grounding.
7. Control Systems and Process Control:
Feedback principles. Signal flow graphs. Transient Response, steady-state-errors. Routh and Nyquist criteria. Bode plot, root loci. Time delay systems. Phase and gain margin. State space representation of systems. Mechanical, hydraulic and pneumatic system components. Synchro pair, servo and step motors. On-off, cascade, P, P-I, P-I-D, feed forward and derivative controller, Fuzzy controllers.
8. Analytical, Optical Instrumentation:
Mass spectrometry, UV, visible and IR spectrometry, X-ray and nuclear radiation measurements. Optical sources and detectors, LED, laser, Photo-diode, photo-resistor and their characteristics. Interferometers, applications in metrology. Basics of fiber optics.
APGENCO ASSISTANT ENGINEERS (AE) MECHANICAL SYLLABUS
Strength of Materials:
Simple stresses and strains Hooke’s law, elastic constants, stress strain curve of mild steel bars of uniform strength, compound bars, temperature stresses, stresses on oblique planes – principal stresses and strains, Mohr’s stress circle, shear force and bending moment diagrams for beams, bending and shear stresses in beams, deflections of beams, columns and struts, strain energy, torsion of circular shafts and springs.
Fluid Mechanics and Machinery:
Basic fluid properties, fluid static – pressure measurements, buoyancy and flotation, truid Kinematics, fluid dynamics – Euler’s, Bernoulli’s and Impulse momentum equations, laminar and turbulent flows, flow through pipes and losses in pipes, bends, boundary layer theory, compressible fluid flow, impact of jets, Hydraulic turbines and pumps, Ram, accumulator and intensifier.
Material Science and Metallurgy:
Structure and properties of engineering materials, bonding in solids, imperfections in crystals and metals, structure of alloys, manufacture of iron and steel, heat treatment, alloy steels, principles of powder metallurgy.
Theory of Machines:
Displacement, velocity and acceleration analysis of plane mechanisms. dynamic analysis of slider – crank mechanism, gear trains, flyWheels. .
Vibrations:
Free and forced vibrations, effect of damping, resonance. Vibration isolation, critical speeds of shafts.
Design of Machine Elements:
Design for static and dynamic loading, failure theories, fatigue strength, S-N diagram, design of joints, shafts, bearings, gears, brakes, clutches, screws, springs, cranks, piston, gyroscopes, balancing and governors.
Heat Transfer:
Various modes of heat transfer, fins, heat exchangers, LMTD & NTU methods, unsteady state heat conduction, dimensionless parameters, free and forced convective heat transfer, thermal boundary layer, heat Transfer in flow-over flat plates and through Pipes, effect of turbulence, radiative heat transfer, shape factors, network analysis, eondensation and boiling.
Thermodynamics:
Zeroth, first and second laws of thermodynamics, thermodynamics systems and processes, Carnot cycle, Air-standard cycles, irreversibility and availability, properties of pure substances. Psychometry, Refrigeration and Air-conditioning, working principles and their applications.
Applied Thermodynamics:
Classification of compressors and its working principles, Classification of I.C . Engines and its working principles, performances, Design considerations of combustion chambers for C.!. & S.L Engines, knocking, Rating of fuels, Lubrications, Ignition systems.
Turbo machines:
Working principles of gas turbines, steam turbines, Rankine’s cycle. modified Rankine’s cycle, jet propulsion and nozzles.
Metal cutting and Machine tools:
Mechanics of machining, single and multi point cutting tools, tool geometry, tool life, wear, cutting force analysis, micro finishing machines-EDM, ECM and USM, NC machines, jigs and fixtures. Standards of measurements, limits, fits, tolerances, linear and angular measurements, comparators, lathes, drilling, shaping, planning, milling, gear cutting. broaching and grinding machines.
Foundry, Welding and Forging:
Design of patterns moulds and cores, solidification, design consideration of runner, riser and gate. Physics of welding, types of welding and their principles, brazing, soldering, adhesive bonding. Fundamentals of hot and cold working processes, forging, rolling, extrusion, drawing, shearing and bending.
Production and operation management:
Plant layout, material handling, production planning and control, materials, management and work studies, inspections, quality control, cost analysis, operation research, basic concepts of CADI CAM, inventory control
APGENCO AE (ASSISTANT ENGINEERS) CIVIL SYLLABUS
1. Strength of materials and theory of structures:
Simple stresses and strains, Hooke’s Law, elastic constants, stress strain curve of mild steel stresses on oblique planes – Principal stresses and strains, Mohr’s stress circle, temperature stresses, compound bars, shear force and bending moment diagrams for beams, bending and shear stresses in beams, strain energy principles, torsion of circular shafts – Pure torsion and combined with bending and thrust, deflections of simple beams, thin and thick cylinders, columns and struts, direct and bending stresses, trusses, propped cantilevers and fixed beams, arches, cables and
suspension bridges; moving loads and influence lines; static and kinematic indeterminacies, Continuous beams and portal frames-movement distribution, Kani’s and matrix methods. Unsymmetrical Bending and shear Centre.
2. Reinforced Concrete:
Materials – properties, grades and tests, workability and mix design of concrete – basic concepts of working stress and limit state methods of design – Limit state design of beams, slabs, columns, footings. Circular and flat slabs, water tanks, bridges – IRC specifications and loadings, Slabs and T – beam bridges, retaining walls, Pre-stressed concrete – basic concepts, losses and analysis and design of beams including end block.
3. Steel structure:
Rivetted and welded joints, Connections – eccentric and framed, simple and compound beams, tension and compression members, plate and gantry girders, roof trusses, plate girder and truss bridges, water tanks, roof trusses, tubular sections and design, transmission towers, column bases, plastic analysis, basic principles, theorems, methods of analysis, analysis and design of determinate and indeterminate beams and frames.
4. Geo-Technical Engineering:
Origin and classification of soils, three phase system, basic definitions and relations, effective stress. Permeability, capillarity and seepage of soils, flownets, flow through earthen dams, compressibility, consolidation and compaction of soils, shear strength, stability of slopes, earth pressures and retaining walls, stress distribution in soils, settlement analysis, subsurface exploration and site investigations, bearing capacity of soils, shallow and deep foundations, pile foundations.
5. Other Topics:
Elements of surveying – Chain, plane table, compass and theodolite, leveling, building materials and construction, formwork, CPM and PERT.
6. Fluid Mechanics and Machinery:
Properties of fluids, pressure measurement fluid statics, buoyancy and flotation, fluid kinematics and fluid dynamics, orifices and mouthpieces, notches and weirs, laminar and turbulent flows, flow through pipes, forces on immersed bodies, flow in open channels, impact of jets, Hydraulic turbines and pumps, dams, power houses, hydrology and hydro power plants.
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